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Science Final Exam 2017

Total questions: 55

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Suppose you are conducting an experiment to determine which metal(s) conducts electric current best. You decide the manipulated variable will be the type of metal wire used. The responding variable will be the current, measured in amperes. Analyze which variables should be controlled.
a)
length and width of the metal wires
b)
cost of the metal wires
c)
whether the metal wires react with oxygen
d)
how rapidly the metal wires react with oxygen
2.
Atoms consist of which three types of particles? 
a)
compounds, protons, neutrons
b)
electrons, neutrons, protons
c)
molecules, electrons, protons
d)
nucleus, protons, electrons
3.

River and Gavin are conducting an experiment in their science class to test the properties of different materials. They need to identify which material is a metal. Which of the following properties should they look for? 

a)

Metals are dull.

b)

Metals are good conductors of heat and electricity.

c)

Metals break easily.

d)

Metals are not malleable.

4.
The structure of atoms relates to how atoms interact with other atoms. Based on this information, infer the location of the most reactive metals on the Periodic Table. 
a)
group 1
b)
group 12
c)
group 17
d)
group 18
5.
How did chemists later change Mendeleev’s original periodic table?
a)
They included chemical properties such as bonding power.
b)
They included physical properties such as melting point and density.
c)
They used atomic mass instead of atomic number to organize the elements.
d)
They used atomic number instead of atomic mass to organize the elements.
6.
Which statement is true about the Group 1 metals?
a)
Group 1 metals are called alkaline earth metals.
b)
Group 1 metals all have very high densities.
c)
Group 1 metals are always found as uncombined elements in nature.
d)
Group 1 elements are the most reactive metals in the periodic table.
7.
Identify properties in metalloids making them useful for the production of semiconductors. 
a)
Metalloids may or may not be able to conduct electricity depending on the substance and the conditions.
b)
Metalloids are magnetic.
c)
Metalloids are good conductors of heat and electricity.
d)
Metalloids are extrememly reactive.
8.
Distinguish the electrical attraction that holds atoms together in ionic bonding?
a)
attraction between nuclei
b)
attraction between an electron pair shared by both nuclei
c)
attraction between ions of opposite charges
d)
attraction between ions of the same charges
9.
What is this a picture of?
a)
an ion
b)
an element
c)
a molecule
d)
an atom
10.
The law of conservation of matter states that during a chemical reaction, ____.
a)
matter is created and then destroyed.
b)
matter is neither created nor destroyed.
c)
matter is not created but can be destroyed.
d)
matter is created but never destroyed.
11.
Which is a property shared by most molecular compounds?
a)
high boiling point
b)
conducts an electric current
c)
low melting point
d)
nonpolar bonds
12.
A chemical change occurs when ____.
a)
a substance changes state.
b)
old bonds break and new bonds form when making a new substance.
c)
a solute dissolves in a solvent.
d)
a substance changes shape.
13.
In a chemical reaction, the total mass of the reactants is ____.
a)
less than the total mass of the products.
b)
greater than the total mass of the products.
c)
exactly equal to the total mass of the products.
d)
unrelated to the total mass of the products.
14.
A log burned and became a pile of ashes. The mass of the ashes was less than the mass of the log before it burned. Draw a conclusion based on the law of conservation of mass. 
a)
The chemical reaction created matter.
b)
The chemical reaction destroyed matter.
c)
Not all of the products and reactants could be measured because the chemical reaction took place in an open system.
d)
The chemical reaction did not work as expected because it took place in a closed system.
15.
Each group in the periodic table has its own characteristic properties based on the number of ____.
a)
neutrons.
b)
valence electrons.
c)
protons.
d)
ions.
16.
As water moves through the water cycle, the total amount of water on Earth ____.
a)
increases.
b)
decreases.
c)
stays the same.
d)
fluctuates with the seasons.
17.
Which two factors affect the density of ocean water?
a)
color and light
b)
volume and weight
c)
depth and pressure
d)
salinity and temperature
18.
Predict the effect ocean currents have on the climate of coastal areas?
a)
Ocean currents have no effect on climate.
b)
Ocean currents always cool a coastal area and create a cool climate.
c)
Ocean currents warm the land constantly and create a warm climate.
d)
