WorksheetsPharmacy Law IV
Total questions: 160
Worksheet time: 2hrs 32mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of these statements is not true about intramembranous bones?
a)
they begin with a cartilage model
b)
they form between flat sheets of connective tissue
c)
skull bones are formed in this way
d)
osteoblasts deposit new bone along blood vessels within the layers
2.
________ is the most common benign bone tumor.
a)
osteomalacia
b)
osteochondroma
c)
osteomyelitis
d)
osteogenic sarcoma
3.
A space between the bones on an infant's cranium is called a __________.
a)
sinus
b)
fossa
c)
suture
d)
fontanel
4.
A local or generalized infection of the bone and bone marrow is called __________
a)
osteoporosis
b)
osteomyelitis
c)
osteomalacia
d)
osteogenic sarcoma
5.
The thick, white fibrous membrane that covers the surface of the shaft of long bones is called the __________.
a)
articular cartilage
b)
diaphysis
c)
periosteum
d)
fossa
6.
The drug category that aims to kill cancer cells affecting the bones is _________.
a)
anti-inflammatory
b)
muscle relaxant
c)
antibiotic
d)
anti-neoplasm
7.
Compact bone is made up of __________ cemented together.
a)
osteocytes
b)
perforating canals
c)
osteons
d)
trabelulae
8.
The ______ are the bones of the hand.
a)
condyles
b)
phalanges
c)
metacarpals
d)
tubercles
9.
State boards of pharmacy provide oversight of regulatory compliance and _______ of/for pharmacy personnel.
a)
licensure
b)
certification
c)
education
d)
controlled substance monitoring
10.
What is the proper term for the shoulder blade?
a)
patella
b)
clavicle
c)
femur
d)
scapula
11.
Inside the epiphyses of each long bone, mostly _________ can be found.
a)
compact bone
b)
spongy bone
c)
cartilage
d)
yellow marrow
12.
An elevated, broad, rounded process of a bone, usually for muscle or tendon attachment
a)
tuberosity
b)
neck
c)
foramen
d)
spine
13.
A groove or depression in a bone is called a __________.
a)
sinus
b)
sulcus
c)
fossa
d)
diaphysis
14.
Abnormal inward curvature of a portion of the spine is called ____________.
a)
osteoporosis
b)
kyphosis
c)
scoliosis
d)
lordosis
15.
__________ is a disease associated with adult bones that become abnormally soft.
a)
osteoporosis
b)
osteomalacia
c)
osteomyelitis
d)
osteogenic sarcoma
16.
Immature bone cells are called _______.
a)
osteoclasts
b)
osteocytes
c)
osteoblasts
d)
ossifications
17.
What is the proper term for the knee?
a)
patella
b)
scapula
c)
temporomandibular joint
d)
femur
18.
The medical term for an abnormal lateral (sideward) curvature of a portion of the spine to the left or to the right is ___________
a)
osteochondroma
b)
lordosis
c)
kyphosis
d)
scoliosis
19.
The cells that tear down and remodel bone are the ___________
a)
osteoblasts
b)
osteocytes
c)
osteoclasts
d)
macrophages
20.
How many bones are there in the adult body?
a)
180
b)
80
c)
210
d)
206
21.
Which type of bone fracture occurs as an incomplete break in the bone?
a)
greenstick
b)
oblique
c)
compound
d)
simple
22.
What is the last stage in the repair of a fracture?
a)
bony callus
b)
hematoma
c)
inflammation
d)
fibrocartilage callus
23.
Which of these factors is not necessary for normal bone growth and development?
a)
growth hormone
b)
high fat diet
c)
male and female sex hormones
d)
Vitamins A, C, and D
24.
Another name for the wrist bones is _________________
a)
metacarpals
b)
carpals
c)
phalanges
d)
tarsals
25.
Which of the following laws requires drug use evaluation be performed on all prescriptions?
a)
Prescription Drug Equity Law
b)
Omnibus Reconciliation Act of 1990
c)
Omnibus Reconciliation Act of 1987
d)
Prescription Drug Marketing Act of 1987
26.
The ________ is a pear-shaped sac located on the undersurface of the liver.
a)
gallbladder
b)
pancreas
c)
colon
d)
stomach
27.
