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WorksheetsChemistry Regent Exam-June 2014
Total questions: 50
Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Compared to the charge of a proton, the charge of an electon has
a)
a greater magnitude and the same sign
b)
a greater magnitude and the opposite sign
c)
the same magnitude and the same sign
d)
the same magnitude and the opposite sign
2.
Which atom has the largest atomic radius?
a)
potassium
b)
rubidium
c)
francium
d)
cesium
3.
In the wave-mechanical model of the atom, an orbital is defined as
a)
a region of the most probable proton location
b)
a region of the most probable electron location
c)
a circular path traveled by a proton around the nucleus
d)
a circular path traveled by an electron around the nucleus
4.
When an excited electron in an atom moves to the ground state, the electron
a)
absorbs energy as it moves to a higher energy state
b)
absorbs energy as it moves to a lower energy state
c)
emits energy as it moves to a higher energy state
d)
emits energy as it moves to a lower energy state
5.
Which polyatomic ion is found in the compound represented by the formula NaHCO3?
a)
acetate
b)
hydrogen carbonate
c)
hydrogen sulfate
d)
oxalate
6.
The atomic mass of magnesium is the weighted average of the atomic mass of
a)
all of the artificially produced isotopes of Mg
b)
all of the naturally occuring isotopes of Mg
c)
the two most abundant artificially produced isotopes of Mg
d)
the two most abundant naturally occuring isotopes of Mg
7.
Which element has atoms that can form halide ions?
a)
iodine
b)
silver
c)
strontium
d)
xenon
8.
Two forms of solid carbon, diamond and graphite, differ in their physical properties due to the differences in their
a)
atomic number
b)
crystal structures
c)
isotopic abundances
d)
percent compositions
9.
Which quantity can be calculated for a solid compound, given only the formula of the compound and the Periodic Table of the Elements?
a)
the density of the compound
b)
the heat of fusion of the compound
c)
the melting point of each element in the compound
d)
the percent composition by mass of each eleement in the compound
10.
Which terms identify types of chemical reactions?
a)
decomposition and sublimation
b)
decomposition and synthesis
c)
deposition and sublimation
d)
deposition and synthesis
11.
The greatest amount of energy released per gram of reactants occurs during a
a)
redox reaction
b)
fission reaction
c)
substitution reaction
d)
neutralization reaction
12.
Which element has atoms with the strongest attraction for electrons in a chemical bond?
a)
chlorine
b)
nitrogen
c)
fluorine
d)
oxygen
13.
Compared to the physical and chemical properties of the compound NO2, the compound N2O has
a)
different properties and different chemical properties
b)
different physical properties and the same chemical properties
c)
the same physical properties and different chemical properties
d)
the same physical properties and the same chemical properties
14.
Which phrase describes a molecule of CH4, in term of molecular polarity and distribution of charge?
a)
polar with a asymmetrical distribution of charge
b)
polar with a symmetrical distribution of charge
c)
nonpolar with an asymmetrical distribution of charge
d)
nonpolar with a symmetrical distribution of charge.
15.
Which sample of copper has atoms with the lowest average kinetic energy?
a)
10. g at 45 degrees C
b)
20. g at 35 degrees C
c)
30. g at 25 degrees C
d)
40. g at 15 degrees C
16.
Which change results in the formation of different substances?
a)
burning of propane
b)
melting of NaCl(s)
c)
deposition of CO2(g)
d)
solidification of water
17.
Which substance can not be broken down by a chemical change?
a)
ammonia
b)
ethanol
c)
propanal
d)
zirconium
18.
According to Table I, which equation represents a change resulting in the greatest quantity of energy released?
a)
2C(s) + 3H2(g) → C2H6(g)
b)
2C(s) + 2H2(g) → C2H4(g)
c)
N2(s) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)
d)
N2(s) + O2(g) → 2NO(g)
19.
Which element is a liquid at STP?
a)
bromine
b)
cesium
c)
francium
d)
iodine
20.
Which statement describes a reversible reaction at equilibrium?
a)
The activation energy of the forward reaction must equal the activation energy of the reverse reaction
b)
The rate of the forward reaction must equal the rate of the reverse reaction
c)
The concentration of the reactants must equal the concentration of the products
d)
The potential energy of the reactants must equal the potential energy of the products
21.
What occurs during this reaction given the balanced equation representing a reaction: O2 → O + O
a)
Energy is absorbed as bonds are broken
b)
Energy is absorbed as bonds are formed
c)
Energy is released as bonds are broken
d)
Energy is released as bonds are formed
22.
In terms of entropy and energy, systems in nature tend to undergo changes toward
a)
lower entropy and lower energy
b)
lower entropy and higher energy
c)
higher entropy and lower energy
d)
higher entropy and higher energy
23.
Which term is defined as the difference between the potential energy of the reactants in a chemical reaction?
a)
activation energy
b)
thermal energy
c)
heat of fusion
d)
heat of reaction
24.
What is the atomic number of the element whose atoms bond to each other in chains, rings, and networks?
a)
10
b)
8
c)
6
d)
4
25.
How many pairs of electrons are shared between two adjacent carbon atoms in a saturated hydrocarbon?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
26.