Ocean currents can warm or cool the air above them and influence the climate.
19.
The sun and warm winds heat water on the ocean’s surface.  Infer the cause for a stream of cold water to move slowly across the ocean floor.
a)
The surface wind patterns push cold water down to the floor.
b)
The Coriolis effect spins the cold water to the floor.
c)
The differences in water density cause the cold water to sink to the floor.
d)
The differences in water pressure cause the cold water to sink.
20.
How does air pressure change with increasing altitude?
a)
Air pressure increases.
b)
Air pressure decreases.
c)
Air pressure remains the same.
d)
Air pressure is not related to altitude.
21.
Conduction transfers heat ____.
a)
between the sun and the Earth.
b)
between objects that are touching.
c)
within a body of water.
d)
through moving particles.
22.
How can water be scarce in some places when almost three-fourths of the Earth is covered by water?
a)
Most of Earth's water is salty water.
b)
Most of Earth's water is underground.
c)
Most of Earth's water is in the atmosphere.
d)
Most of Earth's water is frozen at the poles.
23.
How do humans cause or increase eutrophication?
a)
Structures built along the edges of ponds and lakes block sunlight.
b)
Recreational vehicles, including boats, release hazardous materials into ponds and lakes.
c)
Power boats remove algae from the surfaces of ponds and lakes.
d)
Fertilizer from farms runs off into ponds and lakes.
24.
What causes deep ocean currents to curve?
a)
the Coriolis effect
b)
global wind patterns
c)
pockets of warm ocean water
d)
obstacles on the ocean floor
25.
What drives the motions of the Earth’s atmosphere system?
a)
energy from the sun
b)
surface currents
c)
weather
d)
Earth's rotation
26.
What causes air pressure?
a)
the mass of a column of air pulling on an area
b)
the weight of a column of air pushing on an area
c)
the altitude of a column of air pulling on an area
d)
the density of a column of air pushing on an area
27.
Scientists classify the four main layers of the atmosphere according to ____.
a)
composition.
b)
changes in density.
c)
oxygen concentration.
d)
changes in temperature.
28.
In which of the layers of Earth’s atmosphere is the ozone layer found?
a)
troposphere
b)
stratosphere
c)
mesosphere
d)
exosphere
29.
Winds are caused by differences in ____.
a)
precipitation.
b)
humidity.
c)
air pressure.
d)
turbulence.
30.
The diagram shows global air patterns.  Infer the type of heat transfer responsible for these patterns.
a)
convection
b)
conduction
c)
evaporation
d)
radiation
31.
Which of these is a nonrenewable resource?
a)
metals
b)
trees
c)
wind
d)
sunlight
32.
Summarize a major cause of permanent habitat destruction.
a)
A cause is clearing land to grow food and build businesses and homes.
b)
A cause is forest fires caused by lightning strikes and accidents.
c)
A cause is overhunting a species to extinction.
d)
A cause is polluting the environment by burning fossil fuels.
33.
How can many types of food waste and yard trimmings be recycled?
a)
by reusing
b)
by burning
c)
by bagging
d)
by composting
34.
Photochemical smog results from the interaction of pollutants in the presence of ____.
a)
rainfall.
b)
oxygen.
c)
sunlight.
d)
high temperatures.
35.
Fertilizers and pesticides are examples of which source of water pollution?
a)
agricultural wastes.
b)
industrial wastes.
c)
road runoff.
d)
human wastes.
36.
Predict a way people can reduce the emissions that contribute to smog and the greenhouse effect.  
a)
by purchasing products that contain CFCs
b)
by never pouring chemicals down the drain
c)
by taking public transportation or walking instead of driving a car
d)
by finding substitutes for garden chemicals
37.
Interpret the role that the presence of tiny particles in the air plays in cloud formation.
a)
They help cool the air to the dew point.
b)
They provide a surface on which water vapor condenses.
c)
They help increase the relative humidity of the air.
d)
They prevent the formation of water droplets.
38.
Predict the causes of lake-effect snow.
a)
Warm, moist air moves across colder land and then across a cold lake.
b)
Warm, dry air moves across a wam lake and then across colder land.
c)
Cold, moist air moves across warmer land and then across a warm lake.
d)
Cold, dry air moves across a warmer lake and then across colder land.
39.
Identify the example shown in the picture of how atmospheric conditions can change a landscape.
a)
A thunderstorm can bring drenching rain.
b)
A volcanic eruption can eject poisonous gases into the air.
c)
A hurricane can erode and change the shape of a coastline.
d)
A tornado can destroy building and vegetation that are in its path.
40.
A town is debating over which type of power plant to build. To make the best possible decision, the town council should ____.
a)