Which of the following laws was intended to require employers to provide safe and healthy working conditions?
a)
Safe Medical Control Act
b)
Americans with Disabilities Act
c)
Durham-Humphrey Amendment
d)
Occupational Safety and Health Act
28.
How long is a DEA Form 222 valid?
a)
two weeks
b)
four weeks
c)
two months
d)
six months
29.
The first set of teeth are called ____________ teeth.
a)
secondary
b)
permanent
c)
deciduous
d)
premolars
30.
Which of the following laws requires prescriptions for legend drugs?
a)
Kefauver-Harris Amendment
b)
Durham-Humphrey Amendment
c)
Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act
d)
Prescription Drug Marketing Act
31.
Which of the following laws requires prescriptions for legend drugs?
a)
Kefauver-Harris Amendment
b)
Durham-Humphrey Amendment
c)
Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act
d)
Prescription Drug Marketing Act
32.
The ________ is the distal portion of the small intestine extending from the jejunum to the cecum.
a)
ileus
b)
ilium
c)
ileum
d)
ilius
33.
The DEA investigates and prosecutes major violators of which of the following laws?
a)
Controlled Substance Act
b)
Drug Regulation Reform Act
c)
Prescription Drug Marketing Act
d)
Anabolic Steroids Control Act
34.
If another pharmacy requests 100 Percocet tablets from your pharmacy, what is the appropriate step you must take?
a)
sell them to the other pharmacy
b)
transfer them to the other pharmacy using DEA Form 222
c)
transfer them to the other pharmacy using DEA Form 106
d)
transfer them to the other pharmacy using DEA Form 41
35.
The folds in the mucous membrane lining of the stomach are ________.
a)
villi
b)
papillae
c)
chyme
d)
rugae
36.
Which of the following is the main purpose of an infection control program?
a)
to separate infectious patients from other patients
b)
to protect patients from outside contamination
c)
to prevent the spread of infection
d)
to identify the source of communicable infections
37.
Which of the following is the correct brand/generic combination?
a)
Cardura / Doxazosin mesylate
b)
Rheumatrex / Dabigatran etexilate mesylate
c)
Nizoral A-D / Clarithromycin
d)
all of these
38.
The ____________ is a 10-inch long collapsible muscular tube that passes through an opening in the diaphragm into the abdominal cavity before connecting to the stomach.
a)
pharynx
b)
esophagus
c)
small intestine
d)
pylorus
39.
Which medication is used to treat several types of cancer?
a)
Percocet
b)
Methadone
c)
Methotrexate
d)
Baclofen
40.
Fingerlike projections of the small intestine that house capillaries are called ________.
a)
villi
b)
papillae
c)
rugae
d)
ileum
41.
Which of the following medications would be used to treat a fungal infection?
a)
Ketoconazole
b)
Methotrexate
c)
Clarithromycin
d)
Cardura
42.
Azithromycin is in the same therapeutic classification as which of the following?
a)
Biaxin XL
b)
Rheumatrex
c)
Ketoconazole
d)
Oseltamivir phosphate
43.
Which of the following laws protects the civil rights of the disabled in a similar way to previous civil rights legislation?
a)
Resource Conservation and Recovery Act
b)
Occupational Safety and Health Act
c)
Durham-Humphrey Amendment
d)
Americans with Disabilities Act
44.
How long is a pharmacist allowed to dispense partial fillings for a Schedule II drug?
a)
one day
b)
three days
c)
seven days
d)
ten days
45.
What is the brand name for dabigatran etexilate mesylate?
a)
Rheumatrex
b)
Nizoral
c)
Biaxin XL
d)
Pradaxa
46.
The unauthorized disclosure of a patient's medical record is known as _______.
a)
contributory negligence
b)
invasion of privacy
c)
defamation
d)
nonfeasance
47.
Which of the following must be on file in a pharmacy setting that uses hazardous chemicals?
a)
bloodborne pathogens standards
b)
chemical hygiene plan
c)
material safety data sheets
d)
proof of medical waste disposal
48.
How long does a patient normally have to be treated with Biaxin XL?
a)
2-3 days
b)
4-5 years
c)
7-14 days
d)
6-9 months
49.
