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WorksheetsPS Exam #3
Total questions: 50
Worksheet time: 13hrs 30mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Three fundamental states of matter are represented in the diagrams.
What is the order of the diagrams if arranged from low kinetic energy to high kinetic energy?
What is the order of the diagrams if arranged from low kinetic energy to high kinetic energy?
a)
I, II, III
b)
II, III, I
c)
II, I, III
d)
III, II, I
2.
Which statement best compares a single burning match to an entire box of matches burning together?
a)
The single match will produce the same temperature and the same amount of heat as the box of matches will produce.
b)
The single match will produce the same temperature and a lot less heat than the box of matches will produce.
c)
The single match will produce a much lower temperature and the same amount of heat as the box of matches will produce.
d)
The single match will produce a much lower temperature and a lot less heat than the box of matches will produce.
3.
A wedge and a screw are variations of what type of simple machine?
a)
pulley
b)
lever
c)
wheel and axle
d)
inclined plane
4.
Emily is riding her bicycle. Which best explains why only some of the energy used to pedal her bicycle is transferred into forward motion of the bicycle?
a)
The energy of the bicycle tire is applied in a circular motion.
b)
The energy of the bicycle is transferred to only one wheel.
The energy of the bicycle is transferred to only one wheel.
c)
The gears and chain of the bicycle are covered with oil.
d)
The gears and chain of the bicycle generate friction.
5.
When a rock is dropped from a height of one meter, the gravitational potential energy of the rock is converted to kinetic energy. When the rock hits the floor and does not bounce, what happens to the kinetic energy of the rock?
a)
The energy is converted to heat and sound.
b)
The energy is destroyed and cannot change form.
c)
The energy is converted to chemical energy.
d)
The energy is returned to gravitational energy.
6.
A bicyclist at the top of a hill begins to coast without pedaling. The bicycle speeds up as it descends to the bottom of the hill and then slows down as it continues up a second hill, where it stops. Which of these sequences best describes the energy change of the bicycle from the top of the hill until it stops?
a)
potential — kinetic — kinetic
b)
kinetic — potential — potential
c)
kinetic — potential — kinetic
d)
potential — kinetic — potential
7.
Light rays are focused by the lens of a camera through the process of
a)
reflection
b)
refraction
c)
dispersion
d)
diffraction
8.
When a light bulb is used to light a room, which of the following is transferred by the light waves from the bulb to the surfaces of the room?
a)
Mass
b)
Charges
c)
Energy
d)
Electrons
9.
Two waves have the following waveforms.
Which conclusion can best be supported by the illustrations?
Which conclusion can best be supported by the illustrations?
a)
Wave A has higher frequency.
b)
Wave A is an ultraviolet wave.
Wave A is an ultraviolet wave.
c)
Wave B has greater energy.
d)
Wave B is a visible light wave.
10.
As Wave 1 moves to the right, what will the boat do?
a)
move up and to the left
b)
move up and then down
c)
move to the top of the wave and stay there
d)
move to the right and stay in front of the wave
11.
Which best explains how an object is seen by the human eye?
a)
Light is reflected by the object and detected by the light receptors in the eye.
b)
Light receptors in the eye detect infrared light and send the image to the brain.
c)
Light receptors in the eye reflect light of a specific wavelength onto the object.
d)
Light is detected by the light receptors in the eye if the object is black and white.
12.
Emily’s younger sister Amy has just learned that radio waves, like X-rays, are a form of electromagnetic energy. Amy asks Emily why radio waves aren’t dangerous like X-rays. Which answer is most accurate?
a)
Radio waves have a lower energy than X-rays.
b)
Radio waves have a lower velocity than X-rays
c)
Radio waves have a greater amplitude than X-rays.
d)
Radio waves have a greater frequency than X-rays.
13.
Which change to a wire would cause its resistance to decrease?
a)
increase its length
b)
increase its temperature
c)
increase its diameter
d)
increase its resistivity
14.
How can the strength of an electromagnet be increased?
a)
Increase the number of wire turns.
b)
Increase the length of the core material.
c)
Decrease the voltage in the coil.
d)
Decrease the magnetic permeability of core material.
15.
Which of the following would cause the greatest increase in resistance to a wire in a circuit?
a)
tripling the resistivity of the material
b)
doubling the length of the wire
c)
reducing the cross-sectional area of the wire by one-quarter
d)
reducing the length of the wire by one-half
16.
If bulb 8 burns out, how will the remaining bulbs be affected?
a)
All the remaining bulbs stay lit.
b)
Only bulbs 1 through 4 stay lit.
c)
All the remaining bulbs go out.
d)
Bulb 4 is the only other bulb to go out.
17.
A plastic rod is rubbed with a piece of wool, and a glass rod is rubbed with a piece of silk. An object is placed near the plastic rod, and an attractive force is detected. How will the object react when near the glass rod?
a)
A repulsive force will occur.
b)
An attractive force will occur.
c)
A neutralization will occur.
d)
An electric discharge will occur.
18.
The magnet on the right is moved toward the suspended magnet on the left.
Which statement describes the interactions of the magnets in terms of their magnetic fields?
