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WorksheetsEarth & Space Science Review - 2nd Semester
Total questions: 80
Worksheet time: 40mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Places where tectonic plates come together are
called?
called?
a)
convergent
boundaries.
boundaries.
b)
divergent
boundaries.
boundaries.
c)
transform
boundaries.
boundaries.
d)
rift valleys.
2.
Which of the following is NOT associated with
transform boundaries?
transform boundaries?
a)
deformed and fractured crust
b)
shallow earthquakes
c)
long faults
d)
volcanoes
3.
What happens along a divergent boundary?
a)
Continental mountain ranges form.
b)
New ocean crust forms.
c)
Oceanic plates are subducted into the mantle.
d)
Ocean basins become smaller.
4.
Broad, gently sloping volcanoes with quiet eruptions
are called?
are called?
a)
shield volcanoes.
b)
cinder cones.
c)
hot spots.
d)
none of the above
5.
Lava erupts through an opening in Earth’s crust
called a?
called a?
a)
vent
b)
caldera
c)
crater
d)
none of the above
6.
Pangaea was an ancient supercontinent made up of?
a)
South Africa, India, Australia, and South
America.
America.
b)
the United States, Greenland, and Europe.
c)
all of Earth’s continents.
d)
None of the above
7.
To support his hypothesis of continental drift, Alfred
Wegener did NOT use?
Wegener did NOT use?
a)
ancient climatic evidence.
b)
magnetic field data.
c)
data on ancient reptiles and ferns.
d)
none of the above
8.
Which of the following are landscape features
associated with volcanoes?
associated with volcanoes?
a)
uplift, erosion, weathering, and deposition
b)
hot spots and flood basalts
c)
vents, craters, and calderas
d)
none of the above
9.
Which of the following forms when the top or side of
a volcano collapses into the magma chamber?
a volcano collapses into the magma chamber?
a)
dike
b)
pyroclastic flow
c)
caldera
d)
none of the above
10.
At which tectonic plate boundary do plates slide
horizontally past each other?
horizontally past each other?
a)
transform boundary
b)
divergent boundary
c)
continental-continental boundary
d)
none of the above
11.
____________________ forms where plates move
apart.
apart.
a)
hot spots
b)
divergent volcanism
c)
subduction zones
d)
none of the above
12.
Where do most volcanoes form?
a)
at hot spots
b)
at plate
boundaries
boundaries
c)
in the middle of
continents
continents
d)
none of the
above
above
13.
The moment magnitude scale takes into account the size of an earthquake’s
a)
epicenter.
b)
fault rupture.
c)
probability.
d)
intensity.
14.
As the distance from a quake’s epicenter increases,
a)
intensity increases.
b)
intensity decreases.
c)
magnitude
increases.
increases.
d)
the focus
decreases.
decreases.
15.
Maximum earthquake intensity is usually found at the earthquake’s?
a)
epicenter.
b)
shadow zone.
c)
seismic gap.
d)
focus.
16.
The modified-Mercalli scale ranges from?
a)
0 to 100.
b)
1 to 10.
c)
I to XII.
d)
VI to XXI.
17.
The focus of a catastrophic earthquake with high
intensity values is almost always?
intensity values is almost always?
a)
deep.
b)
shallow.
c)
difficult to determine.
d)
below the point of initial rock failure.
18.
The time an earthquake occurred can be estimated
from the?
from the?
a)
P-wave arrival time.
b)
S-wave
amplitude.
amplitude.
c)
surface wave arrival
time.
time.
d)
seismic wave
size.
size.
19.
Which lists Earth materials in order of increasing
density?
density?
a)
oceanic crust, continental crust, mantle
b)
mantle, oceanic crust, continental crust
c)
continental crust, oceanic crust, mantle
d)
continental crust, mantle, oceanic crust
20.
The Himalayas formed as the result of ____.
a)
hot spot volcanism
b)
divergence on the ocean floor
c)
continental-continental convergence
d)
oceanic-oceanic convergence
21.
Which lists the types of convergent boundaries in
order, from those that produce the smallest mountain
belts to those that produce the largest mountain belts?
order, from those that produce the smallest mountain
belts to those that produce the largest mountain belts?
a)
oceanic-oceanic; oceanic-continental;
continental-continental
continental-continental
b)
oceanic-continental; oceanic-oceanic;
continental-continental
continental-continental
c)
continental-continental; oceanic-continental;
oceanic-oceanic
oceanic-oceanic
d)
oceanic-oceanic; continental-continental;
oceanic-continental
oceanic-continental
22.
Fault-block mountains ____.
a)
form when two continental plates collide
b)
form above a subduction zone
c)
form when a large pieces of crust are dropped
between large faults
between large faults
d)
all of the above
23.