Title I of HIPAA focuses on _______.
a)
continuation of health insurance coverage
b)
continuation of healthcare providers
c)
regulation of the private health information of individuals
d)
controlling scheduled substances
50.
Humalog is an example of which of the following types of insulin?
a)
rapid-acting
b)
long-acting
c)
intermediate
d)
none of thes
51.
Testosterone is secreted by the __________
a)
seminal vesicle
b)
interstitial tissue of testes
c)
epididymis
d)
populous
52.
A patient calls and asks you for a refill on their "stroke medicine". Which medication would they be referring to ?
a)
Pradaxa
b)
Metoprolol
c)
Lisinopril
d)
Cardura
53.
The unauthorized disclosure of a patient's medical record is known as ___________.
a)
contributory negligence
b)
invasion of privacy
c)
defamation
d)
nonfeasance
54.
Which medication is used to treat a viral infection?
a)
Amoxicillin
b)
Tamiflu
c)
Penicillin
d)
Azithromycin
55.
The DEA investigates and prosecutes major violators of which of the following laws?
a)
Controlled Substance Act
b)
Drug Regulation Reform Act
c)
Prescription Drug Marketing Act
d)
Anabolic Steroids Control Act
56.
Which medication is a Pregnancy Category X?
a)
Methotrexate
b)
Dabigatran Etexilate Mesylate
c)
Insulin lispro
d)
Ketoconazole
57.
What disease or disorder is cannot being treated using methotrexate?
a)
rheumatoid arthritis
b)
psoriasis
c)
asthma
d)
cancer
58.
Mr. Roberts has his heart valve replaced in 2006. He has maintained healthy heart function since then. Would he be a candidate for the use of dabigatran?
a)
YES
b)
NO
59.
Humalog is for patients with Type I or Type II diabetes?
a)
Type I - Insulin dependent
b)
Type II - Insulin independent
60.
Which term means an abnormal tipping forward of the entire uterus, including the cervix?
a)
retroversion
b)
anteflexion
c)
retroflexion
d)
anteversion
61.
Which of the these conditions can nortriptyline hydrochloride be used to treat?
a)
depression
b)
bipolar I disorder
c)
maintenance treatment of opioid addiction
d)
epilepsy
62.
Which of the following laws addresses the licensing of pharmacists and registration of pharmacy technicians?
a)
the PPPA
b)
the Model Pharmacy Practice Act
c)
the Drug Regulation Reform Act
d)
the FDA Safe Medical Devices Act
63.
Which of the following is the role of a pharmacy technician in the processing of prescriptions?
a)
to graduate from a college
b)
to wear full protective equipment at all times
c)
to be certified, registered, and licensed
d)
to ensure that all steps are completed properly
64.
The vaginal erectile tissue (structure) corresponding to the male penis is known as the ___________.
a)
clitoris
b)
uterus
c)
vulva
d)
labia majora
65.
Renewal of pharmacy technician certification requires ___________.
a)
good ethic and moral standings
b)
higher wages
c)
the technician to be over the age of 25
d)
continuing education
66.
A hollow, pear-shaped organ of the female reproductive system is the _____________.
a)
vulva
b)
uterus
c)
vagina
d)
cervix
67.
Which of the following medications would a physician most likely prescribe for a patient suffering from epileptic seizures?
a)
Lamotrigine
b)
Minocycline
c)
Dolophine
d)
Nortriptyline hydrochloride
68.
The absence of menstrual flow is known as _________.
a)
amenorrhea
b)
oligomenorrhea
c)
mastitis
d)
menses
69.
A noncancerous enlargement of the prostate gland is known as _________
a)
benign prostatic hypertrophy
b)
carcinoma of the prostate
c)
phimosis
d)
carcinoma of the testes
70.
Ova mature in specific ovarian structures called __________.
a)
corpus luteum
b)
oviducts
c)
Graafian follicles
d)
fallopian tubes
71.
Which of the following agencies regulates pharmacy practice on a daily basis?
a)
the Food and Drug Administration
b)
the Drug Enforcement Administration
c)
the state boards of pharmacy
d)
The American Society of Health-System Pharmacists
72.
