WorksheetsFinal Quiz for PMP
Total questions: 226
Worksheet time: 8hrs 31mins
A project is
A set if sequential activities performed in a process or system.
A revenue-generating activity that needs to be accomplished while achieving customers satisfaction
An on-going endeavor undertaken to meet customer or market requirements.
A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.
All of the following are true about project phases and the project life cycle EXCEPT:
Stakeholder influences, risk, and uncertainity are greatest at the start of project. These factors decrease over the life of the project.
The ability to influence the final chracteristics of the project's product, without significantly impacting cost, is highest at the start the project and decreases as the project progressess toward completion.
The cost of changes and correcting errors typically increases substaintially as the project approaches completion
Cost and staffing level are generally steady throughout the project life cycle.
All of the following statements about the project life cycle and the product life cycle are true EXCEPT:
In the project predictive life cycle, the project scope and the time and cost required to deliver that scope are determined as early in the project life cycle as pratically possible.
In the project iterative and incremental life cycles, project phases intentionally repeat one or more project activities as the project team's understanding of the product increases.
The product life cycle is the seried of phases that represent the evolution of a product, from concept through delivery, growth, maturity, and to retiremnent
The product life cycle is contained within the predictive project life cycle.
A primary function of a project management office (PMO) is to support project managers in a variety of ways which may include all of the following EXCEPT:
Intervening in project execution directly and without involving the project manager
Managing shared resources across all projects administered by the PMO.
Identifying and developing project management methodology, best practices, and standards.
Coaching, mentoring, training, and oversight.
The types of project management office (PMO) structures in organizations include all of the following EXCEPT:
Supportive PMOs that provide a consultative role to projects by supplying templates, best practices, training, access to information, and lessons learned from other projects.
Controlling PMOs that provide support and require compliance through various means.
Harmonizing PMOs that strive to reduce conflict and improve harmony among project team members.
Directive PMOs that take control of the projects by directly managing the projects.
All of the following are external environmental factors EXCEPT:
Legal restrictions
Organizational values and principles.
Competitive movement
Economic conditions
All of the following are generally true about leadership in a project environment EXCEPT:
A. It involves focusing the efforts of a group of people toward a common goal and enabling them to work as a team.
B. It is the ability to get things done through others.
C. Respect and trust, rather than fear and submission, are the key elements of effective leadership.
D. Although important throughout all project phases, effective leadership is critical during the Closing phase of a project when the emphasis is on stakeholder acceptance of the project.
Project managers spend the majority of their time communicating with team members and other project stakeholders. To communicate effectively, the project manager should generally perform all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Calculating the potential number of communication channels accurately.
B. Developing finely tuned skills using multiple methods of communication.
C. Incorporating feedback channels.
D. Seeking to understand project stakeholders' communications needs.
All of the following are components of culture EXCEPT:
A. Values.
B. Norms.
C. Intelligence.
D. Beliefs.
When performing integration on the project, the role of the project manager is:
A. To work with the project sponsor to understand the strategic objectives and ensure the alignment of the project objectives and results with those of the project and business area.
B. To perform all of the work that is required to get the project approved and baselined for communication to the team.
C. To complete the project charter and seek formal approval from the sponsor of the project.
D. To involve the team in group activities to facilitate teamwork, which builds an integrated project organizational structure.
Performing integration is a cornerstone skill for all project managers; the following describe the three different levels of performing integration EXCEPT:
A. Cognitive level.
B. Process level.
C. Complexity level.
D. Context level.
Complexity within projects is a result of many different organizational behaviors; the dimensions of complexity include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. System behavior.
B. Human behavior.
C. Ambiguity.
D. Process behavior.
Which of the following is least likely to be a project manager's role?
A. Evaluation and analysis of project-related activities prior to project initiation.
B. Consulting with business leaders on advancing strategic objectives.
C, Assisting in business analysis, business case development and aspects of portfolio management for a project.
D. Ensuring that organizations are operating efficiently.
Which of the following is least likely to be within the project manager's sphere of influence?
A. Government.
B. Project team.
C. Sponsors.
D. Customers.
The following are all key competencies of a project manager EXCEPT:
A. Technical project management.
B. Operational management.
C. Leadership.
D. Strategic management.
The following are all key differences between management and leadership EXCEPT:
A. Directing vs. influencing.
B. Focus on systems vs. focus on relationships.
C. Accept status quo vs. challenge status quo.
D. Concentrate on project activities vs. emphasis on results.
Leadership and management are ultimately about being able to get things done, and power plays an important part. Which of the following best describe the various forms of power?
A. Positional, referent, personal, cultural, and relational.
B. Positional, personal, relational, guilt-based, informational, and expertise.
C. Referent, personal, expertise, and cultural.
D. Positional and pressure-based.
Personality refers to the individual differences in characteristic patterns of thinking, feeling, and behaving. Which of the following are the least appropriate characteristics for project managers?
A. Authentic, courteous, creative, cultural, and emotional.
B. Intellectual, managerial, political, service-oriented, and social.
C. Authentic, managerial, service-oriented, social, and system.
D. Complexity, courteous, intellectual, cultural, and managerial.
Project managers exhibit different leadership styles. Which of the following is NOT a leadership style?