Given the balanced equation representing a reaction:
4Al(s) + 3O2(g)→2Al2O3(s) As the aluminum loses 12 moles of electrons, the oxygen
4Al(s) + 3O2(g)→2Al2O3(s) As the aluminum loses 12 moles of electrons, the oxygen
a)
gain 4 moles of electrons
b)
gains 12 moles of electrons
c)
loses 4 moles of electrons
d)
loses 12 moles of electrons
27.
Which compound is an electrolyte?
a)
CH2CHO
b)
CH3OCH3
c)
CH3COOH
d)
CH3CH2CH3
28.
Which statement describes one acid-base theory?
a)
an acid is an H+ acceptor, and a base is an H+ donor.
b)
an acid is an H+ donor, and a base is an H+ acceptor.
c)
an acid is an H- acceptor, and a base is an H- donor.
d)
an acid is an H- donor, and a base is an H- acceptor.
29.
Which compounds are classified as Arrhenius aids?
a)
HCl and NaOH
b)
HNO3 and NaCl
c)
NH3 and H2CO3
d)
HBr and H2SO4
30.
Which statement describes the stability of the nuclei of potassium atoms?
a)
all potassium atoms have stable nuclei that spontaneous decay
b)
all potassium atoms have unstable nuclei that do not spontaneously decay
c)
Some potassium atoms have unstable nuclei that spontaneously decay
d)
Some potassium atoms have unstable nuclei that do not spontaneously decay
31.
Which notations represent different isotopes of the element of sodium?
a)
32S and 34S
b)
S2- and S6+
c)
Na+and Na0
d)
22Na and 23Na
32.
Which electron configuration represents the electrons in an atom of Ga in an excited state?
a)
2-8-17-3
b)
2-8-17-4
c)
2-8-18-3
d)
2-8-18-4
33.
Which statement describes the general trends in electronegativity and first ionization energy as the elements in Period 3 are considered in order from Na to Cl?
a)
electronegatively increase, and first ionization energy decreases
b)
electronegatively decreases, and first ionization energy increases
c)
electronegatively and first ionization energy both increase
d)
electronegatively and first ionization energy both decreases
34.
What is the gram-formula mass of Fe(NO3)3?
a)
146 g/mol
b)
194 g/mol
c)
214 g/mol
d)
242 g/mol
35.
Given the balanced equation representing a reaction:
Al2(SO4)3 + 6NaOH→2Al(OH)3 + 3Na2SO4
The mole ratio of NaOH to Al(OH)3 is
Al2(SO4)3 + 6NaOH→2Al(OH)3 + 3Na2SO4
The mole ratio of NaOH to Al(OH)3 is
a)
1:1
b)
1:3
c)
3:1
d)
3:7
36.
Which equation represents a single replacement reaction?
a)
2H2O2→2H2O +O2
b)
2H2 + O2→2H2O
c)
H2SO4 + Mg→H2 + MgSO4
d)
HCl + KOH→KCl + H2O
37.
The accepted value for the percent by mass of water in a hydrate is 36.0%. In a laboratory activity, a student determined the percent by mass of water in the hydrate to be 37.8%. What is the percent error for the student's measured value?
a)
5.00%
b)
4.80%
c)
1.80%
d)
0.05%
38.
Which type of attraction can be used to explain the unusually high boiling point of H2O?
a)
ionic bonding
b)
hydrogen bonding
c)
polar covalent bonding
d)
nonpolar covalent bonding
39.
Which formula represents a molecule with the most polar bond?
a)
CO
b)
NO
c)
HI
d)
HCl
40.
Which line segment of the graph represents boiling?
a)
line AB
b)
line BC
c)
line CD
d)
Line DE
41.
A 1-gram sample of a compound is added to 100 grams of H2O(l) and the resulting mixture is then thoroughly stirred. Some of the compound is then separated from the mixture by filtration. Based on Table F, the compouund could be
a)
AgCl
b)
CaCl2
c)
NaCl
d)
NiCl2
42.
At standard pressure, the total amount of heat required to completely vaporize a 100-gram sample of water at its boiling points is
a)
2.26 x 10 J
b)
2.26 x 102 J
c)
2.26 x 103 J
d)
2.26 x 105J
43.
A sample of helium gas is in a sealed, rigid container. What occurs as the temperature of the sample is increased?
a)
the mass of the sample decreases
b)
the number of moles of gas increases
c)
the volume of each atom decreases
d)
the frequency of collisions between atoms increases
44.
What change causes the equilibrium to shift to the right given the equation representing a reaction at equilibrium:
a)
adding a catalyst
b)
adding more O2(g)
c)
decreasing the pressure
d)
increasing the temperature
45.
What is a chemical name of this compound?
a)
2-pentene
b)
2-pentyne
c)
3-pentene
d)
3-pentyne
46.
What is the oxidation number of manganese in KMnO4
a)
+7
b)
+2
c)
+3
d)
+4
47.
When the pH of an aqueus solution is changed from 1 to 2, the concentration of hydronium ions in the solution is
a)
decreased by a factor of 2
b)
decreased by a factor of 10
c)
increased by a factor of 2
d)
increased by a factor of 10
48.
What is the color of the indicator thymol blue in a solution that has a pH of 11?
a)
red
b)
blue
c)
pink
d)
yellow
49.
Which formulas represent compounds that are isomers of each other
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
50.
One beneficial use of radioisotopes is
a)
detection of disease
b)
neutralization of an acid spill
c)
decreasing the dissolved O2(g) level in seawater
d)
increasing the concentration of CO2(g) in the atmosphere
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