Which of the following is not a responsibility of pharmacy technicians in hospital settings?
a)
checking patient charts in conjunction with prescriptions
b)
delivering medications to nursing stations
c)
monitoring administration of drugs by nurses
d)
managing robotic stocking systems
73.
Unintentional violations, such as those related to bookkeeping, are punished under __________.
a)
civil law
b)
criminal law
c)
constitutional law
d)
contract law
74.
Which of the following is not a true statement about the minimum requirements for pharmacies set by the state boards of pharmacy?
a)
proper sinks must be installed with only hot running water
b)
a comprehensive security system must be in place
c)
a complete fire safety plan must be established
d)
quality control and training programs must be in place
75.
A 35-year-old male patient reports that he is suffering from fever, body aches, extreme tiredness, and cough. Which medication would you expect to fill for him?
a)
Benzonatate
b)
Lamictal
c)
Pamelor
d)
Spironolactone
76.
Which of the following is not a responsibility of the state boards of pharmacy?
a)
renewal of licenses
b)
approval of degree programs to teach the practice of nursing
c)
approval of degree programs to teach the practice of pharmacy
d)
enforcement of compliance in pharmacy practice
77.
The pharmacy department's activities must be monitored and evaluated in accordance with which of the following?
a)
the hospital's pharmacy directors
b)
the hospital's quality assurance program
c)
the FDA
d)
the hospital's vice president
78.
A(n) ________ is described as an abnormal dilation of the veins of the spermatic cord.
a)
inguinal hernia
b)
varicocele
c)
hydrocele
d)
orchitis
79.
Which of the following is a brand name of spironolactone?
a)
Aldactone
b)
Tessalon
c)
Minocin
d)
Dolophine
80.
________ is the term used to describe abnormally light or infrequent urination.
a)
climacteric
b)
amenorrhea
c)
oligomenorrhea
d)
menopause
81.
Inflammation of the glans penis is called _________.
a)
orchitis
b)
urethritis
c)
balanitis
d)
prostatitis
82.
The most commonly prohibited function of pharmacy technician in state laws is ________.
a)
accepting called-in prescriptions from physicians
b)
checking the work of other pharmacy technicians
c)
transferring prescription orders
d)
compounding medication for dispensing
83.
Which of the following is in the same therapeutic classification as Oxycontin?
a)
Dolophine
b)
Aldactone
c)
Minocycline
d)
Lamotrogine
84.
The pigmented area surrounding the nipples of the breast is known as the _______.
a)
fimbriae
b)
gamete
c)
hymen
d)
areola
85.
Which of the following published the Model Pharmacy Practice Act to promote, preserve, and protect the public safety, health, and welfare?
a)
NABP
b)
FDA
c)
DEA
d)
CDC
86.
Vesicare belongs to which of the following therapeutic classifications?
a)
muscarinic antagonist
b)
opioid antagonist
c)
ACE inhibitor
d)
diuretic
87.
A patient comes to your healthcare facility and hands you a prescription for treating a UTI. Which medication would most likely be on that prescription?
a)
Dolophine
b)
Aldactone
c)
Minocycline
d)
Tessalon
88.
State board of pharmacy are responsible for:
a)
renewal of licenses
b)
approval of degree programs to teach the practice of pharmacy
c)
establishment of standards for purity and quality
d)
all of the above
89.
According to the standards of the Joint Commission, non-pharmacist personnel must be assigned duties that are consistent with
a)
their skills
b)
staff shortages
c)
their training
d)
the demands of nurses
90.
Pharmacy laws are made at _______
a)
local levels
b)
state levels
c)
federal levels
d)
all of the above
91.
The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990 (OBRA-90) was chiefly enacted to reduce the United States federal budget deficit. Which of the following does OBRA require pharmacists to offer Medicaid patients?
a)
drug counseling
b)
senior discounts
c)
locking bottle caps
d)
package inserts
92.
The 1970 Poison Prevention Packaging Act requires that most drugs be dispensed in child-proof containers. However, there are some drugs that are exempt from the requirement. Which of the following prescriptions are exempt from the PPPA?
a)
Percocet
b)
Ambien CR
c)
Nitrostat SL
d)
Vibramycin
93.