A. Laissez-faire.
B. Motivational.
C. Charismatic.
D. Servant.
Complexity exhibits all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:
A. Containing multiple parts.
B. Containing high-risk parts.
C. Exhibiting dynamic interactions between the parts.
D. Exhibiting emergent behavior, which cannot be easily explained as the simple sum of parts.
Project managers are similar to conductors of a large orchestra, EXCEPT:
A. They are responsible for the final result of the team.
B. They communicate with the team.
C. They need to integrate multiple disciplines.
D. They need to be an expert or knowledgeable of all aspects of their endeavor.
Which of the following processes is included in Project Integration Management?
A. Develop project management plan.
B. Control scope definition.
C. Review scope validation.
D. Conduct procurement surveillance.
All of the following are characteristics of the project charter EXCEPT:
A. It formally authorizes the existence of a project.
B. Projects are initiated by an entity external to the project. The project initiator or sponsor should be at the level that is appropriate to procure funding and commit resources to the project.
C. It is used primarily to request bids for a project or a specific phase of a project.
D. It provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities.
All of the following are characteristics of the Project Management Information System (PMIS) EXCEPT:
A. Automated gathering and reporting on key performance indicators (KPIs) can be part of this system.
B. It provides access to information technology (IT) software tools, such as scheduling software tools, work authorization systems, and configuration management systems.
C. It is used as part of the Direct and Manage Project Work.
D. It is used by the project manager and the project management team primarily to generate presentations to key stakeholders.
Which of the following is NOT true about tools and techniques of Perform Integrated Change Control?
A. They include expert judgment.
B. They include change control meetings.
C. A change control board (CCB) is responsible for meeting and reviewing the change requests and approving, rejecting, or other disposition of those changes.
D. They include project plan updates.
You are managing a $10 million project. Which of the following is an acceptable cause for "re-bashing" this project?
A. The client has approved an addition to the scope of the project with a $150,000 budget increase and a two-week extension of the scheduled completion.
B. The contractor's company has instituted a quality assurance program in which it has pledged to spend $1 million during the next year.
C. The productivity in the design department is lower than estimated, which has resulted in 1,000 additional hours over what was budgeted and a forecasted two-week delay of the scheduled completion.
D. The engineering department of the performing organization has converted to a new $250,000 CAD system.
Configuration management is focused on:
A. The identification and correction of problems arising in functional areas of project implementation.
B. The specification of both the deliverables and the processes, while change control is focused on identifying, documenting, and approving or rejecting changes to the project documents, deliverables, or baselines.
C. Testing new systems.
D. Identifying,, documenting, and controlling changes to the project and the product baselines, while change control is focused on the specifications of both the deliverables and the processes.
A change control board (CCB) is:
A. A formally chartered group of stakeholders responsible for ensuring that only a minimal amount of changes occurs on the project.
B. A formal or an informal group of stakeholders that has oversight of project execution.
C. A formally chartered group responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying, or rejecting changes to the project, and for recording and communicating such decisions.
D. A dashboard that provides integrated information to help control changes to cost, schedule, and specifications throughout the life of the project.
Some of the configuration management activities included in the Perform Integrated Change Control process include all of the following activities EXCEPT:
A. Identification and selection of a configuration item to provide the basis for which the project configuration is defined and verified, products and documents ae labeled changes are managed, and accountability is maintained.
B. Monitoring changes in resource-leveling heuristics to ensure efficient resource utilization throughout the life cycle of the project.
C. Configuration status accounting, in which information is recorded and reported as to when appropriate data about the configuration item should be provided.
D. Configuration verification and configuration audits that ensure that the composition of a project's configuration items is correct and that corresponding changes are registered, assessed, approved, tracked, and correctly implemented.
Actions and activities necessary to transfer the project's products, services, or results, to the next phase or to production and/or operations are addressed:
A. As part of the Close Project or Phase process.
B. Following the plan outlined in the Quality Management process.
C. As requested by senior executives.
D. As the last step in project management.
Outputs of the Monitor and Control Project Work process include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Change requests.
B. Project management plan updates.
C. Work performance reports.
D. Final product, service, or result transition.
All of the following are inputs to Manage Project Knowledge EXCEPT:
A. Deliverables.
B. Knowledge management.
C. Lessons learned register.
D. Project management plan.
All of the following are Knowledge Management tools and techniques EXCEPT:
A. Discussion forums.
B. Storytelling.
C. Work shadowing and reverse shadowing.
D. Regression analysis.
Lessons learned documentation generally includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A. The causes of issues.
B. Updates of the statement of work to reflect training and learning requirements.
C. Reasoning behind the corrective action chosen.
D. Other types of lessons learned about communications management.
All of the following are true about the project scope management plan EXCEPT:
A. It enables the creation of the WBS from the detailed project scope statement.
B. It describes how the scope will be defined, developed, monitored, controlled, and validated.
C. It can be formal or informal, broadly framed or highly detailed, based on the needs of the project.
D. It is not related to the project management plan.
Collect Requirements is the process of determining, documenting, and managing stakeholder needs and requirements to meet project objectives. All of the following are true about this process EXCEPT:
A. The project's success is directly influenced by active stakeholder involvement in the discovery and decomposition of needs into requirements and by the care taken in determining, documenting, and managing the requirements of the product, service, or result of the project.
