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WorksheetsSO-Diseases & Epidemiology
Total questions: 142
Worksheet time: 1hrs 29mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
which of the following are a pathogen?
a)
virus
b)
bacteria
c)
fungi
d)
All of the above
2.
A microorganism is an organism or virus that cause disease.
a)
true
b)
false
3.
A pathogen is an organism that can only be seen with a microscope.
a)
True
b)
False
4.
Which of the following are body defenses against pathogens?
a)
Immune system
b)
The skin
c)
Body secretions/Mucous membranes
d)
All of the above
5.
Which stage of the Epidemiologic Transition Model is called Pestilence & Famine?
a)
Stage 1
b)
Stage 2
c)
Stage 3
d)
Stage 4
6.
Which stage of the Epidemiologic Transition Model is called Delayed Degenerative Diseases?
a)
Stage 1
b)
Stage 2
c)
Stage 3
d)
Stage 4
7.
Which stage of the Epidemiologic Transition Model is called Degenerative Diseases?
a)
Stage 1
b)
Stage 2
c)
Stage 3
d)
Stage 4
8.
Which stage of the Epidemiologic Transition Model is called Receding Pandemics?
a)
Stage 1
b)
Stage 2
c)
Stage 3
d)
Stage 4
9.
The branch of medical science concerned with the incidence, distribution, and control of diseases that affect large numbers of people is _____________.
a)
Cardiology
b)
Radiology
c)
Epidemiology
d)
Respirology
10.
Dr. John Snow and his famous water pumps map showed the spread of which disease in London during the 1850s?
a)
Ebola
b)
Tuberculosis
c)
H1N1
d)
Cholera
11.
Why are developing countries more susceptible to the spread of infectious diseases?
a)
Lower socio-economic status
b)
Unstable government
c)
Lack of healthcare/ education
d)
All of the above
12.
Where in the world is HIV most prevalent?
a)
East Asia
b)
Sub-Saharan Africa
c)
Latin America
d)
Europe
13.
Which of the following is NOT one of the potential reasons for a possible Stage 5 of the DTM?
a)
Hysteria
b)
Poverty
c)
Evolution
d)
Increased Connections
14.
Which of the following is NOT a node of origin of AIDS in the United States in the 1980s?
a)
Florida
b)
Kansas
c)
New York
d)
California
15.
A ________ is a disease that occurs over a wide geographic area and affects a very high proportion of the population.
a)
disease
b)
epidemic
c)
pandemic
d)
pandemonium
16.
Cardiovascular disease is in which stage of the Epidemiologic Transition Model?
a)
Stage 1
b)
Stage 2
c)
Stage 3
d)
Stage 4
17.
The Black Plague is an example of a disease from which stage?
a)
Stage 1
b)
Stage 2
c)
Stage 3
d)
Stage 4
18.
Through medicine, people can survive for many years in this stage of a disease.
a)
Stage 1
b)
Stage 2
c)
Stage 3
d)
Stage 4
19.
This stage sees the CDR rapidly decline due to improved sanitation and nutrition.
a)
Stage 1
b)
Stage 2
c)
Stage 3
d)
Stage 4
20.
What does the acronym CDR stand for?
a)
Crude Death Rate
b)
Cruel Disease Rabies
c)
Can't Divulge Reasons
d)
Cool Dude Ravi
21.
How was the final vaccination for MEV-1 in Contagion administered?
a)
Shot
b)
IV
c)
Pill
d)
Respiratory Inhalation
22.
Where did the virus in Contagion originate from?
a)
Monkeys
b)
the Metrodome
c)
Pigs
d)
Bats
23.
What is the definition of epidemiology?
a)
the study of the distribution and determinants of health-related states or events in specified populations, and the application of this study to the control of health problems
b)
a widespread occurrence of an infectious disease in a community at a particular time.
c)
the occurrence of health-related events by time, place, and person.
d)
the number of health events such as the number of cases of meningitis or diabetes in a population
24.
