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WorksheetsChemistry Regent Exam-June 2011
Total questions: 50
Worksheet time: 43mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
A neutron has a charge of
a)
+1
b)
+2
c)
0
d)
-1
2.
Which particle has the least mass?
a)
alpha particle
b)
beta particle
c)
neutron
d)
proton
3.
A sample of matter must be copper if
a)
each atom in the sample has 29 protons
b)
atoms in the sample react with oxygen
c)
the sample melts at 1768 K
d)
the sample can conduct electricity
4.
In the electron cloud model of the atom, an orbital is defined as the most probable
a)
charge of an electron
b)
conductivity of an electron
c)
location of an electron
d)
mass of an electron
5.
The elements on the Periodic Table are arranged in order of increasing
a)
atomic number
b)
mass number
c)
number of isotopes
d)
number of moles
6.
Which element has the highest melting point?
a)
tantalum
b)
rhenium
c)
osmium
d)
hafnium
7.
In a chemical reaction, there is conservation of
a)
energy, volume, and mass
b)
energy, volume, and charge
c)
mass, charge, and energy
d)
mass, charge, and volume
8.
At STP, both diamond and graphite are solids composed of carbon atoms. These solids have
a)
the same crystal structure and the same properties
b)
the same crystal structure and different properties
c)
different crystal structures and the same properties
d)
different crystal structures and different properties
9.
The gram-formula mass of a compound is 48 grams. The mass of 1.0 mole of this compound is
a)
1.0 g
b)
4.8 g
c)
48 g
d)
480 g
10.
Given the balanced equation representing a reaction: Cl2 → Cl + Cl What occurs during this reaction?
a)
A bond is broken as energy is absorbed.
b)
A bond is broken as energy is released.
c)
A bond is formed as energy is absorbed.
d)
A bond is formed as energy is released.
11.
Which atom has the weakest attraction for the electrons in a bond with an H atom?
a)
Cl atom
b)
F atom
c)
O atom
d)
S atom
12.
Which substance can not be broken down by a chemical change?
a)
ammonia
b)
mercury
c)
propane
d)
water
13.
At standard pressure, how do the boiling point and the freezing point of NaCl(aq) compare to the boiling point and the freezing point of H2O(?)?
a)
Both the boiling point and the freezing point of NaCl(aq) are lower.
b)
Both the boiling point and the freezing point of NaCl(aq) are higher
c)
The boiling point of NaCl(aq) is lower, and the freezing point of NaCl(aq) is higher.
d)
The boiling point of NaCl(aq) is higher, and the freezing point of NaCl(aq) is lower.
14.
The temperature of a sample of matter is a measure of the
a)
average kinetic energy of its particles
b)
average potential energy of its particles
c)
total kinetic energy of its particles
d)
total potential energy of its particles
15.
According to the kinetic molecular theory, the particles of an ideal gas
a)
have no potential energy
b)
have strong intermolecular forces
c)
are arranged in a regular, repeated geometric pattern
d)
are separated by great distances, compared to their size
16.
Which statement describes this system at equilibrium?
a)
The volume of the NO2(g) is greater than the volume of the N2O4(g).
b)
The volume of the NO2(g) is less than the volume of the N2O4(g).
c)
The rate of the forward reaction and the rate of the reverse reaction are equal.
d)
The rate of the forward reaction and the rate of the reverse reaction are unequal.
17.
In a chemical reaction, the difference between the potential energy of the products and the potential energy of the reactants is equal to the
a)
activation energy
b)
kinetic energy
c)
heat of reaction
d)
rate of reaction
18.
For a given chemical reaction, the addition of a catalyst provides a different reaction pathway that
a)
decreases the reaction rate and has a higher activation energy
b)
decreases the reaction rate and has a lower activation energy
c)
increases the reaction rate and has a higher activation energy
d)
increases the reaction rate and has a lower activation energy
19.
Which atoms can bond with each other to form chains, rings, or networks?
a)
carbon atoms
b)
hydrogen atoms
c)
oxygen atoms
d)
nitrogen atoms
20.
A molecule of an unsaturated hydrocarbon must have
a)
at least one single carbon-carbon bond
b)
at least one multiple carbon-carbon bond
c)
two or more single carbon-carbon bonds
d)
two or more multiple carbon-carbon bonds
21.
An organic compound that has this functional group is classified as
a)
an acid
b)
an aldehyde
c)
an ester
d)
a ketone
22.
Which statement describes where the oxidation and reduction half-reactions occur in an operating electrochemical cell?
a)
Oxidation and reduction both occur at the anode
b)
Oxidation and reduction both occur at the cathode.
c)
Oxidation occurs at the anode, and reduction occurs at the cathode.
d)
Oxidation occurs at the cathode, and reduction occurs at the anode.
23.
Which formula represents an isomer of this compound?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
24.
Which energy conversion occurs in an operating electrolytic cell?
a)
chemical energy to electrical energy
b)
electrical energy to chemical energy
c)
nuclear energy to thermal energy
d)
thermal energy to nuclear energy
25.
Which compounds can be classified as electrolytes?
a)
alcohols
b)
alkynes
c)
organic acids
d)
saturated hydrocarbons
26.
Potassium hydroxide is classified as an Arrhenius base because KOH contains
a)
OH- ions
b)
O2- ions
c)
K+ ions
d)
H+ ions
27.
