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Cell Division Review

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Which reason is NOT why cells divide?
a)
cell gets to big
b)
injury
c)
cell needs more nutrients
growth
d)
growth
2.
Haploid cells are these type of cells.
a)
gametes- eggs and sperm
b)
body cells
c)
a zygote
d)
an embryo
3.
Why are cells small? 
a)
to fit into our bodies
b)
to grow faster
c)
to fit into other cells
d)
to diffuse substances in more quickly
4.
Eukaryotes have organelles that have membranes like the nucleus.
a)
True
b)
False
5.
Prokaryotes include plants, fungi and animal cells. 
a)
True
b)
False
6.

In fertilization the parents chromosomes join, one from the mother, one from the father, these type of chromosomes are called...?

a)

heterozygous

b)

homologous

c)

hybrid

d)

haploid

7.
What fibers are attached to chromosomes that help pull them apart during mitosis? 
a)
centrioles
b)
chromatids
c)
chromosomal
d)
spindle
8.
What is cytokinesis?
a)
division of the nucleus
b)
division of the chromatids
c)
division of the cytoplasm
d)
division of the centrioles
9.
What does homologous mean? 
a)
similar but not identical
b)
identical
c)
sister chromatids
d)
different
10.
What is the correct sequence of events in reproduction? 
a)
fertilization then gamete then zygote
b)
zygote then fertilization then gamete
c)
gamete then fertilization then zygote
11.
Sexual reproduction is best described as ....
a)
two parent are involved
b)
two parents donate only half of their chromosomes result is a genetically different offspring
c)
two parents donate their full set of chromosomes to their offspring. 
12.
Benign is a tumor that is?
a)
not harmful
b)
spread through out the body
c)
located in one spot
13.
The end result of mitosis is? 
a)
two different daughter cells
b)
two homologous cells
c)
two haploid cells
d)
two identical daughter cells
14.
A body cell, also called an autosomal cell has 46 chromosomes, how many will the daughter cells have after mitosis?  
a)
92
b)
46
c)
23
15.
Which phase of mitosis is a cell in the longest? 
a)
prophase
b)
interphase
c)
metaphase
d)
anaphase
16.

Which of the following descriptions does not apply to meiosis?

a)

during the 1st division, sister chromatids travel to opposite ends of the cell.

b)

chromosome number of the daughter cells is 1/2 of the parent cell

c)

homologous chromosomes synapse and form tetrads prior to the 1st division

d)

cytoplasm of the cell and all of its organelles are divided approximately in half.

17.

Which of the following explains a significantly low rate of crossing over between two genes (Sordaria lab!)

a)

They are located on separate but homologous chromosomes

b)

The genes code for proteins that have similar functions

c)

The genes are located very close together on the same chromosome.

d)

The genes code for proteins that have very different functions.

18.

All of the following contribute to genetic recombination or variation in offspring EXCEPT

a)

gene linkage

b)

crossing over

c)

independent assortment

d)

random fertilization

19.

Chromosome number is reduced to haploid in meiosis. What event must occur to restore the diploid chromosome number?

a)

mitosis

b)

fertilization

c)

synapsis during prophase

d)

DNA replication

20.

Which of the following events is typical of the 2nd meiotic division?

a)

paternal and maternal chromosomes assort randomly

b)

the chromosome number becomes haploid

c)

crossing over between nonsister chromatids

d)

sister chromatids migrate to separate poles

21.

A cell with a diploid number of 6 chromosomes could produce gametes with how many different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes?

a)

6

b)

8

c)

12

d)

64

22.

The DNA content of a diploid cell is measured in the G1 phase. After meiosis I, the DNA content of one of the two cells produced would be

a)

equal to that of the G1 cell.

b)

1/2 that of the G1 cell.

c)

1/4 that of the G1 cell.

d)

2X that of the G1 cell.

23.

True or False? Both meiosis II and mitosis have phases where sister chromatids separate.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Independent assortment of chromosomes at metaphase I results in an increase in the number of

a)

gametes (sex cells)

b)

homologous chromosomes

c)

sex chromosomes

d)

possible combinations of characteristics

25.

Extra Credit! Try it! Given the following recombination frequencies, what is the correct order of the genes on the chromosome? Remember small map units means closer together. A to B= 8 map units, A to C = 28, A to D = 25, B to C = 20 , B to D = 33.

a)

A-B-C-D

b)

D-C-A-B

c)

A-D-C-B

d)

D-A-B-C

26.

If there is a mutation in M cyclin so that it does not bind with a CD-kinase, would mitosis occur?

a)

Yes

b)

No

27.

DNA synthesis check point prior to mitosis occurs at which part of the cell cycle?

a)

G1

b)

G2

c)

M

d)

S

28.

Cells that never go through mitosis remain in what part of the cell cycle?

a)

G0

b)

G1

c)

G2

d)

M

29.

Which term refers to the type of cell regulation that can cause cancer? Proto- oncogene or oncogene?

a)

Oncogene

b)

Proto-oncogene

30.

Does cancer occur with tumor suppressor genes when they are turned on or off?

a)

On

b)

Off