If one of your pharmacy's patients has had an adverse drug reaction, ____________ should be used to report it.
a)
the HCFA form
b)
the MedWatch form
c)
the Universal Claim Form
d)
DEA from 222c
94.
The form used to order Schedule II narcotics is known as
a)
DEA form 240
b)
DEA form 222
c)
DEA form 41
d)
DEA form 106
95.
The _______ provides guidelines for the recall of devices that could cause serious adverse effects.
a)
Safe Medical Devices Act
b)
Kefauver-Harris Amendment
c)
Durham-Humphrey Amendment
d)
Medical Device Amendment
96.
The agency that oversees the Controlled Substances Act is the
a)
Central Intelligence Agency
b)
Armed Forces
c)
Food & Drug Administration
d)
Drug Enforcement Administration
97.
Choose the correct brand/generic combination
a)
methadone/Aldactone
b)
Lamictal/lamotrigine
c)
minocycline/Dolophine
d)
Tessalon Perles/nortriptyline hydrochloride
98.
What is the schedule of Dolophine?
a)
C-I
b)
C-II
c)
C-III
d)
C-V
99.
Faxed prescriptions for Schedule II drugs must be followed up by a written prescription, which must be received by the pharmacy within
a)
one day
b)
two days
c)
three days
d)
seven days
100.
Pharmacy technicians should understand that accurate tracking of a National Drug Code number is the key to avoid audit problems regarding _____.
a)
health insurance portability
b)
medication errors
c)
controlled substances
d)
Medicaid or Medicare
101.
Which of the following is based on moral obligations that guide pharmacy professionals in relationships with their patients and society in general?
a)
autonomy and communication
b)
recognition of the value of patient rights
c)
the code of ethics
d)
morals and the patient-pharmacy relationship
102.
In the United States, the Medicare system focuses on providing fair and ethical medical treatment for which of the following individuals?
a)
women who are at risk for breast cancer
b)
the elderly and the disabled
c)
only elderly people who are above age 65
d)
pregnant women and newborn babies
103.
Ribs 11 and 12 are the _____.
a)
false ribs
b)
sternum
c)
true ribs
d)
floating ribs
104.
Another term for menopause is _____.
a)
climacteric
b)
menarche
c)
coitus
d)
menses
105.
Which of the following laws prohibited the interstate distribution or sale of adulterated drugs?
a)
Pure Food and Drug Act
b)
Harrison Narcotics Tax Act
c)
Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act
d)
Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act
106.
Abnormal outward protrusion of the eyes is called _____.
a)
hypothyroidism
b)
hyperthyroidism
c)
goiter
d)
exophthalmia
107.
Which of the following is the most severe type of FDA drug recall?
a)
Class 3
b)
Class 2
c)
Class 4
d)
Class 1
108.
The Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970 required nearly all legend drugs to be packaged in child-resistant containers that cannot be opened by 80% of children younger than age _____.
a)
one year
b)
three years
c)
five years
d)
two years
109.
Which of the following is the main function of the DEA?
a)
enforcing the Controlled Substances Act
b)
licensing manufacturers
c)
licensing physicians and pharmacists
d)
overseeing the MedWatch program
110.
Which of the following is not a duty of pharmacy technicians?
a)
training other technicians
b)
implementing or revising policies and procedure manuals
c)
managing new automated technology
d)
ordering Schedule II drugs
111.
Inflammation of the cervix is known as _____.
a)
premenstrual syndrome
b)
cervicitis
c)
cervical carcinoma
d)
dysmenorrhea
112.
What is the first thing you should do if you accidentally splash a bleach solution into your eyes while preparing it for cleaning purposes?
a)
put ten drops of saline into your eyes immediately
b)
flush your eyes with water for a minimum of 15 minutes
c)
dry your eyes quickly with a clean paper towel
d)
proceed to the emergency department as quickly as possible
113.
According to the Standards of the Joint Commission, if there is no pharmacy at a hospital, pharmaceutical services must be obtained from _____.
a)
group purchasing plans
b)
prime suppliers
c)
the manufacturer
d)
another hospital pharmacy
114.