In which laboratory process is a volume of solution of known concentration used to determine the concentration of another solution?
a)
deposition
b)
distillation
c)
filtration
d)
titration
28.
According to one acid-base theory, an acid is an
a)
H+ acceptor
b)
H+ donor
c)
OH-acceptor
d)
OH- donor
29.
Energy is released during the fission of Pu-239 atoms as a result of the
a)
formation of covalent bonds
b)
formation of ionic bonds
c)
conversion of matter to energy
d)
conversion of energy to matter
30.
Atoms of I-131 spontaneously decay when the
a)
stable nuclei emit alpha particles
b)
stable nuclei emit beta particles
c)
unstable nuclei emit alpha particles
d)
unstable nuclei emit beta particles
31.
Compared to the atoms of nonmetals in Period 3, the atoms of metals in Period 3 have
a)
fewer valence electrons
b)
more valence electrons
c)
fewer electron shells
d)
more electron shells
32.
Which elements are malleable and good conductors of electricity?
a)
iodine and silver
b)
iodine and xenon
c)
tin and silver
d)
tin and xenon
33.
Which atom in the ground state requires the least amount of energy to remove its valence electron?
a)
lithium atom
b)
potassium atom
c)
rubidium atom
d)
sodium atom
34.
What is the chemical formula of iron(III) sulfide?
a)
FeS
b)
Fe2S3
c)
FeSO3
d)
Fe2(SO3)3
35.
What is the percent composition by mass of sulfur in the compound MgSO4 (gram-formula mass = 120. grams per mole)?
a)
20.00%
b)
27%
c)
46%
d)
53%
36.
Which compound becomes less soluble in water as the temperature of the solution is increased?
a)
HCl
b)
KCl
c)
NaCl
d)
NH4Cl
37.
Given the balanced equation representing a reaction: 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O What is the mass of H2O produced when 10.0 grams of H2 reacts completely with 80.0 grams of O2?
a)
70.0 g
b)
90.0 g
c)
180. g
d)
800. g
38.
Given two formulas representing the same compound: Formula A (CH3) Formula B (C2H6) Which statement describes these formulas?
a)
Formulas A and B are both empirical.
b)
Formulas A and B are both molecular
c)
Formula A is empirical, and formula B is molecular
d)
Formula A is molecular, and formula B is empirical
39.
Given the balanced equation representing a reaction: Zn(s) + H2SO4(aq) → ZnSO4(aq) + H2(g) Which type of reaction is represented by this equation?
a)
decomposition
b)
double replacement
c)
single replacement
d)
synthesis
40.
In a laboratory where the air temperature is 22 degrees C, a steel cylinder at 100. degrees C is submerged in a sample of water at 40. degrees C. In this system, heat flows from
a)
both the air and the water to the cylinder
b)
both the cylinder and the air to the water
c)
the air to the water and from the water to the cylinder
d)
the cylinder to the water and from the water to the air
41.
Which diagram represents a physical change, only?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
42.
During a laboratory activity to investigate reaction rate, a student reacts 1.0-gram samples of solid zinc with 10.0-milliliter samples of HCl(aq). The table below shows information about the variables in five experiments the student performed. Which two experiments can be used to investigate the effect of the concentration of HCl(aq) on the reaction rate?
a)
1 and 3
b)
1 and 5
c)
4 and 2
d)
4 and 3
43.
Which temperature change would cause a sample of an ideal gas to double in volume while the pressure is held constant?
a)
from 400. K to 200. K
b)
from 200. K to 400. K
c)
from 400. degrees C to 200. degrees C
d)
from 200. degrees C to 400. degrees C
44.
A 36-gram sample of water has an initial temperature of 22 degrees C. After the sample absorbs 1200 joules of heat energy, the final temperature of the sample is
a)
8.0 degrees C
b)
14 degrees C
c)
30. degrees C
d)
55 degrees C
45.
Which statement explains why Br2 is a liquid at STP and I2 is a solid at STP?
a)
Molecules of Br2 are polar, and molecules of I2 are nonpolar.
b)
Molecules of I2 are polar, and molecules of Br2 are nonpolar
c)
Molecules of Br2 have stronger intermolecular forces than molecules of I2.
d)
Molecules of I2 have stronger intermolecular forces than molecules of Br2.
46.
Which balanced equation represents an oxidation-reduction reaction?
a)
Ba(NO3)2 + Na2SO4 → BaSO4 + 2NaNO3
b)
H3PO4 + 3KOH → K3PO4 + 3H2O
c)
Fe(s) + S(s) → FeS(s)
d)
NH3(g) + HCl(g) → NH4Cl(s)
47.
Which solution reacts with LiOH(aq) to produce a salt and water?
a)
KCl(aq
b)
CaO(aq)
c)
NaOH(aq)
d)
H2SO4(aq)
48.
Which volume of 2.0 M NaOH(aq) is needed to completely neutralize 24 milliliters of 1.0 M HCl(aq)?
a)
6.0 Ml
b)
12 mL
c)
24 mL
d)
48 mL
49.
Which type of reaction releases the greatest amount of energy per mole of reactant?
a)
combustion
b)
decomposition
c)
nuclear fusion
d)
oxidation-reduction
50.
Which balanced equation represents natural transmutation?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
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