find out which types of plant the mayor prefers.
b)
always choose the cheapest plant.
c)
consider the costs and benefits of each type of plant.
d)
look only at the short-term benefits of each type of plant.
41.
Which of the following best describes a renewable resource?
a)
a natural material that is not replaced as it is used up
b)
a natural material that is supplied continually
c)
a natural material that can be burned for energy
d)
a natural material that is used by people
42.
Human population growth expanded rapidly in the 1800s and continues to do so today. Many experts credit improved health care as a factor. How did improved health care contribute to population growth?
a)
More infants died at birth.
b)
More people immigrated.
c)
Fewer people died of disease.
d)
The death rate has increased.
43.
One benefit of the ozone layer in the stratosphere is that ozone absorbs energy from the sun, which warms our atmosphere. Which of the following is another benefit of the ozone layer?
a)
It reflects radio signals back to Earth.
b)
It burns up meteoroids before they strike land.
c)
It shields Earth from harmful ultraviolet radiation.
d)
It relays telephone and television communications.
44.
Which of the following is an acquired trait?
a)
vocal cords that allow human speech
b)
the pattern of a butterfly's wings
c)
a tree trunk bent by the wind
d)
the shape of a tortoise shell
45.
Summarize an advantage of sexual reproduction.
a)
More offspring are produced.
b)
More offspring survive to maturity.
c)
The offspring have more genetic variation/diversity.
d)
The offspring and the parents are identical.
46.
When lions prey on a herd of antelope, some of the antelope are eliminated and fail to reproduce. Which factor(s) affecting natural selection can be used to describe this situation? 
a)
overproduction
b)
competition and variation
c)
reproductive isolation
d)
environmental change
47.
Fossils of horseshoe crabs reveal that they have changed very little over the past 300 million years. If a population of this species were isolated and then subjected to environmental stress, how would the isolated crab population most likely change based on the pattern of punctuated equilibrium?
a)
The horseshoe crab population is well adapted and would only change gradually.
b)
The isolated horeshoe crab population would rapidly evolve over a short period of time.
c)
The isolated population of horseshoe crabs would likely become extinct.
d)
The isolated horseshoe crab population would evolve into many intermediate species.
48.
What is the probability that the offspring in the F2 generation has white flowers?
a)
25%
b)
50%
c)
75%
d)
100%
49.
If one of the offspring in the F1 generation was allowed to self-pollinate, analyze the resulting Punnett for the percentage of possible offspring in the F2 generation being purple. 
a)
25%
b)
50%
c)
75%
d)
100%
50.
In one classic experiment, Mendel crossed two purebred pea plants, one tall and one short. In the first generation offspring (F1), all of the plants were tall.  When these F1 plants were crossed, what did Mendel find in the F2 generation?
a)
Some of the plants were short and some were tall.
b)
All of the plants were tall.
c)
All of the plants were short.
d)
Some of the plants were medium-sized.
51.
Mendel’s experiments showed that ____.
a)
parents' traits blend together in their offspring
b)
traits are determined by individual, separate alleles inherited from parents.
c)
the alleles for most traits are dominant.
d)
most alleles are recessive.
52.
According to the chromosome theory of inheritance, genes are carried from parents to their offspring on ____.
a)
traits.
b)
centromeres.
c)
chromosomes.
d)
nitrogen bases.
53.
A blue-eyed mother (bb) and a brown-eyed father (BB) have four children.  What will the phenotype of their children be?
a)
Bb
b)
bb
c)
brown-eyed
d)
blue-eyed
54.
Compare how offspring of asexual reproduction differ from offspring produced by sexual reproduction?
a)
Fewer offspring are produced.
b)
Offspring are identical to their parents.
c)
Offspring have new characteristics that may increase their chance for survival.
d)
Offspring have more genetic variation.
55.
Carrie wants to find out if Raul, Mark, or Tony is the fastest runner.  They ran five races on a track, and Carrie recorded their average times. Their results are as follows: Raul with 10.20 seconds, Mark with 10.22 seconds and Tony with 10.18 seconds.
They all started at the same starting line.  Carrie later learned that Tony’s lane on the track, the inside lane, is shorter than the other two lanes.  Critique her results.
a)
Carrie's results show a personal bias.
b)
This outcome is due to cause and effect.
c)
Carrie's results could be classified as an experimental bias.
d)
The manipulated variable was the race time for each runner.