B. Requirements become the foundation of the WBS, Cost, schedule, quality planning, and sometimes procurement are all based upon these requirements.
C. The development of requirements begins with an analysis of the information contained in the project charter, the risk register, and the stakeholder engagement plan.
D. Requirements need to be elicited, analyzed, and recorded in enough detail to be included in the scope baseline and to be measured once project execution begins.
You are involved in collecting requirements for your project. You are likely to use the stakeholder register for all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Identifying stakeholders who can provide information on the requirements.
B. Capturing major requirements that stakeholders may have for the project.
C. Capturing main expectations that stakeholders may have for the project.
D. Evaluating the product breakdown structure (PBS) associated with each of the key stakeholders.
You are developing a document that links product requirements from their origin to the deliverables that satisfy them to help ensure that each requirement adds business value and to manage changes to the product scope. This is known as the:
A. Configuration management system.
B. Business case.
C. New product development matrix.
D. Requirements traceability matrix.
An output of the Define Scope process is:
A. Work breakdown structure (WBS).
B. Resource breakdown structure (RBS).
C. Project scope statement.
D. Scope and schedule delays control plan.
All of the following are true about the project scope statement EXCEPT:
A. It is an output of the Validate Scope process.
B. It describes in detail, the project's deliverables and the work required to create those deliverables.
C. It provides a common understanding of the project scope among project stakeholders.
D. It may contain explicit scope exclusions that can assist in managing stakeholder expectations.
Which of the following statements is true about the work breakdown structure (WBS)?
A. The WBS is a hierarchical decomposition of the total scope of work to be carried out by the project team to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables.
B. The WBS is a simple list of project activities in chart form.
C. The WBS is the same as the organizational breakdown structure (OBS).
D. The WBS is the bill of materials (BOM) needed to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables.
The following is an example of a constraint associated with the project scope that limits the team's options in scope definition:
A. A predefined budget or any imposed dates or schedule milestones that are issued by the customer or performing organization.
B. The threat of a strike by a subcontractor.
C. Existing relationships with sellers, suppliers, or others in the supply chain.
D. The method used to measure project performance.
An input to the Define Scope process is:
A. The type of contract detail language.
B. Project charter.
C. Work breakdown structure (WBS).
D. Decomposition.
What is the WBS typically used for?
A. To organize and define the total scope of the project.
B. To identify the logical person to be project sponsor.
C. To define the level of reporting that the seller provides the buyer.
D. As a record of when work elements are assigned to individuals.
The following is true about the WBS:
A. The WBS is another term for the bar (Gantt) chart.
B. Each descending level of the WBS represents an increasingly detailed definition of the project work.
C. Work not in the WBS is usually defined in the scope statement of the project.
D. The WBS shows only the critical path activities.
Which of the following is true about the Validate Scope process?
A. It is the process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.
B. It is not necessary if the project completes on time and within budget.
C. It occurs primarily when revisions or changes are made to project scope.
D. Scope validation is primarily concerned with correctness of the deliverables, whereas quality control is primarily concerned with acceptance of the deliverables and meeting the quality requirements specified for the deliverables.
You are managing a global project that involves stakeholders in several international locations. You are likely to consult the WBS dictionary to find:
A. The language translation of technical terms used in the project.
B. Detailed deliverables, activity, and scheduling information about each component in the WBS.
C. Information relating the legal constraints of relevant
D. Strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) of key stakeholders and their impact on the WBS.
Which of the following is NOT an output of the Control Scope process?
A. Work performance information.
B. Change requests.
C. Project documents updates.
D. Accepted deliverables.
All of the following are true about the Control Scope process EXCEPT:
A. Control Scope is the process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline.
B. Control Scope is used to manage the actual changes when they occur and is integrated with the other control processes.
C. Scope changes can be avoided by developing clear and concise specifications and enforcing strict adherence to them.
D. Controlling the project scope ensues that all requested changes and recommended corrective or preventive actions are processed through the Perform Integrated Change Control process.
_________________ describe capabilities that are temporary and are no longer needed after the new product/service/result is ready.
A. Business requirements.
B. Solution requirements.
C. Quality requirements.
D. Transition requirements.
Agile scope planning is especially useful when:
A. Solution requirements are emerging all the time.
B. Quality requirements are not stable.
C. Business requirements are not stable.
D. Scope is well understood at the beginning.
In rolling wave planning:
A. Focus is maintained on long-term objectives, allowing near-term objectives to be rolled out as part of the ongoing wave of activities.
B. The work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, whereas the work in the future is planned at a higher level.
C. The work far in the future is planned in detail for work packages that are at a low level of the WBS.
D. A wave of detailed activities is planned during strategic planning to ensure that WBS deliverables and project milestones are achieved.
The precedence diagramming method (PDM) is:
A. A technique in which activities are represented by nodes and are graphically linked by one or more logical relationships to show the sequence in which the activities are to be performed.