The Lesser Antilles and the Appalachian Mountains
are similar in that they were both formed .
are similar in that they were both formed .
a)
by convergence
b)
by faulting
c)
by volcanoes
d)
by divergence
24.
In the process of isostatic rebound, mountains are
eroded over hundreds of millions of years, while the
crust below them ____.
eroded over hundreds of millions of years, while the
crust below them ____.
a)
rises
b)
sinks
c)
splits to form a rift
d)
converges at a boundary
25.
The Phanerozoic Eon includes the Paleozoic,
Mesozoic, and ____.
Mesozoic, and ____.
a)
Cenozoic periods
b)
Jurassic periods
c)
Tertiary epochs
d)
Cenozoic eras
26.
Which correctly orders units of geologic time, from
most general to most specific?
most general to most specific?
a)
eon, era, period, epoch
b)
era, epoch, eon, period
c)
period, era, eon, epoch
d)
epoch, eon, period, era
27.
Which of the following is marked by the appearance
of organisms with hard parts?
of organisms with hard parts?
a)
the beginning of the Cenozoic
b)
the end of the Precambrian
c)
the end of the Mesozoic
d)
the beginning of the Cretaceous
28.
The Archean and Proterozoic are examples of ____.
a)
eons
b)
periods
c)
epochs
d)
eras
29.
Radiocarbon dating can be used to determine the age
of what type of materials?
of what type of materials?
a)
igneous rock
b)
living organisms
c)
organic materials
d)
lava flows
30.
The geologic principle that states that sedimentary
rocks are deposited in horizontal layers is the principle
of?
rocks are deposited in horizontal layers is the principle
of?
a)
uniformitarianism.
b)
original horizontality.
c)
superposition.
d)
cross-cutting relationships.
31.
In order to categorize a margin as active or passive,
you must have information about________.
you must have information about________.
a)
the permeability of the margin rocks
b)
the amount of tectonic activity along the
margin
margin
c)
the depth of water that covers the margin
d)
the rate of glacial movement along the margin
32.
Cyanobacteria use the process of ____ to produce
energy, and oxygen is given off as a waste product.
energy, and oxygen is given off as a waste product.
a)
oxidation
b)
differentiation
c)
photosynthesis
d)
glaciation
33.
The southernmost point to which glaciers advanced in
North America is marked by the path(s) of the ____.
North America is marked by the path(s) of the ____.
a)
Ohio River and the Missouri River
b)
Missouri River
c)
Ohio River and the Mississippi River
d)
Mississippi River
34.
Which best summarizes the change in number and
size of microcontinents during the Proterozoic?
size of microcontinents during the Proterozoic?
a)
the number of microcontinents increased and
the size increased
the size increased
b)
the number of microcontinents increased and
the size decreased
the size decreased
c)
the number of microcontinents decreased and
the size increased
the size increased
d)
the number of microcontinents decreased and
the size decreased
the size decreased
35.
What discovery would weaken the primordial soup
hypothesis of the origin of life?
hypothesis of the origin of life?
a)
Lightning was common on early Earth.
b)
Earth’s early atmosphere contained carbon
dioxide, water, and trace gases.
dioxide, water, and trace gases.
c)
Earth’s early oceans were warm and shallow.
d)
Asteroid impacts were uncommon when life is
presumed to have begun.
presumed to have begun.
36.
During the ____, all but one of the major marine
phyla appeared.
phyla appeared.
a)
Cambrian explosion
b)
Antler Orogeny
c)
Caledonian Orogeny
d)
Ouachita Orogeny
37.
____ have been found in the waters of hydrothermal
vents, suggesting that proteins and nucleic acids could
have formed there during the Archean.
vents, suggesting that proteins and nucleic acids could
have formed there during the Archean.
a)
amino acids
b)
RNA molecules
c)
DNA molecules
d)
dissolved minerals
38.
When there is no tectonic activity along the edge of a
continent, the edge is referred to as a ____.
continent, the edge is referred to as a ____.
a)
coastline
b)
passive margin
c)
transgression
d)
regression
39.
As North America rifted from Europe and Africa, a
continuous rift system called the ____ was formed.
continuous rift system called the ____ was formed.
a)
Gulf of Mexico
b)
Cordillera
c)
Mid-Atlantic Ridge
d)
East African Rift Valley
40.
Today, many types of organisms live in a marine
environment. When did most of the phyla of marine
animals alive today first appear?
environment. When did most of the phyla of marine
animals alive today first appear?
a)
Proterozoic
b)
Cretaceous
c)
Cambrian
d)
Permian
41.
The oldest known mineral on Earth is ____.
a)
fluorite
b)
mica
c)
zircon
d)
quartz
42.