Which of the following are essential for establishing professional ethics?
a)
high levels of education
b)
gatekeepers
c)
attitudes
d)
derelictions
115.
_____ is the medical term for gallstones.
a)
Choledocholithiasis
b)
Cecum
c)
Cholelithiasis
d)
Deglutition
116.
Which gland secretes prolactin and follicle-stimulating hormone?
a)
anterior pituitary gland
b)
pancreas
c)
posterior pituitary gland
d)
adrenal medulla
117.
Hypersecretion of _____ can cause virilism.
a)
androgens
b)
estrogen
c)
glucose
d)
insulin
118.
Which of the following is the major concern when sending medical reports via e-mail?
a)
speed of transmission
b)
confidentiality
c)
recipient's ability to read the data
d)
software compatibility
119.
A system of principles intended to govern behavior of those entrusted with providing care to the sick is referred to as _____.
a)
a code of ethics
b)
a garnishment
c)
a gatekeeper
d)
fidelity
120.
Which of the following laws offered financial incentives to commercial and nonprofit organizations to develop and market drugs previously unavailable in the United States?
a)
Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act
b)
Prescription Drug Marketing Act
c)
Drug Price Competition and Patient Term Restoration Act
d)
Orphan Drug Act
121.
According to state law, when a prescription is submitted to a pharmacy for processing, the pharmacy technician must first _____.
a)
fill the prescription and verify that it is correct and packaged according to the standards of the pharmacy
b)
translate the prescription information into the computer system
c)
verify all of the information that the prescription contains is complete and clear so that it will be correctly filled
d)
verify the patient's insurance information and eligibility
122.
The _____ is the largest of the three hip bones.
a)
ilium
b)
iliac
c)
ischium
d)
ischial
123.
Which endocrine gland secretes glucagon?
a)
adrenal medulla
b)
pancreas
c)
posterior pituitary gland
d)
adrenal cortex
124.
Hyperplasia of the thyroid gland is called _____.
a)
Graves' disease
b)
hypothyroidism
c)
thyroiditis
d)
goiter
125.
The thin, flat bone that forms the lower portion of the nasal septum is known as the _____.
a)
zygomatic bone
b)
nasal conchae
c)
lacrimal bone
d)
vomer
126.
The hormone _____ helps maintain normal body metabolism.
a)
calcitonin
b)
thyroxine
c)
thymosin
d)
triiodothyronine
127.
_____ is a hormone produced by the pineal gland.
a)
Aldosterone
b)
Calcitonin
c)
Prolactin
d)
Melatonin
128.
Professional ethics are concerned primarily with _____.
a)
moral issues and responsibilities
b)
knowledge and education
c)
honesty and autonomy
d)
respect and loyalty
129.
Which of the following statements is true regarding the state boards of pharmacy?
a)
they create laws against pharmacists and technicians
b)
they issue licenses for all healthcare professionals
c)
they provide guidelines for the health and safety of employees in the workplace
d)
they assess penalties against those who violate their regulations of practice
130.
Drug defects must be reported to _____.
a)
the DEA
b)
the USP/FDA
c)
the CDC
d)
JCAHO
131.
Which of the following controlled substance schedules allows for an emergency telephone order, but only for an immediate amount of medication needed to treat the patient?
a)
Schedule II
b)
Schedule V
c)
Schedule I
d)
Schedule III
132.
____________ is an inflammatory condition of the pancreas.
a)
diabetic retinopathy
b)
diabetes mellitus
c)
pancreatic cancer
d)
pancreatitis
133.
______________________________ is a hormone produced by the pineal gland.
a)
melatonin
b)
calcitonin
c)
prolactin
d)
aldosterone
134.
The quality of having the ability to function independently is referred to as __________________________________
a)
duty
b)
abandonment
c)
autonomy
d)
allegiance
135.
An elevated blood sodium level is known as ___________.
a)
hypernatremia
b)
thyrotoxicosis
c)
pheochromocytoma
d)
acromegaly
136.
What is the first thing you should do if you accidentally splash a bleach solution into your eyes while preparing it for cleaning purposes?
a)
put ten drops of saline into your eyes immediately
b)
flush your eyes with water for a minimum of 15 minutes
c)
dry your eyes quickly with a clean paper towel
d)
proceed to the emergency department as quickly as possible
137.