B. A method that uses a probabilistic approach to scheduling project activities.
C. A time-phased graphical representation of the arrow diagramming method (ADM), and shows durations of project activities as well as their dependencies.
D. More accurate than the critical path method for scheduling when there are uncertainties about the durations of project activities.
The duration of the activity is affected by all of the following EXCEPT:
A. The estimated activity resource requirements.
B. The types of resources assigned to the activity.
C. The availability of the resources assigned to the activity.
D. Using the precedence diagramming method (PDM) for scheduling activities instead of using the critical path method (CPM).
A schedule compression technique used to shorten the schedule duration for the least incremental cost by adding resources is called:
A. Crashing.
B. Program evaluation and review technique (PERT).
C. Precedence diagramming method (PDM)..
D. Fast tracking.
The "fast tracking" method of schedule compression involves:
A. The use of industrial engineering techniques to improve productivity, thereby finishing the project earlier than originally planned.
B. Performing in parallel for at least a portion of their duration activities or phases that are normally done in sequence, which may result in rework and increased risk.
C. Going on a "mandatory overtime schedule" to a complete the project on schedule or earlier if possible.
D. Assigning "dedicated teams" to critical path activities to achieve project schedule objectives.
An example of a mandatory dependency is:
A. A dependency established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area.
B. A dependency established based on some unusual aspect of the project where a specific sequence is desired.
C. On a construction project, to erect the superstructure only after the foundation has been built.
D. On a software development project, to start design only after completion and approval of all project requirements.
Inputs to the Define Activities process are:
A. Schedule management plan, work breakdown structure, project schedule, and network diagram.
B. Project schedule, resource estimates, progress reports, and change requests.
C. Scope management plan, project network diagram, constraints, and assumptions.
D. Schedule management plan, scope baseline, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.
For project scheduling, bar charts show:
A. The level of effort for an activity.
B. Availability of resources assigned to perform project activities.
C. Activity start and end dates, as well as expected durations.
D. Relative priority of activities.
The precedence diagramming method (PDM) shows:
A. Various levels of the work breakdown structure.
B. Activities likely to be involved in project integration and resource allocation processes.
C. The logical relationships that exist between activities.
D. The project completion date based on normal resource availability.
The critical path is established by calculating the following dates:
A. Start-to-start, start-to-finish, finish-to-finish, finish-to-start.
B. Early start, early finish, late start, late finish.
C. Predecessor-to-successor, predecessor-to-predecessor, successor-to-successor.
D. Primary-to-secondary, primary-to-finish, secondary-to-secondary, finish-to-finish.
All of the following are true about resource leveling EXCEPT:
A. It can be used to keep resource usage at a constant level during certain time periods.
B. It can often cause the original critical path to change.
C. It is used to develop a resource-based WBS.
D. It is a resource optimization technique that can be used to adjust the schedule model due to demand and supply of resources.
As one of the tools and techniques of the Sequence Activities process, a lead:
A. Directs a delay in the successor activity.
B. Could be accomplished by a finish-to-start relationship with a delay time.
C. Means that the successor activity cannot start until after the predecessor is completed.
D. Is the amount of time whereby a successor activity can be started before the previous activity is completed.
Three-point estimating uses:
A. An optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely estimate to calculate the estimate.
B. The weighted average of optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely estimates to calculate the expected duration of the activity.
C. Dummy activities to represent logic links among three or more activities.
D. Free float instead of total float in the schedule calculations.
Analogous duration estimating is:
A. Frequently used to estimate project duration when there is a limited amount of detailed information about the project.
B. A bottom-up estimating technique.
C. Based on multiple duration estimating.
D. Generally more accurate than other duration estimating methods when expert judgement is used.
Consider the following three estimates for the duration of an activity:
Optimistic (tO) = 4 weeks
Most likely (tM) = 5 weeks
Pessimistic (tP) = 9 weeks
Using the beta distribution and the three-point estimating approach, the calculated Expected activity duration (tE) is:
A. 4.0 weeks.
B. 4.5 weeks.
C. 5.5 weeks.
D. 6.5 weeks.
Consider the following information about the duration of an activity:
Calculated expected (tE) = 5 weeks
Optimistic (tO) = 4 weeks
Pessimistic (tP) = 8 weeks
Using the beta distribution and the three-point estimating approach, the Most likely (tM) activity duration is:
A. 4.0 weeks.
B. 4.5 weeks.
C. 5.0 weeks.
D. 6.0 weeks.
Consider the following three estimates for the duration of an activity:
Optimistic (tO) = 6 weeks
Most likely (tM) = 9 weeks
Pessimistic (tP) = 15 weeks
Using the triangular distribution, the calculated Expected activity duration (tE) is:
A.10.0 weeks.
B. 10.5 weeks.
C. 11.5 weeks.
D. 12.0 weeks.
An activity in a project network has the following characteristics: ES = 5, EF = 10, and LF = 14. Therefore, LS = _____.