Which summarizes the relationship between density
of an element and its distribution in Earth?
of an element and its distribution in Earth?
a)
The greater an element’s density, the greater
the amount of it found in the crust.
the amount of it found in the crust.
b)
The denser an element is, the smaller the
amount of it in Earth’s core.
amount of it in Earth’s core.
c)
The lower an element’s density, the smaller the
amount of it found in the crust.
amount of it found in the crust.
d)
The greater an element’s density, the smaller
the amount of it found in the crust.
the amount of it found in the crust.
43.
Which group consists only of renewable resources?
a)
carbon, sunlight, water, aluminum
b)
coal, trees, water, carbon
c)
phosphorus, soil, water, oxygen
d)
natural gas, peat, coal, oil
44.
Fossil fuel deposits and the Earth’s oceans are two
places in which________.
places in which________.
a)
carbon is stored
b)
oxygen is produced
c)
nitrogen is fixed
d)
sulfur dioxide is generated
45.
Which group consists only of nonrenewable
resources?
resources?
a)
carbon, sunlight, water, aluminum
b)
coal, trees, water, carbon
c)
phosphorus, soil, water, oxygen
d)
natural gas, peat, coal, oil
46.
When compared to Earth’s atmosphere 4.5 bya,
Earth’s atmosphere today has________.
Earth’s atmosphere today has________.
a)
more carbon dioxide
b)
more methane
c)
more oxygen
d)
more copper
47.
The mixture of gravel, sand, and crushed stone called
____ is an extremely useful construction material.
____ is an extremely useful construction material.
a)
aggregate
b)
bedrock
c)
ore
d)
topsoil
48.
The largest component of air is ____.
a)
oxygen
b)
hydrogen
c)
nitrogen
d)
carbon dioxide
49.
Erosion of cropland leads to ____ in arid countries.
a)
production of moraines
b)
settling of crystals in ores
c)
desertification
d)
increased hydrothermal fluids
50.
Compared to trees, bamboo is________.
a)
more quickly replenished
b)
less likely to be sustainable
c)
far less useful
d)
more likely to require fertilizer
51.
Globally, the supply of which of the following fuels is
the greatest?
the greatest?
a)
coal
b)
natural gas
c)
kerosene
d)
crude oil
52.
If the current rates of consumption and production
remain constant, which energy resource will be
available to humans for the longest time?
remain constant, which energy resource will be
available to humans for the longest time?
a)
coal
b)
natural gas
c)
sunlight
d)
oil
53.
At which of the following locations would a
geothermal energy plant would be most successful?
geothermal energy plant would be most successful?
a)
a windy plain
b)
a plate boundary
c)
an ocean shore
d)
a river valley
54.
Which of the following does NOT require the Sun’s
energy?
energy?
a)
the production of gasoline
b)
photosynthesis
c)
keeping warm in cold climates
d)
All of the above require the Sun’s energy.
55.
How is ethanol similar to coal?
a)
both are fossil fuels
b)
both are renewable resources
c)
both store energy that originated in the Sun
d)
both are available in an unlimited supply
56.
Mineral extraction from underground mines creates
waste rock, and rainwater seeping through piles of
this rock can lead to?
waste rock, and rainwater seeping through piles of
this rock can lead to?
a)
pollution of streams.
b)
the formation of
acid precipitation.
acid precipitation.
c)
stripping of the
surface landscape.
surface landscape.
d)
pollution of the air.
57.
As a result of urban development, land becomes
covered with cement and asphalt, which can result
in?
covered with cement and asphalt, which can result
in?
a)
increased
groundwater
recharge.
groundwater
recharge.
b)
pollution of the
air.
air.
c)
increased flooding.
d)
increased acid
precipitation.
precipitation.
58.
ulfur dioxide emissions from coal-burning power
plants combines with atmospheric moisture to form?
plants combines with atmospheric moisture to form?
a)
ozone.
b)
CFCs.
c)
acid precipitation.
d)
nitrogen dioxide.
59.
The primary federal law that protects our nation’s
water from pollution is the?
water from pollution is the?
a)
Safe Drinking
Water Act.
Water Act.
b)
Clear Water
Amendment.
Amendment.
c)
Endangered Species
Act.
Act.
d)
Clean Water Act.
60.
A population that is at the carrying capacity for its
environment is in?
environment is in?
a)
decline.
b)
equilibrium.
c)
growth.
d)
collapse.
61.
Which sentence explains how the frequency and the
wavelength of electromagnetic waves are related?
wavelength of electromagnetic waves are related?
a)
As wavelength decreases, frequency
increases.
increases.
b)
As wavelength decreases, frequency remains
unchanged.
unchanged.
c)
As wavelength increases, frequency increases.
d)
As wavelength decreases, frequency
decreases.
decreases.