Epidemiology is concerned with the __________ and __________ of health events in a population:
a)
frequency, pattern
b)
frequency, determinant
c)
pattern, determinant
d)
determinant, spread
25.
Compare food histories between persons with Staphylococcus food poisoning and those without is an example of
a)
Distribution
b)
Determinants
c)
Application
26.
Compare frequency of brain cancer among anatomists with frequency in general population is an example of
a)
Distribution
b)
Determinants
c)
Application
27.
Mark on a map the residences of all children born with birth defects within 2 miles of a hazardous waste site is an example of
a)
Distribution
b)
Determinants
c)
Application
28.
Graph the number of cases of congenital syphilis by year for the country is an example of
a)
Distribution
b)
Determinants
c)
Application
29.
Recommend that close contacts of a child recently reported with meningococcal meningitis receive Rifampin is an example of
a)
Distribution
b)
Determinants
c)
Application
30.
Tabulate the frequency of clinical signs, symptoms, and laboratory findings among children with chickenpox in Cincinnati, Ohio is an example of
a)
Distribution
b)
Determinants
c)
Application
31.
Who was the first person to explain disease occurrence from a rational rather than a supernatural viewpoint?
a)
Hippocrates
b)
John Graunt
c)
William Farr
d)
John Snow
32.
Which person is considered the father of modern vital statistics and surveillance?
a)
Hippocrates
b)
John Graunt
c)
William Farr
d)
John Snow
33.
Which person is considered the "father of field epidemiology"?
a)
Hippocrates
b)
John Graunt
c)
William Farr
d)
John Snow
34.
Which water pump did John Snow determine was the source of the cholera epidemic in the Golden Square of London in 1854?
a)
Pump A
b)
Pump B
c)
Pump C
35.
When did epidemiologists extend their methods to noninfectious diseases?
a)
1662
b)
1800
c)
1930s and 1940s
d)
1960s and early 1970s
36.
Which of the following is NOT a use of epidemiology?
a)
Assessing the community's health
b)
Making individual decisions
c)
Coloring pictures about health
d)
Searching for causes
37.
The birth rate minus the death rate.
a)
Infant Mortality Rate
b)
Natural Increase Rate
c)
Arithmetic Density
d)
Fertility Rate
38.
The average number of children a woman of childbearing years will have in her lifetime.
a)
Infant Mortality Rate
b)
Natural Increase Rate
c)
Arithmetic Density
d)
Fertility Rate
39.
The number of infants per one thousand who will die before reaching age two.
a)
Infant Mortality Rate
b)
Natural Increase Rate
c)
Arithmetic Density
d)
Fertility Rate
40.
The average number of people that live in a measurable area.
a)
Infant Mortality Rate
b)
Natural Increase Rate
c)
Arithmetic Density
d)
Fertility Rate
41.
The total number of people per area of arable land, which is suitable for agriculture.
a)
Birth Rate
b)
Death Rate
c)
Physiological Density
d)
Population Pyramid
42.
Number of deaths per one thousand population in a year.
a)
Birth Rate
b)
Death Rate
c)
Physiological Density
d)
Population Pyramid
43.
A graphic device that shows the sex and age distribution of a population.
a)
Birth Rate
b)
Death Rate
c)
Physiological Density
d)
Population Pyramid
44.
Number of live births per one thousand population in a year.
a)
Birth Rate
b)
Death Rate
c)
Physiological Density
d)
Population Pyramid
45.
During which time period did the greatest human population begin to increase exponentially?
a)
During the New Stone Age
b)
During the Ice Age
c)
During the Industrial Revolution
d)
During the Iron Age
46.
Why did human population begin to increase exponentially?
a)
Increased birthrate
b)
Better healthcare
c)
Improved sanitation
d)
Yup, all of those things!
47.
Which of the following is an explanation of exponential growth?
a)
Growth whose rate becomes more rapid as a number increases.
b)
Growth that slows down as a number increases.
c)
A constant growth that never speeds up.
d)
A constant decrease.
48.
