Cyber Security Basics

Which of the following best describes the relationship between confidentiality, integrity, and availability in the CIA triad?

• Confidentiality ensures data is accessible only to authorized users; integrity ensures data is unaltered; availability guarantees timely access to data.

• Confidentiality ensures data is unaltered; integrity ensures data is accessible; availability guarantees data is encrypted.

• Confidentiality guarantees timely access; integrity ensures data is encrypted; availability restricts access to authorized users.

• Confidentiality and integrity both guarantee data availability.

In the context of malware propagation, how does a worm differ from a virus in terms of its infection mechanism?

• Worms require user interaction to spread, viruses spread autonomously.

• Worms self-replicate and spread over networks without a host file, viruses attach to executable files and require user action.

• Viruses spread through network vulnerabilities, worms attach to files.

• Worms encrypt files, viruses delete files.

A ransomware attack typically involves which of the following stages?

• Data exfiltration, encryption, ransom demand, and decryption key delivery upon payment.

• Immediate deletion of all user files.

• Silent monitoring of user activity without file encryption.

• Only stealing user credentials without file manipulation.

Which of the following scenarios best exemplifies a man-in-the-middle (MITM) attack?

• An attacker intercepts and alters communication between a user and a bank website without either party's knowledge.

• An attacker floods a server with traffic to cause denial of service.

• An attacker sends phishing emails to steal credentials.

• An attacker exploits a buffer overflow vulnerability to gain access.

How does the implementation of HTTPS using SSL/TLS protocols protect against eavesdropping and tampering?

• By encrypting data in transit and authenticating the server to the client.

• By blocking all incoming traffic except from trusted IPs.

• By scanning for malware at the network perimeter.

• By storing passwords in encrypted form on the server.

Which of the following best describes the role of patch management in an organization's cybersecurity posture?

• It ensures all software is updated regularly to mitigate known vulnerabilities and reduce attack surface.

• It backs up data to prevent loss during attacks.

• It monitors network traffic for suspicious activity.

• It encrypts sensitive data at rest.

Which of the following social engineering techniques involves an attacker impersonating a trusted authority to extract information?

• Phishing

• Pretexting

• Tailgating

• Spear phishing

What distinguishes Advanced Persistent Threats (APTs) from other cyberattacks?

• Their short duration and high visibility.

• Their use of automated scripts without human intervention.

• Their prolonged, targeted, and stealthy nature, often sponsored by nation-states.

• Their focus on ransomware and financial gain only.

Which of the following best explains the difference between IDS and IPS in network security?

• IDS detects and alerts on suspicious activity; IPS detects and actively blocks or mitigates threats.

• IDS blocks traffic; IPS only logs traffic.

• IDS encrypts data; IPS decrypts data.

• IDS manages user access; IPS manages firewall rules.

In the context of honeypots, what is the primary security benefit they provide?

• They serve as decoy systems to attract attackers and gather intelligence on attack methods.

• They block all unauthorized access automatically.

• They encrypt sensitive data.

• They replace firewalls in network security.