A. 9.0 weeks.
B. 10.0 weeks.
C. 11.0 weeks.
D. 12.0 weeks.
An activity in a network has the following characteristics: ES = 12, EF = 22, and LS = 14. ES and LS relate to the beginning of the week, whereas EF relates to the end of the week. The duration of the activity is:
A. 8.0 weeks.
B. 11.0 weeks.
C. 12.0 weeks.
D. 14.0 weeks.
"Crashing" in schedule management is:
A. A schedule compression technique used to shorten the schedule duration for the least incremental cost by adding resources.
B. A schedule compression technique in which phases or activities that are normally done in sequence are performed in parallel.
C. The timely input of data to calculate the critical path.
D. Equivalent to minimizing float in the project schedule network.
Consider the following schedule network that shows the activities in your project and their associated duration in days:
A. A-B-C.
B. A-B-D.
C. A-C-D.
D. A-B-C-D.
Consider the following schedule network that shows the activities in your project and their associated duration in days:
A. +4.
B. +2.
C. 0.
D. -2.
The Control Schedule process for a project:
A. Focuses on starting the project earlier than scheduled to help mitigate schedule risk and to achieve the approved schedule baseline.
B. Is the process of monitoring the status of the project to update the project schedule and managing changes to the schedule baseline.
C. Is concerned mainly with activities that are on the critical path.
D. Should focus primarily on activities that are difficult to carry out.
Project Cost Management includes all of the following processes EXCEPT:
Determine Costs
Control Cost
Level resources
Plan cost management
The cost management plan has all the following characteristic EXCEPT:
It is based on project cost estimates and is separate from the project cost estimate and is separate from the project management plan.
It may specify variance thresholds for monitoring cost performance to indicate an agreed-upon amount of variation to be allowed before some action needs to be taken.
It may specify the level of precision, which is the degree to which activity cost estimates will be rounded up or down.
It describes how the project costs will be planned, structured, and controlled.
All of the following are true about cost estimates EXCEPT:
Cost estimates are generally expressed in units of some currency (i.e., dollars, euro, yen, etc.), although in some instances other units of measure, such as staff hours or staff days, are used to facilitate comparisons by eliminating the effects of currency fluctuations.
Costs are estimated for all resources that will be charged to the project.
Information in the risk register should not be considered cost estimates, because risks can be either threats or opportunities and their impacts tend to balance out.
Cost estimates are quantitative assessments of the likely costs for resources required to complete project activities. Cost estimates may be presented at the activity level or summary form.
An activity cost estimate includes all of the following resource categories EXCEPT:
Labor
Materials
Equipment
Time shortages
Parametric estimating involves:
Defining cost or duration parameters of the project life cycle.
Calculating individual cost and duration estimates for each work package and integrating them to obtain the total cost or duration of the project.
Using a statistical relationship between relevant historical data and other variables to calculate an cost estimate for project work.
Using the actual cost or duration of a previous similar project to estimate the cost or duration of the current project.
Analogous cost estimating:
Integrates bottom-up estimating techniques with relevant statistical relationship to estimate the cost of the current project.
Relies on the actual cost of previous, similar projects as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project.
Is used most frequently in the later phases of a project.
Summarizes estimates for individual work packages to estimate the cost of the current project.
Which of following represents processes concerned with establishing and controlling the cost baseline?
Plan Resource Management and Control Costs
Estimate Costs, Develop Budget, and Adhere to Baseline
Determine Budget and Control Costs
Plan Resources Management, Cost Estimating, and Cost Control
The cost performance baseline has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:
It is an approved version of time-phased project budge, excluding any management reserves, and is used as a basis for comparison with actual results.
It shows the actual cost expenditures throughout the life of the project.
It is developed as a summation of the approved budgets by time period.
It is typically displayed in the form of an S-curve.
Project cost control includes all of the following EXCEPT:
Informing appropriate stakeholders of all approved changes and associated cost
Monitoring cost performance to isolate and understand variance from the approved cost baseline.
Influencing the factors that create changes to the authorized cost baseline.
Allocating the overall estimates to individual work packages to established a cost baseline.
You have been promoted to the position of project manager for a large project, due to the abrupt transfer of the previous project manager. On the first day in your new, exciting position, you find a folder on your desk entitled : Earned Value Management. In that folder, you find only the following chart related to your project with the Date Date of a few days ago:
The project is below budget and probably ahead of schedule.
The project is over budget and probably behind schedule.
The project is below budget but probably behind schedule.
The performance on this project compared to budget and schedule cannot be determined because this chart does . not show any values.
Cumulative data for questions 111-116
BAC = 200 PV = 100 AC = 120 EV = 80
Assuming that all future work will be performed at the
budgeted rate, the estimate at completion (EAC) is:
200.
220.
240.
260.
Cumulative data for questions 111-116
BAC = 200 PV = 100 AC = 120 EV = 80
Assuming that what the project has experienced to date can be expected to continue in the future, the estimate at completion (EAC) is:
300.
325.
350
375.
Cumulative data for questions 111-116
BAC = 200 PV = 100 AC = 120 EV = 80
Assuming that future work will be performed at an
efficiency rate that considers both the cost and schedule performance indices because project schedule is a factor that impacts future effort, the estimate at completion (EAC) is:
250.
300.
350.
345.