Which statement describes the interactions of the magnets in terms of their magnetic fields?
a)
A repulsive force between the two magnets causes the suspended magnet to swing to the left.
b)
A repulsive force between the two magnets causes the suspended magnet to oscillate like a pendulum.
c)
An attractive force between the two magnets causes the suspended magnet to swing to the right.
d)
An attractive force between the two magnets causes the suspended magnet to oscillate like a pendulum.
19.
A 0.20 kg softball travels 97 meters (m) south for 4.5 seconds (s). What piece of information distinguishes the velocity from the speed of the ball?
a)
The ball went south.
b)
The ball flew for 4.5 s.
c)
The ball traveled 97 m.
d)
The ball has a mass of 0.20 kg.
20.
A car traveling in a northeasterly direction at a rate of 50 km/h represents which of the following?
a)
speed
b)
velocity
c)
acceleration
d)
deceleration
21.
Which graph best represents a constant acceleration?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
22.
The diagram shows the view and speed of the three cars from above a racetrack during a race.
From the perspective of the driver of Car 1, which observation would be made?
From the perspective of the driver of Car 1, which observation would be made?
a)
Car 1 is passing one car that just passed the other car.
b)
Car 1 is passing two cars, which appear to be sitting still.
c)
Car 1 is passing one car and will be passed by another car.
d)
Car 1 is being passed by two cars, which appear to be moving at the same rate.
23.
The following graph shows the position versus time for a particle.
Which of the following describes the particle’s motion for the time interval between 4 and 8 seconds?
Which of the following describes the particle’s motion for the time interval between 4 and 8 seconds?
a)
The particle has a constant velocity equal to –2.5 m/s.
b)
The particle has a constant velocity equal to +2.5 m/s.
c)
The particle has a constant acceleration equal to –2.5 m/s2.
d)
The particle has a constant acceleration equal to +2.5 m/s2.
24.
In the diagram, car A is traveling east on a divided road. Car B is traveling west. Car A is traveling 40 km/h and car B is traveling 60 km/h.
At what speed is car B traveling west relative to an observer standing still beside the road?
At what speed is car B traveling west relative to an observer standing still beside the road?
a)
20 km/h
b)
40 km/h
c)
60 km/h
d)
80 km/h
25.
A 20-N force acts on a 5-kg object at rest. How fast will the object accelerate on a frictionless surface?
a)
4 m/s/s
b)
15 m/s/s
c)
25 m/s/s
d)
100 m/s/s
26.
A marble, a hoop bracelet, a tube of lip balm, and a rectangular jewelry box are released from the top of a steeply inclined piece of wood. Which object would not experience a rolling friction force as it moved down the incline?
a)
marble
b)
hoop bracelet
c)
tube of lip balm
d)
rectangular jewelry box
27.
Student X pushes a 10-N box with a force of 2 N. At the same time, Student Y pushes the same box with a force of 6 N, but in the opposite direction. Which would most likely occur? (Ignore friction.)
a)
The resultant force on the box would be 8 N.
b)
The resultant force on the box would be 18 N.
c)
The box will move toward Student X.
d)
The box will move toward Student Y.
28.
A Mars Rover has been sent to explore and relay data from Mars. Mars is less massive than Earth. When compared with Earth, which is the best comparison between the mass and the weight of the Rover on Mars?
a)
The mass is more on Mars and the weight is less.
b)
The weight is more on Mars and the mass is less.
c)
The weight is less on Mars and the mass is the same.
d)
The mass is less on Mars and the weight is the same.
29.
A ball at rest is dropped and hits the ground in 1.5 s with a final speed of 15 m/s. How would the acceleration and final speed of the ball be affected if it were dropped from a greater height on Earth? (Ignore friction.)
a)
Its final speed would remain the same because its rate of acceleration would remain the same.
b)
Its final speed would increase because its rate of acceleration would remain the same.
c)
Its final speed would remain the same because its rate of acceleration would decrease.
d)
Its final speed would increase because its rate of acceleration would increase.
30.
During a classroom discussion on motion, the teacher instructs the class to write down something that specifically addresses Isaac Newton’s second law of motion. Which of these responses would best represent the second law?
a)
For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.
b)
Every object continues at rest unless acted on by outside forces.
c)
Acceleration depends on the force applied and the mass of an object.
d)
Every object attracts every other object and the force is proportional to their masses.
31.
The drawing below shows three sealed containers labeled X, Y, and Z. Each contains a sample of matter in a different state.
Based on this information, which statement most likely represents the state of matter in each container?
Based on this information, which statement most likely represents the state of matter in each container?
a)
X contains a solid, Y contains a liquid, and Z contains a gas.
b)
X contains a solid, Y contains a gas, and Z contains a liquid.
c)
X contains a liquid, Y contains a solid, and Z contains a gas.
d)
X contains a liquid, Y contains a gas, and Z contains a solid.
32.
What change takes place in a substance as the molecular motion of that substance increases?
a)
The substance changes from a liquid to a gas.
b)
The substance changes from a gas to a liquid.
c)
The substance changes from a liquid to a solid.
d)
The substance changes from a gas to a solid.
33.