Among what people are the populations currently growing the fastest?
a)
The world’s richest people
b)
The world’s poorest people
c)
Cuba
d)
Russia
49.
What is the number 1 way to lower birth rates in developing countries?
a)
Preferring male children
b)
Build larger farms
c)
Gender equality (empowering women)
d)
War
50.
What is the greatest impact of overpopulation?
a)
Increase likelihood of conflict
b)
Depletion of resources
c)
Increase likelihood of disease
d)
Not enough space for development
51.
Which stage of the Demographic Transition Model exhibits a steady high crude birth rate but has a dramatic decrease in the crude death rate?
a)
Stage 1
b)
Stage 2
c)
Stage 3
d)
Stage 4
52.
Which stage of the Demographic Transition Model exhibits little to no population growth?
a)
Stage 1
b)
Stage 2
c)
Stage 3
d)
Stage 4
53.
Stage 5 of the Demographic Transition model is when infectious diseases have returned to a population. What are two potential reasons for a possible Stage 5 of the DTM?
a)
Sanitation, Lack of Technology
b)
Evolution, Hysteria
c)
Poverty, Depletion of Medicine
d)
Poverty, Evolution
54.
Migration from a location.
a)
Immigration
b)
Emigration
c)
Migration
d)
Net Migration
55.
Migration to a new location
a)
Immigration
b)
Emigration
c)
Migration
d)
Net Migration
56.
The difference between the number of immigrants and the number of emigrants.
a)
Immigration
b)
Emigration
c)
Migration
d)
Net Migration
57.
Form of relocation diffusion involving a permanent move to a new location.
a)
Immigration
b)
Emigration
c)
Migration
d)
Net Migration
58.
Factor that induces people to leave old residences.
a)
Pull Factor
b)
Push Factor
c)
Intraregional
Migration
d)
Interregional
Migration
59.
Factor that induces people to move to a new location.
a)
Pull Factor
b)
Push Factor
c)
Intraregional Migration
d)
Interregional Migration
60.
Permanent movement within one region of a country.
a)
Pull Factor
b)
Push Factor
c)
Intraregional Migration
d)
Interregional Migration
61.
Permanent movement from one region of a country to another.
a)
Pull Factor
b)
Push Factor
c)
Intraregional Migration
d)
Interregional Migration
62.
The Braa family decides to move from Minnesota to Wisconsin. This is an example of which type of migration?
a)
Interregional
Migration
b)
Intraregional
Migration
c)
International
Migration
d)
Net
Migration
63.
The Fredd family decides to move from Minnesota to California. This is an example of which type of migration?
a)
Interregional Migration
b)
Intraregional Migration
c)
International Migration
d)
Net Migration
64.
What is the number one reason why people move to a new location?
a)
Bike
trails
b)
Weather
c)
Economic Conditions
d)
Education
65.
In the 21st century, most of the immigrants to the United States came from where?
a)
Europe
b)
Canada
c)
Middle East
d)
Latin America
66.
This term describes people who have been forced to migrate from their homes and cannot return for fear of persecution because of their race, religion, nationality, membership in a social group, or political opinion.
a)
Fugitive
b)
Immigrant
c)
Refugee
d)
Asylum Seeker
67.
Chain migration is the migration of people to a specific location because relatives or members of the same nationality previously migrated there. Which of the following is an example of chain migration?
a)
Americans moving to Europe
b)
Becraft family moving from Arizona to Minnesota
c)
Somalis migrating to Minnesota
d)
“Snowbirds” temporarily moving to a warmer climate
68.
What is the most common environmental threat to people around the world that forces them to migrate?
a)
Water
b)
Killer Bees
c)
Earthquakes
d)
Tornadoes
69.
How has the “center of population” in the United States primarily shifted since 1800?
a)
From West to East
b)
From East to West
c)
From South to North
d)
From North to South
70.
What is the name of Stage 1 of the Epidemiologic Transition Model?
a)
Delayed
Degenerative Diseases
b)
Pestilence
& Famine
c)
Degenerative
Diseases
d)
Receding
Pandemics
71.