Cumulative data for questions 111-116
BAC = 200 PV = 100 AC = 120 EV = 80
Assuming that what the project has experienced to date
can be expected to continue in the future, the variance at completion (VAC) is:
—80.
—100.
+100.
+200.
Cumulative data for questions 111-116
BAC = 200 PV = 100 AC = 120 EV = 80
Assuming that all future work will be performed at the
budgeted rate, the estimate to complete (ETC) is:
120
140
180
200
Cumulative data for questions 111-116
BAC = 200 PV = 100 AC = 120 EV = 80
Your sponsor specifies that there is no additional money
in the budget for your project and asks you to complete the project at the original budget at completion (BAC). To achieve that goal, you and your team must complete the remaining work at the to-complete performance index (TCPI) of:
0.67
1.00
1.50
2.00
The estimate at completion (EAC) is typically based on:
The actual costs incurred for work completed (AC), and the
estimate to complete (ETC) the remaining work.
The actual costs incurred for work completed (AC) and the
cumulative cost performance index (CPI).
The earned value (EV) and the actual cost for work completed
(AC).
The cost performance index (CPI) and the cost variance (CV).
Your earned value management analysis indicates that
your project is falling behind its baseline schedule. You know this because the cumulative EV is much:
Higher than the cumulative AC.
Higher than the cumulative PV.
Lower than the cumulative PV.
Lower than the cumulative CPI
Which of the following cumulative measures indicates
that your project is about 9% under budget?
The cumulative AC was 100, and the cumulative EV was 110.
The cumulative PV was 100, and the cumulative AC was 110.
The cumulative AC was 110, and the cumulative EV was 100.
The cumulative EV was 100, and the cumulative PV was 110
Earned value management (EVM) is a commonly used:
Analysis of the value of the equipment that has been installed in the
project as of the status date.
Analysis of the sum of the labor costs that have been incurred on
the project to date.
Method of performance measurement for projects.
Method of measuring the amount of money that has been spent on
the project to date.
During the sixth monthly update on a 10-month, $300,000
project, analysis of the earned value management data
shows that the cumulative PV is $190,000, the cumulative AC is $120,000, and the cumulative EV is $150,000. In planning its action, the project management team can conclude all of the following from these measures EXCEPT:
Less has been accomplished than was planned.
Less has been spent than was planned.
Continuing performance at the same efficiency with no
management intervention, the project will probably be completed behind schedule and under budget.
Continuing performance at the same efficiency with no
management intervention, the project will probably be completed ahead of schedule and over budget.
In earned value management, the cost variance is equal to:
EV minus PV.
EV minus AC.
AC minus EV.
PV minus EV.
Earned value (EV) involves all of the following EXCEPT:
Value of the work performed expressed in terms of the budget
authorized for that work.
Actual cost for an activity or work breakdown structure (WBS)
component.
Progress measurement criteria, which should be established for
each WBS component to measure work in progress.
Budget associated with the authorized work that has been
completed.
If cumulative PV = 100, cumulative EV = 98, and
cumulative AC = 104, the project is likely to be:
Ahead of schedule.
Headed for a cost overrun.
Operating at project cost projections.
Under budget at completion.
Cumulative data for questions 125-126:
Item PV AC EV
1 10,000 11,000 10,000
2 9,000 8,000 7,000
3 8,000 8,000 8,000
4 7,000 7,000 5,000
Which item is MOST over budget?
Item 1.
Item 2
Item 3
Item 4
Which item has the LOWEST SPI?
Item 1
Item 2
Item 3
Item 4
Project Quality Management includes the processes for
incorporating the organization's quality policy regarding planning, managing, and controlling project and product quality requirements in order to:
Meet stakeholders' objectives.
Improve process capability
Control products, services, and results.
Meet standards of performance for the project team.
Quality and grade are not the same. A fundamental
distinction is that:
Quality as a delivered performance or result is the degree to which
a set of inherent characteristics fulfills requirements; grade as a
design intent is a category assigned to deliverables having the same functional use but different technical characteristics.
A quality level that fails to meet quality requirements may not be a
problem; a low grade of quality is always a problem.
Delivering the required levels of quality is not included in the
responsibilities of the project manager and the project team.
Delivering the required levels of grade is not included in the
responsibilities of the project manager and the project team.
Understanding, evaluating, defining, and managing
requirements are essential to satisfying:
Customer expectations.
The scope statement.
Upper management.
Functional requirements.
All of the following are primary benefits of meeting quality requirements EXCEPT:
Less rework.
Higher productivity.
Lower costs.
Fewer change orders.
Inputs to control quality include all of the following
EXCEPT:
Project management plan.
Quality metrics
Work performance data.
PERT chart
The quality management plan is a component of the, which describes how the organization's quality policies will be implemented.
Project management plan
Program management plan
Project scope
Governance management plan
Manage quality is the process of:
Applying planned, systematic quality activities to ensure effective
policing and conformance of the project team to the approved
specifications.
Providing the project team and stakeholders with standards by
which project performance is measured.
Translating the quality management plan into executable quality
activities that incorporate the organization's quality policies into the project.
Assuring the implementation of appropriate specifications, which
generally reduces the probability of the project being completed on
schedule.