Lucy made the following observation about gases: “Gases can be easily compressed and are able to expand to fill their containers.” Lucy’s observation describes which of the following?
a)
changes in state
b)
states of matter
c)
properties of matter
d)
changes in chemical properties
34.
Water puddles on a sidewalk evaporate when the Sun heats the water. Which of these best describes what is happening as the water evaporates?
a)
Water changes phase as it releases heat to the environment.
b)
Water boils as it absorbs energy from the sidewalk.
c)
Water becomes a gas as it absorbs energy from the Sun.
d)
Water evaporates as its thermal energy is transferred to the air.
35.
The light and dark circles in the pictures below represent different types of atoms. Which picture best represents a pure compound?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
36.
The Lewis dot diagram for an unidentified element is shown below.
Which element could X represent?
Which element could X represent?
a)
iron
b)
chlorine
c)
sillicon
d)
oxygen
37.
A self-warming packet can be used to warm hands during cold weather. Powdered iron (Fe) reacts with oxygen (O2) when the packet is exposed to air. With the addition of a salt catalyst, Fe2O3 (iron oxide) is quickly formed and heat is given off.
Which term best describes iron oxide?
Which term best describes iron oxide?
a)
compound
b)
element
c)
ion
d)
mixture
38.
Which compound will most likely be formed when lithium (Li) and nitrogen (N) are chemically combined?
a)
LiN
b)
Li3N
c)
LiN3
d)
Li3N3
39.
Hydrogen gas and oxygen gas combine to form water. Which would be a more concise way of expressing what happens in this chemical reaction?
a)
writing a chemical formula
b)
writing a chemical equation
c)
describing the rearrangement of the atoms
d)
describing the procedure for creating this change
40.
In the late 1700s, Antoine Lavoisier performed a series of experiments to find out what happened when a substance burned. In each experiment, he observed that the weight of a container and its contents was the same at the end of the experiment as it had been in the beginning. These observations led him to propose the law of
a)
combustion.
b)
fixed proportions.
c)
conservation of mass.
d)
conservation of energy.
41.
An increased concentration of what ion characterizes a solution of a base in water?
a)
hydrogen ion
b)
hydronium ion
c)
hydroxide ion
d)
hydrochloride ion
42.
A student studying the characteristics of the element lithium (Li) observed that it reacts with water (H2O) Based on this information, the student hypothesized that sodium (Na) would also react with water. Which information about the elements supports this hypothesis?
a)
Sodium and lithium are both metals.
b)
Sodium is near lithium in the periodic table.
c)
Sodium has the same valence electron structure as lithium.
d)
Sodium and lithium are both solids at room temperature.
43.
Carbon has a significant role in the chemistry of living organisms because it tends to form four bonds with other atoms. Which best explains the ability of carbon to form these bonds?
a)
4 valence protons
b)
4 valence electrons
c)
6 total protons
d)
6 total electrons
44.
The position of an element on the periodic table helps scientists predict the number of electrons an atom will gain or lose during ion formation. According to the Periodic Table of the Elements, which element is most likely to gain two electrons when it forms an ion?
a)
calcium (Ca)
b)
mercury (Hg)
c)
oxygen (O)
d)
iodine (I)
45.
One kilogram of uranium can produce as much energy as 16,000 kilograms of coal. Why is the energy output for uranium so much greater than the energy output for coal?
a)
Uranium is more highly purified than coal.
b)
Uranium is a highly reactive metal that reacts violently with oxygen during combustion.
c)
Uranium undergoes fission and nuclear reactions give off more energy than chemical reactions.
d)
Uranium is extremely radioactive and gives off higher electromagnetic radiation than burning coal.
46.
Plutonium-238 (Pu-238) decays according to the reaction shown.
What is the identity of the radioisotope X?
What is the identity of the radioisotope X?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
47.
Kieran collected the data below during an experiment that modeled the half-life of a radioactive isotope. He began with 50 pennies turned face up in a box to represent the parent isotope. He shook the box five times to represent radioactive decay, then removed pennies that had turned over after each shaking. He repeated the process until all the pennies were removed.
Kieran then graphed his results. Which graph best represents this model of radioactive decay?
Kieran then graphed his results. Which graph best represents this model of radioactive decay?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
48.
A student created a model to explain half-life during alpha decay using 50 pennies and a plastic container with a lid. He began by placing all the pennies in the container with the heads side facing up. He closed the container and shook it five times. He opened the container and removed any pennies with the tails side facing up. He alternated shaking the container with removing the “tails” pennies until the container was empty. In this model, what do the pennies showing tails represent?
a)
alpha particles
b)
daughter isotopes
c)
parent isotopes
d)
radioactive particles
49.
Why are beta particles able to penetrate objects better than alpha particles are?
a)
because beta particles are larger than alpha particles
b)
because beta particles are smaller than alpha particles
c)
because beta particles are negatively charged, while alpha particles are neutral
d)
because beta particles travel in a straight line, while alpha particles travel in waves
50.
An alpha particle that is emitted as nuclear radiation has the same structure as a
a)
hydrogen nucleus.
b)
helium nucleus.
c)
neutron.
d)
electron.
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