What is the name of Stage 2 of the Epidemiologic Transition Model?
a)
Delayed Degenerative Diseases
b)
Pestilence & Famine
c)
Degenerative Diseases
d)
Receding Pandemics
72.
What is the name of Stage 3 of the Epidemiologic Transition Model?
a)
Delayed Degenerative Diseases
b)
Pestilence & Famine
c)
Degenerative Diseases
d)
Receding Pandemics
73.
What is the name of Stage 4 of the Epidemiologic Transition Model?
a)
Delayed Degenerative Diseases
b)
Pestilence & Famine
c)
Degenerative Diseases
d)
Receding Pandemics
74.
From the description/examples listed below, which correctly describes Stage 1 of the Epidemiologic Transition Model?
a)
Cardiovascular disease/cancer
b)
Through medicine, disease spreads more slowly
c)
Improved Sanitation, nutrition
d)
Black Plague
75.
From the description/examples listed below, which correctly describes Stage 2 of the Epidemiologic Transition Model?
a)
Cardiovascular disease/cancer
b)
Through medicine, disease spreads more slowly
c)
Improved Sanitation, nutrition
d)
Black Plague
76.
From the description/examples listed below, which correctly describes Stage 3 of the Epidemiologic Transition Model?
a)
Cardiovascular disease/cancer
b)
Through medicine, disease spreads more slowly
c)
Improved Sanitation, nutrition
d)
Black Plague
77.
From the description/examples listed below, which correctly describes Stage 4 of the Epidemiologic Transition Model?
a)
Cardiovascular disease/cancer
b)
Through medicine, disease spreads more slowly
c)
Improved Sanitation, nutrition
d)
Black Plague
78.
A ____________ is disease that occurs over a wide geographic area and affects a very high proportion of the population.
a)
Pandemonium
b)
Socioeconomic
c)
Pandemic
d)
Epidemic
79.
The branch of medical science concerned with the incidence, distribution, and control of diseases that affect large numbers of people is ____________________.
a)
Epidemiology
b)
Optometry
c)
Cardiology
d)
Pandemiology
80.
Why are developing countries more susceptible to the spread of infectious diseases?
a)
Lower socio-economic status
b)
Unstable government
c)
Lack of healthcare/ education
d)
All of the above
81.
Where in the world is HIV/AIDS most prevalent (most common)?
a)
Europe
b)
Southeast Asia
c)
United States
d)
Sub-Saharan Africa
82.
What type of epi curve is this?
a)
Continuous common source
b)
Propagated/Intermit-tent
c)
Point Source
d)
Ecological/Correlati-onal
83.
All epi-curves measure
a)
The # of new cases over time
b)
The total # of cases over time
c)
The # of new deaths over time
d)
The total # of deaths over time
84.
Butterflies migrate from the US to Central America every winter to breed and to get away from frozen temperatures. Unfortunately, in Central America, looking at a butterfly can cause a disease known as Papilla-induced Spooky Syndrome (PiSS). What type of epi-curve will the incidence of PiSS create?
a)
Temporal
b)
Propagated
c)
Point Source
d)
Continuous
85.
Most foodborne illnesses create this kind of epi curve
a)
Propagated
b)
Continuous Common Source
c)
Intermittent
d)
Point Source
86.
a)
5/6
b)
8/15
c)
25/16
d)
8/7
87.
What is the odds ratio?
(I hope you brought your calculator!)
(I hope you brought your calculator!)
a)
.114
b)
8.8
c)
3.73
d)
Help me no undastand
88.
What is the formula for specificity?
a)
TN / (FN + TN)
b)
PF / (FN + NT)
c)
TP / (FP + TP)
d)
TP / (TP + TN)
89.
Viruses, bacteria, and other organisms that cause diseases are ___________ hazards.
a)
social
b)
biological
c)
chemical
d)
physical
90.
Lifestyle choices that endanger health is known as a __________ hazard.
a)
biological
b)
social
c)
chemical
d)
physical
91.