Cost of quality includes all of the following EXCEPT:
Preventing nonconformance to requirements.
Appraising the product or service for conformance to requirements.
Failing to meet requirements (rework).
Operating computers required for the project.
Because of the temporary nature of projects and the
potential benefits that may be derived from reducing the
post-project cost of quality, may choose to invest
in product quality improvement, especially in the areas of prevention and appraisal:
Sponsoring organizations
The project management team
The project executive management team
The project quality function deployment (QFD) organization
Control charts have all of the following characteristics
EXCEPT:
They are used to determine whether or not a process is stable or has predictable performance.
They can be used to monitor various types of output variables.
They are used to illustrate how various factors might be linked to
potential problems or effects.
They are graphical displays of process data over time and against
established control limits, which has a centerline that assists in
detecting a trend of plotted values toward either control limit.
In relation to control charts, what are the upper and
lower specification limits based on?
The requirements, reflecting the maximum and minimum values
allowed.
The control limits.
The specifications, reflecting the maximum and minimum values
allowed.
The requirements and control limits.
___________________ is the process of auditing the quality
requirements and the results from quality control measurements to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used.
Plan quality management
Manage quality
Control quality
Plan quality assurance
In using cost-benefit analysis in the Plan Quality
Management process, it can be noted that:
The primary benefit of meeting quality requirements is the reduced
cost associated with project quality management activities.
The primary benefits of meeting quality requirements include less
rework, higher productivity, lower costs, increased stakeholder
satisfaction, and increased profitability.
The primary cost of meeting quality requirements is the increased
rework to ensure stakeholder satisfaction.
Quality cost cannot be evaluated in relationship to the expected
benefit of quality in a given project.
Benchmarking involves comparing actual or planned
project practices to those of comparable projects with all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:
To identify best practices and generate ideas for improvement
To provide a basis for measuring performance.
Within the performing organization or outside of it.
Within the same application area but not in a different application
area.
The basis for continuous quality improvement is the:
Plan-do-check-act (PDCA) cycle as defined by Shewhart and
modified by Deming.
Process decision program chart (PDPC).
Ready-aim-fire (RAF) cycle linked by results.
Conceptualize-design-execute-finish (CDEF) cycle.
All of the following are true about affinity diagrams
EXCEPT:
They are used to identify the key issues and the suitable alternatives to be prioritized as a set of decisions for implementation.
They are similar to mind-mapping techniques
They are used to generate ideas that can be linked to form
organized patterns of thought about a problem.
They can be used in project management to give structure to the
decomposition of scope and enhance the creation of the WBS.
All of the following are considerations for tailoring in
Project Quality Management EXCEPT:
Standards are regulatory compliance.
. Policy compliance and auditing.
Continuous improvement.
Stakeholder management.
Planning quality management to identify quality
requirements and/or standards for the project and its
deliverables and documenting how the project will
demonstrate compliance with quality requirements is part of the:
A. Conceptual phase.
B. Planning Process Group.
C. Project implementation phase.
D. Control Quality process.
The major processes of Project Resource Management
are:
A. Leadership, Management, Team Building, and Negotiation.
B. Develop Project Staffing Plan, Recruit Project Team, Administer
Personnel Actions, and Manage Labor Relations.
C. Plan Organizational Structure, Build Project Team, Develop
Communications Plan, and Manage Team Conflicts.
D. Plan Resource Management, Estimate Activity Resources, Acquire Resources, Develop Team, Manage Team, and Control Resources.
The Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) is:
A. Used for development of the project budget and network diagrams
B. Developed at the activity level and used to closely link project roles and responsibilities to project network activities.
C. Used to illustrate the connections between work packages or
activities and project team members. It ensures that there is only one person accountable for any one task to avoid confusion of responsibility
D. Used to identify accountabilities and responsibilities in individual
performance appraisals of project team members.
Plan Resource Management should generally include all
of the following EXCEPT:
A. Roles and responsibilities.
B. Identification of resources.
C. Acquiring resources.
D. Project interfaces.
Questions that arise when planning the acquisition of
team members generally include all of the following EXCEPT:
The costs associated with each level of expertise needed for the project.
The compensation of senior executives
The level of assistance that the organization's human resource department and functional managers are able to provide to the project management team.
Whether the resources come from within the organization or from external, contracted sources.
Acquire resources is the process of confirming resource
availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities. The enterprise environmental factors that can influence this process generally include all of the following EXCEPT:
Organizational structure.
Political philosophy
Competency levels, prior experience, and cost rate.
Personnel administration policies, such as those that affect
outsourcing.
It is important that the resource management plan
addresses how team members will be released when they are no longer needed on the project for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:
A. To reduce project costs
B. To improve morale when smooth transitions to upcoming projects are already planned.
C. To optimize the utilization of human and material resources.
D. To help mitigate resource risks that may occur during or at the end of a project.
To be effective, recognition and rewards systems should
have the following characteristics EXCEPT:
Clear criteria for rewards and a planned system for their use to help promote and reinforce desired behaviors.
Being based on activities and performance under a person's control.
Cultural differences should be considered when determining
recognition and rewards
The required performance for rewards should be made
unachievable for most team members, to ensure that all team members strive for excellence throughout the project.
