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Rev Up to Review, Reverend - Don't Revile the Pharm Revival!

Total questions: 21

Worksheet time: 2hrs 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the preferred drug of choice for allergic rhinitis?

a)

cromolyn

b)

fluticasone

c)

fexofenadine

d)

diphenhydramine

2.

A 9 year old with asthma is being discharged with an albuterol MDI from the hospital after asthma exacerbation. What would you suggest be ordered instead by the MD?

a)

recommend a DPI

b)

recommend a nasal spray formulation

c)

recommend a MDI w/ spacer

d)

recommend an acapella

3.

What is the preferred drug to relieve and prevent bronchospasm in a client with COPD

a)

racemic epinephrine

b)

ipratropium

c)

albuterol

d)

dexamethasone

4.

What potential action(s) does prototypic lisinopril have on the body

a)

Acts primarily on preload reducing pulmonary congestion

b)

Acts on preload reducing pulmonary congestion and afterload increasing cardiac output

c)

primarily affects afterload increasing cardiac output

d)

neither preload or afterload are influenced

5.

In what scenario is calcium channel blockers most effective

a)

Electrical heart block somewhere below the SA node

b)

atrial fibrillation

c)

ventricular dysrhythmias

d)

bradycardia

6.

Clopidogrel mechanism of action is most similar to which other coagulation related drug

a)

heparin

b)

aspirin

c)

warfarin

d)

enoxaparin sodium

7.

A drug causes the major arteries to dilate, thus the heart improves cardiac output. This would improve which of the definitions below?

a)

contractile load

b)

renin load

c)

preload

d)

afterload

8.

A client with angina pectoris is taking nitroglycerin SL for chest pain. The healthcare provider adds Metoprolol (Lopressor) to the client's medications. Which assessment finding represents a goal of therapy related to a common mechanism of action of both drugs? (Select All That Apply)

a)

Increased tolerance with physical activity

b)

Decreased episodes of chest pain

c)

Symptomatic Bradycardia

d)

Hypotension

e)

Normotensive

9.

What is true about heparin?

a)

It is able to dissolve clots

b)

Clotting time is shortened

c)

Activates antithrombin III to inhibit thrombin

d)

Safe dosing is monitored by INR

10.

When cardiac output is decreased in HF, the kidneys respond by secreting renin, leading to redirection of available volume back to the heart. What is this volume called?

a)

Contractile Load

b)

Renin Load

c)

Preload

d)

Afterload

11.

A nurse is caring for a client involved in a motor vehicle accident (MVA). Abdominal CT shows evidence of an adrenal hemorrhage and client presents with severe orthostatic hypotension, weak deep tendon reflexes, lethargy, and quick 3 lead EKG shows some dysrhythmias. What are appropriate actions?

a)

Advocate for diuretics to address fluid overload

b)

Give IV insulin to treat hyperglycemia

c)

Treat Hyperkalemia

d)

Administer IV desmopressin

12.

Four clients are receiving corticosteroid replacement therapy over a period of a month. The nurse anticipates that the client at greatest risk for developing adverse effects is the client receiving the drug by which route?

a)

Inhalation

b)

Intra-articular injection

c)

PO

d)

Topical application

13.

A client that has just undergone radioactive iodine therapy is at risk for a certain complication with which of the following signs and symptoms commonly seen?

a)

dehydration, low specific gravity in the urine, polyuria

b)

lethargy, abdominal pail, tachycardia, constipation, fruity breath

c)

Lethargy, hyponatremia, bradycardia, hypoglycemia, hypotension, puffiness of hands and face

d)

abdominal pain, fever, nausea/vomiting, fatigue, poor appetite

14.

The nurse is caring for two clients who are on the same anticholinergic medication. Millie is 88 years old and hospitalized for COPD. Josephine is 23 years old and hospitalized for an abscess on her arm. Which of the following statements are true regarding this class of medication? (Select all that apply)

a)

Dose adjustment is not necessary because these medications are excreted by the kidney.

b)

Dose adjustment is required as the older adult is more susceptible to drug side effects.

c)

Dose adjustment is necessary as the older adult is more likely to have toxic levels secondary to hepatic or renal impairment.

d)

Dose adjustment is necessary as the younger adult is more susceptible to drug side effects secondary to more adipose tissue.

15.

Your client has cardura ordered with her morning medications. What should the RN do prior to administering?

a)

Assess vital signs.

b)

Assess lung sounds

c)

Check intake and output

d)

Make sure the patient has an empty stomach

16.

Muscarinic antagonists compete with acetylcholine for binding at the muscarinic receptors. Because less acetylcholine binds to the receptors, what response is diminished?

a)

sympathetic

b)

parasympathetic

c)

alpha receptors

d)

nicotinic receptors

17.

The client rings their call bell and states, "I'm having trouble breathing!". Which of the following medications would be the priority to give the client for quick relief?

a)

Tiotropium inhaler two puffs

b)

Atrovent inhaler, two puffs

c)

Albuterol inhaler, two puffs

d)

Atropine IV STAT

18.

A client has a PEG tube and is prescribed omeprazole/Prilosec extended release capsule by their gastroenterologist. What is the appropriate nurse action?

a)

Open the capsule and rapid infuse into the PEG tube with 10 cc of water after

b)

Open the capsule and slowly infuse into the PEG tube over 2 minutes with 10 cc of water after

c)

Try and fit the capsule through the PEG tube and flush with 10 cc of water after

d)

Call the gastroenterologist for clarification of order

19.

What is the highest priority for the nurse when administering a muscarinic agent?

a)

Providing a cool cloth due to the increase in diaphoresis (sweating)

b)

Monitoring for reflex tachycardia or other cardiac events

c)

Providing patient and family education prior to discharge

d)

Monitoring intake and output

20.

What are the key points about the use of alteplase? (Select All That Apply)

a)

To be given within 12 hours of an MI

b)

To be given within 3 hours of a thrombotic stroke

c)

alteplase promotes plasmin levels to dissolve fibrin clots

d)

most common side effect is bleeding

e)

alteplase is contraindicated if patient is on warfarin and INR is >1.7

21.

The nurse acknowledges that a client taking Furosemide (Lasix) should be assessed and monitored for the side effect of ?

a)

Hypernatremia

b)

Hyperchloremia

c)

Hypokalemia

d)

Hypoglycemia