Which of the following laws was developed to maintain a reporting system for job-related injuries and illnesses?
a)
The FDA Modernization Act
b)
OSHA
c)
OBRA-90
d)
The Americans with Disabilities Act
138.
Centrally acting __________________ decrease muscle tone in order to treat muscle spasms and pain.
a)
antineoplasms
b)
clomiphene citrates
c)
skeletal muscle relaxants
d)
nonsteroidal anti-inflammatories
139.
Which of the following are essential for establishing professional ethics?
a)
gatekeepers
b)
attitudes
c)
derelictions
d)
high levels of education
140.
Which of the following is the major concern when sending medical reports via e-mail?
a)
software compatibility
b)
recipient's ability to read the data
c)
confidentiality
d)
speed of transmission
141.
Failures and problems surrounding pacemakers and intrauterine devices were among the chief factors that influenced the ___________________________.
a)
Medical Device Act
b)
Americans with Disabilities Act
c)
Kefauver-Harris Amendment
d)
Poison Prevention Packaging Act
142.
The last two digits of a National Drug Code identify the _______________.
a)
package size
b)
drug product
c)
drug as being a legend drug
d)
drug as being a controlled substance
143.
Professional ethics are concerned primarily with ____________________
a)
honesty and autonomy
b)
moral issues and responsibilities
c)
knowledge and education
d)
respect and loyalty
144.
Which of the following organizations provides accreditation for hospitals?
a)
FDA
b)
TJC
c)
CDC
d)
DEA
145.
According to the Standards of the Joint Commission, if there is no pharmacy at a hospital, pharmaceutical services must be obtained from _______________________.
a)
group purchasing plans
b)
another hospital pharmacy
c)
prime suppliers
d)
the manufacturer
146.
Information that is related to the health of a patient (eg diagnosis, current treatments, surgeries, etc.)
a)
DEA
b)
FDA
c)
BOP
d)
PHI
147.
Comprised of all the State Boards of Pharmacy, has no regulatory authority.
a)
SBOP
b)
NABP
c)
USP
d)
All of the above
148.
Form used by the pharmacy to purchase or transfer schedule II narcotics
a)
Form 41
b)
Form 106
c)
Form 222
d)
Form 224
149.
Form used to report the theft of controlled substance.
a)
Form 41
b)
Form 106
c)
Form 224
d)
None of the above
150.
Destruction of outdated or damaged controlled substance would require Form _____.
a)
Form 41
b)
Form 224
c)
Form 106
d)
Form 222
151.
This law required each drug be assigned a unique NDC number.
a)
1938 The Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act
b)
1972 Drug Listing Act
c)
1990 OBRA
d)
1983 Orphan Drug Act
152.
Which drug used to treat severe acne, requires the registration with the iPLEDGE program (a Restricted Drug Program)?
a)
Accutane (Isotretinoin)
b)
Thalidomide
c)
Clozapine
d)
Morphine
153.
How many drug recall classifications are there?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
5
d)
6
154.
Who is under the US dept of health and human services and is responsible for the safety of drugs, medical devices, food and cosmetics?
a)
USDA
b)
DEA
c)
FDA
d)
ATF
155.
Which of set up the schedule of controlled substances?
a)
Kefauver Harris amendment
b)
Drug listing act
c)
Durham Humphrey amendment
d)
Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and control act
156.
Of the following, which is an exempt controlled substance?
a)
C-II
b)
C-III
c)
C-IV
d)
C-V
157.
How often does a pharmacy need to inventory narcotics
a)
Every year
b)
Every 3 months
c)
Every 2 years
d)
Every 6 months
158.
How long does a pharmacy need to retain scheduled drug purchase invoices?
a)
1 year
b)
2 years
c)
6 months
d)
5 years
159.
How many times can someone transfer C-III, C-IV and C-V prescriptions?
a)
None
b)
Once
c)
There is no limit
d)
None of the above
160.
What is the first letter in the DEA number for prescribers who can prescribe meds for opioid addiction?
a)
B
b)
F
c)
M
d)
X
100 %