A 35-year-old man presents after being struck in the face with a metal pipe. He is conscious and agitated, with severe mid-face instability, active oropharyngeal bleeding, and inspiratory stridor. What is the most appropriate next step for airway management?

• Surgical cricothyroidotomy

• Rapid sequence intubation

• Nasotracheal intubation

• Bag-valve-mask ventilation

Answer explanation

Massive facial trauma with bleeding and stridor indicates a high likelihood of a failed orotracheal intubation. A surgical airway is the safest and most definitive approach in this "can't intubate" scenario.

A victim of a high-speed car crash has a blood pressure of 80/50 mmHg and a heart rate of 135 bpm. His extremities are cool and clammy, and his neck veins are flat. Breath sounds are equal bilaterally. What is the most likely type of shock?

• Hypovolemic shock

• Obstructive shock

• Neurogenic shock

• Septic shock

Answer explanation

Tachycardia, hypotension, and cool extremities with flat neck veins are the classic signs of hypovolemic shock due to hemorrhage in a trauma patient.

A 28-year-old patient undergoes damage control resuscitation for a pelvic fracture, receiving 12 units of packed red blood cells, 10 units of fresh frozen plasma, and 2 units of platelets. Two hours into resuscitation in the ICU, an ECG shows a heart rate of 110/min, a prolonged QT interval, and occasional ventricular ectopics. Which of the following metabolic disturbances is the most likely cause of these ECG findings?

• Hypocalcemia

• Hyperkalemia

• Metabolic Acidosis

• Respiratory Alkalosis

Answer explanation

Massive transfusion with citrated blood products chelates ionized calcium, leading to functional hypocalcemia. This is a well-known cause of QT prolongation and myocardial irritability.

A patient with a confirmed anterior cranial fossa fracture involving the cribriform plate presents with CSF rhinorrhea. Which associated neurological deficit is most likely to be found in this patient?

• Anosmia

• Diplopia

• Vertigo

• Dysphagia

Answer explanation

The olfactory nerve filaments (CN I) pass directly through the cribriform plate. A fracture here can easily shear these delicate filaments, resulting in anosmia (loss of smell).

A 78-year-old male with a known chronic subdural hematoma presents with acute-on-chronic worsening of confusion and a new-onset right-sided hemiparesis. A repeat CT scan confirms a large, now symptomatic, hypodense collection. What is the most appropriate initial surgical intervention?

• Burr hole craniostomy and drainage

• Emergency decompressive craniectomy

• Ventriculoperitoneal shunt placement

• Middle meningeal artery embolization

Answer explanation

Burr hole drainage is the standard, minimally invasive procedure for evacuating a liquid chronic SDH, providing rapid symptom relief by decompressing the brain.

A 24-year-old male presents with a stab wound just superior to the medial clavicle. He is hypotensive with an expanding hematoma at the base of his neck. After initial resuscitation, he is taken to the operating room. Which surgical incision provides the best proximal control for the suspected vascular injury?

• Median sternotomy

• Anterolateral thoracotomy

• Standard collar incision

• Angiographic embolization

Answer explanation

A median sternotomy provides optimal access to the great vessels (brachiocephalic artery, subclavian arteries) arising from the aortic arch, which is crucial for controlling hemorrhage from a Zone 1 neck injury.

During an emergency laparotomy for a severe liver laceration, a surgeon encounters massive, pulsatile hemorrhage. A clamp is placed across the hepatoduodenal ligament (Pringle maneuver), but profuse venous bleeding from the depths of the liver fracture continues unabated. This finding strongly suggests an injury to which of the following structures?

• Hepatic veins

• Common bile duct

• Portal vein

• Splenic artery

Answer explanation

 The Pringle maneuver controls inflow by occluding the portal vein and hepatic artery. Persistent hemorrhage, especially venous, indicates an injury to the outflow vessels (hepatic veins) or the retrohepatic IVC.

A 55-year-old male presents with bilateral buttock claudication and erectile dysfunction. A CT angiogram confirms severe occlusive disease at the aortic bifurcation extending into the common iliac arteries. What is the most definitive surgical treatment for this condition?

• Aortobifemoral bypass

• Femoropopliteal bypass

• Endarterectomy of the profunda femoris

• Lumbar sympathectomy

Answer explanation

The clinical triad and anatomical location are classic for Leriche syndrome. An aortobifemoral bypass is the gold-standard open surgical procedure to bypass the diseased aorto-iliac segment and restore flow to both legs.

A 65-year-old man presents with a chronic, shallow ulcer over the medial malleolus, surrounded by hyperpigmentation and induration. He has a history of untreated varicose veins. Incompetence of which venous structures is the most direct cause of this "gaiter area" ulceration?

• Cockett's perforators

• Dodd's perforator

• Hunterian perforator

• Superficial circumflex iliac vein

Answer explanation

Cockett's perforators (posterior tibial perforators) connect the posterior arch vein to the deep veins in the lower leg (gaiter area). Their incompetence leads to localized venous hypertension, causing lipodermatosclerosis and ulceration.

A 65-year-old patient with a painful, indurated, and hyperpigmented gaiter area is examined. The skin is fibrotic and tethered, giving the leg an "inverted champagne bottle" appearance. This clinical sign is known as:

• Lipodermatosclerosis

• Atrophie blanche

• Corona phlebectatica

• Stasis dermatitis

Answer explanation

 Lipodermatosclerosis: This is the classic term for the chronic fibro-inflammatory changes in the subcutaneous tissue due to severe venous hypertension, leading to the characteristic tapered ankle appearance.