Harmful artificial and natural chemicals in the environment are _________ hazards.
a)
chemical
b)
biological
c)
physical
d)
social
92.
Natural disasters and ongoing natural phenomena that can cause health problems is __________ hazards.
a)
chemical
b)
biological
c)
social
d)
physical
93.
The study of disease in human populations is ______________.
a)
toxicity
b)
dose-response
c)
health hazard
d)
epidemiology
94.
__________ is the study of how poisonous substances affect an organism's health.
a)
toxicology
b)
epidemiology
c)
dose-response
d)
all of the above
95.
________ is a measure of how harmful a substance is.
a)
dose
b)
toxicity
c)
response
d)
hazard
96.
It is hard to determine the dose-response in humans because they are _________ exposed to hazards in the environment.
a)
differently
b)
sensitively
c)
accidentally
d)
none of the above
97.
Scientist test effects of hazard on animals which makes it easier to control ______.
a)
genes
b)
doses
c)
effects
d)
response
98.
A person's _______ and environment affect chances of suffering from a disease.
a)
genes
b)
age
c)
weight
d)
immune system
99.
The probability that a hazard will cause harm is known as _______.
a)
sensitive
b)
risk
c)
threshold
d)
response
100.
Infectious diseases are caused be viruses or bacteria know as _______.
a)
emerging diseases
b)
HIV
c)
pathogens
d)
mobility
101.
Organisms that spread diseases, such as ticks and mosquitoes, are _________.
a)
Vectors
b)
Infectious
c)
pathogens
d)
mobility
102.
Diseases that appear for the first time are known as __________ diseases.
a)
pathogens
b)
resistance
c)
vectors
d)
emerging
103.
An outbreak that becomes widespread and affects a whole region, continent, or world is a ___________.
a)
epidemic
b)
emerging
c)
pandemic
d)
none of the above
104.
Which organization responds to emerging diseases internationally?
a)
CDC
b)
WHO
105.
Examples of social hazards include _______, being exposed to secondhand smoke, working with harmful chemicals, and eating fatty foods.
a)
smoking
b)
overeating
c)
emerging diseases
106.
Water can be considered harmful in large enough amounts.
a)
true
b)
false
107.
Poison ivy is considered a chemical hazard.
a)
true
b)
false
108.
A(n) _____ is an opening in the Earth's crust through which molten lava, ash, and gases are ejected.
a)
dome
b)
cirque
c)
volcano
d)
fault
109.
When new disease first emerge, humans usually have _____ medicines and vaccines to control them.
a)
many
b)
few
c)
18
d)
32
110.
Individuals respond _____ to the same environmental hazards.
a)
differently
b)
similarly
c)
exactly the same
111.
What are some examples of social hazards?
a)
Smoking
b)
Drugs
c)
Overeating
d)
All of the above
112.
which phrase best describes cancer
a)
absence of cyclins
b)
multiple gene mutations
c)
uncontrolled cell growth
d)
presence of genetic defects
113.
Humans usually have developed strong resistance to emerging diseases.
a)
True
b)
False
114.
Epidemiology deals primarily with what type of hazards?
a)
physical
b)
chemical
c)
social
d)
biological
115.
Viruses, bacteria, and other organisms in the environment that harm human health are classified as
a)
biological hazards
b)
social hazards
c)
chemical hazards
d)
physical hazards
116.
substance know to produce or promote cancer are called
a)
carcinogens
b)
kinases
c)
cyclins
d)
malignancies
117.
The relationship between smoking cigarettes and lung cancer can be described as
a)
causal
b)
correlation
c)
directional
d)
no relationship
118.
If the measure of association (OR or RR) is approximately 1, exposure is not associated with the disease
a)
True
b)
False
119.
A p value less than or equal to 0.01 means that your results are
a)
Not significant
b)
Significant
c)
Very Significant
120.
Which of the following is a sign of infection?
a)
Fever
b)
elevated white blood cell count
c)
nausea & vomiting
d)
all are signs of infection
121.