62.
The Hubble Space Telescope orbits Earth every 97
minutes. Calculate how long it would take the
Hubble Space Telescope to orbit Earth 30 times.
minutes. Calculate how long it would take the
Hubble Space Telescope to orbit Earth 30 times.
a)
48 hours, 30 minutes
b)
48 hours, 50 minutes
c)
4 hours, 51 minutes
d)
4 hours, 30 minutes
63.
A lunar eclipse occurs when the Moon passes
through Earth's ____.
through Earth's ____.
a)
atmosphere
b)
orbit
c)
shadow
d)
umbra
64.
The features on the Moon formed by objects crashing
into its surface are?
into its surface are?
a)
rilles.
b)
mountain ranges.
c)
impact craters.
d)
regolith.
65.
The fact that Earth observers always see the same
side of the Moon is explained by the Moon’s/
side of the Moon is explained by the Moon’s/
a)
eclipse
b)
penumbra.
c)
gravity.
d)
synchronous rotation.
66.
Which of the following correctly orders planets by
decreasing day length?
decreasing day length?
a)
Venus, Earth, Jupiter
b)
Earth, Jupiter, Venus
c)
Juipter, Earth, Venus
d)
Venus, Jupiter, Earth
67.
What is the main reason why the surface of Venus is
so hot?
so hot?
a)
the large number of volcanoes on Venus
b)
the very efficient greenhouse effect on Venus
c)
the extremely fast rotation of Venus
d)
the great amount of water on Venus
68.
Bodies of interplanetary debris that orbit the Sun with
most in the area between Mars and Jupiter are called
most in the area between Mars and Jupiter are called
a)
meteors
b)
comets
c)
asteroids
d)
meteorites
69.
Small, icy bodies that have highly eccentric orbits and
can be found in the Oort cloud or the Kuiper belt are
called ____.
can be found in the Oort cloud or the Kuiper belt are
called ____.
a)
meteors
b)
comets
c)
asteroids
d)
meteorites
70.
What two gas giants appear blue because of the
methane in their atmosphere?
methane in their atmosphere?
a)
Jupiter and Saturn
b)
Saturn and Uranus
c)
Neptune and Uranus
d)
Jupiter and Neptune
71.
Constellations are?
a)
the brightest stars.
b)
stars over Greece.
c)
groups of stars named after animals,
mythological characters, or everyday objects.
mythological characters, or everyday objects.
d)
found only in the northern hemisphere.
72.
Astronomers can identify binary stars by?
a)
comparing the colors of the stars.
b)
measuring the parallax of the stars.
c)
measuring the position of the visible star in the
pair and noting shifts as it orbits the center of
mass between it and the unseen companion
star.
pair and noting shifts as it orbits the center of
mass between it and the unseen companion
star.
d)
examining the stars’ absorption spectra.
73.
A star that starts with more than about 20 times the
Sun’s mass will
Sun’s mass will
a)
become a neutron star.
b)
continue to fuse iron in its core.
c)
end up with a smaller mass.
d)
collapse forever and become a black hole.
74.
The resistance of a star’s core to being squeezed
halts the collapse of the core and the core becomes a
halts the collapse of the core and the core becomes a
a)
supernova.
b)
neutron star.
c)
red dwarf.
d)
protostar
75.
During a supernova,
a)
infalling gas remains trapped in the core.
b)
the core continues to fuse helium.
c)
the resistance of electrons being squeezed
counteracts gravity and supports the core.
counteracts gravity and supports the core.
d)
the entire outer portion of the star is blown off
in a massive explosion.
in a massive explosion.
76.
Evidence suggests that the universe contains a great
amount of
amount of
a)
visible matter.
b)
invisible matter.
c)
mystery matter.
d)
dark matter.
77.
The universe began as a point and has been
expanding since is called the?
expanding since is called the?
a)
Big Bang theory.
b)
flat universe model.
c)
critical density theory.
d)
open universe theory.
78.
Observations of visible galaxies reveal a(n)?
a)
average density equal to critical density.
b)
average density much less than critical density.
c)
absolute density greater than average critical
density.
density.
d)
critical density much less than average density.
79.
The total amount of matter in the universe is
expressed in terms of the?
expressed in terms of the?
a)
critical density of matter.
b)
average critical density of matter.
c)
average density of matter.
d)
absolute density of matter.
80.
Galaxies that do not fit into the spiral or elliptical
classifications are called ________ .
classifications are called ________ .
a)
dwarf galaxies
b)
Hubble galaxies
c)
barred galaxies
d)
irregular galaxies
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