Are there any instances where exposure can reduce your risk of disease?
a)
Yes
b)
No
122.
In a cohort study, you calculate relative risk (RR) and in a case-control study, you calculate odds ratio (OR).
a)
True
b)
False
123.
Exposure to vitamin D and calcium can increase your risk for osteoporosis.
a)
True
b)
False
124.
A cohort study is usually prospective, and a case-control study is usually retrospective.
a)
True
b)
False
125.
A disease that has appeared in the human population for the first time or that has existed for a while, but is increasing rapidly or spreading around the world is called
a)
environmental.
b)
pandemic.
c)
emerging.
d)
infectious.
126.
A measure that combines effects of both morbidity and mortality rates thus providing a health and economic overview of diseases and injuries to individuals and populations.
a)
DALYs
b)
Health Data
c)
Health Statistics
d)
Burden of disease
127.
Worldwide outbreak of a disease in numbers clearly in excess of normal
a)
Pandemic
b)
Epidemic
c)
Prevalence
d)
Epidemiology
128.
a composite measure of the years of life lost because of premature death & the equivalent years lost because of serious injury/disability
a)
Burden of disease
b)
LDCs
c)
Re portable disease
d)
DALYs
129.
A measure of the proportion of persons in the population with a certain disease at a given time,
a)
Prevalence
b)
DALYs
c)
Incidence
d)
Outbreak
130.
Incidence of disease; rate of sickness, as in a specified community or group
a)
Incidence
b)
Morbidity rate
c)
HDI
d)
DALYs
131.
Measures the average achievement in a country of the following three markers: health, education & income
a)
HDI
b)
Health Data
c)
Health Statistics
d)
GRID
132.
a disease occurring suddenly in a community, region, or country in numbers clearly in excess of normal
a)
Pandemic
b)
Burden of disease
c)
Outbreak
d)
Epidemic
133.
the number of deaths or new cases of a condition, symptoms or injury that arises during a specific period of time, such as a year.
a)
Mortality rate
b)
Outbreak
c)
Incidence
d)
Prevalence
134.
Epidemiology is _________.
a)
likelihood that agent or pathogen can be transmitted to another person
b)
the study of patterns, causes, and effects of diseases/health conditions in a population
c)
health determinants that contribute to possible development of disease or condition or decrease one’s wellbeing
d)
health determinants that protect against the possible development of disease or condition
135.
_____ is generalized resistance to a disease in a population because most of the population is immune to a specific disease/condition.
a)
Herd immunity
b)
Protective factor
c)
Passive immunity
d)
Active immunity
136.
_____ is a health determinant that keeps a person safe from an illness and/or assists in improving health.
a)
Immunity
b)
Risk factor
c)
Vaccine
d)
Protective factor
137.
_____ is the number of people who develop a disease or condition over a certain period of time (new cases).
a)
Incidence
b)
Prevalence
c)
Morbidity
d)
Mortality
138.
_____ is a measure of the frequency of an event or diagnosis in a defined population within a given time period.
a)
Frequency
b)
Ratio
c)
Proportion
d)
Rate
139.
What is the relative risk (risk ratio) of cancer relative to the exposure (smoking)?
a)
.20
b)
2
c)
-.20
d)
20
140.
How would you interpret the relative risk value of 20?
a)
Risk in exposed = Risk in non-exposed (no relationship)
b)
Risk in exposed > Risk in non-exposed (positive relationship)
c)
Risk in exposed < Risk in non-exposed (negative relationship)
d)
Unable to determine, not enough information
141.
What is the odds ratio for cancer development?
a)
14.75
b)
4.75
c)
24.75
d)
44.75
142.
Which statement accurately reflects the odds ratio finding of 24.75?
a)
Those who did not smoke are 24.75 times more likely to develop cancer compared to those who did smoke.
b)
The development of cancer is 24.75 times more likely among those who smoked compared to those who did not smoke.
c)
There is not enough information to interpret the finding.
d)
The development of cancer is 24.75 times less likely among those who smoked compared to those who did not smoked.
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