Tools and techniques to acquire resources include all of
the following EXCEPT:
A. Decision making.
B. Acquisition.
C. Interpersonal and team skills.
D. Pre-assignment.
All of the following are true about conflict management
EXCEPT:
A. It is inevitable in a project environment and should be addressed
early.
B. It should usually be addressed in private.
C. It should be addressed only when it becomes disruptive, and at an official team meeting.
D. It should be addressed using a direct, collaborative approach.
Team building has all of the following characteristics
EXCEPT:
A. Team-building activities can vary from a five-minute agenda item
in a status review meeting to an off-site, professionally facilitated
experience designed to improve interpersonal relationships.
B. Team building should be primarily considered after major conflicts within the project team, because they generally waste precious resource time and cause schedule delays
C. Team-building strategies are particularly valuable when team
members operate from remote locations without the benefit of face-
to-face contact.
D. Team building is essential during the front end of a project and is
an ongoing process. To effectively manage inevitable changes in
the project environment, a continued or renewed team-building
effort is required.
Training has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:
A. It includes all activities designed to enhance the competencies of
the project team members
B. It can be formal or informal. Examples of training methods include classroom, online, computer-based, on-the-job training from
another project team member, mentoring, and coaching.
C. If project team members lack necessary management or technical skills, the project should be deemed outside the core competencies of the performing organization, outsourced, or abandoned
D. If project team members lack the necessary management or
technical skills, such skills can be developed as part of the project work.
156. Effective team development strategies and activities are expected to increase the team's performance, which
increases the likelihood of meeting project objectives. The
evaluation of a team's effectiveness may include all of the
following indicators EXCEPT:
A. Improvements in skills that allow individuals to perform
assignments more effectively.
B. Improvements in competencies that help the team perform better as a unit.
C. Improvements in the overall project performance as a result of
increased intensity of conflict among project team members
D. Reduced staff turnover rate.
Generally acknowledged techniques for resolving conflict
include:
A. Smooth, compromise, collaborate, and co-locating.
B. Accept, compromise, attack, and separate.
C. Accommodate, compromise, force, and collaborate.
D. Withdraw, force, elaborate, and provide sensitivity training.
Managing and leading the project team includes:
A. The process of tracking team member performance, providing
feedback, resolving issues, and optimizing project performance.
B. Subscribing to the code of professional conduct, but does not
involve ensuring that all team members follow professional and ethical behaviors.
C. Influencing the project team to achieve the triple constraints of the project. However, professional and ethical behaviors of project
team members are outside the domain of the project management
team.
D. Instructing the project team to avoid being caught in repetitive
violations of the norms of professional and ethical behaviors
specified by the performing organization
Team development stages include:
A. Starting, Organizing, Preparing, Executing, and Closing
B. Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, and Adjourning
C. Acquiring, Managing, Leading, Decision Making, and Releasing
D. Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and
Closing.
All of the following choices represent inputs to the
Estimate Activity Resources process EXCEPT:
A. Activity list.
B. Enterprise environmental factors.
C. The deliverable-oriented WBS of a previous, similar project
D. Resource management plan
Outputs from the Estimate Activity Resources process
include:
A. Job descriptions of resources required for the project.
B. Salary schedules for various project resources
C. Identification of the types and quantities of resources required for each activity in a work package.
D. Analogous estimates of resource requirements for each work
package and each work period.
Team building has all of the following characteristics
EXCEPT:
A. It is the process of helping a group of individuals to build a
collaborative and cooperative working environment.
B. It requires handling project team problems decisively and removing the individual(s) responsible for these problems from the team promptly to ensure a productive, smooth project environment.
C. It can help individual team members work together effectively
D. It can be particularly valuable when team members operate from
remote locations without the benefit of face-to-face contact.
Motivating involves creating an environment to meet
project objectives while providing satisfaction related to
what people value most. All of the following are reasons of motivation EXCEPT:
A. Encouraging someone to act
B. Participating in decision making.
C. Providing accurate criticism in the annual performance review or
after the project is completed.
D. Encouraging people to work independently
The major processes of Project Communications
Management are:
A. Plan Communications Management, Manage Communications, and Monitor Communications.
B. Plan Communications Management, Develop Responses, Report Progress, and Distribute Information.
C. Plan Communications, Distribute Information, and Schedule
Reporting
D. Distribute Information, Report Changes, Update Project
Documents, and Accept Project Deliverables.
Inputs to the Plan Communications Management process
include:
A. Project management plan, project documents, enterprise
environmental factors, and organizational process assets.
B. Stakeholder requirements, project scope statement, project budget, and project schedule.
C. Organizational structure, stakeholder analysis, project management plan, and communications barriers.
D. Stakeholder management strategy, RAM, WBS, and administrative procedures.
The communications management plan usually contains
all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Information to be communicated, including language, format,
content, and level of detail.
B. Time frame and frequency for the distribution of required
information and receipt of acknowledgment or response, if
applicable.
C. Methods or technologies used to convey the information, such as memos, email, and/or press releases.
D. Email archives, correspondence, reports, and documents related to
Hard-copy document management, electronic
communications management, and web interfaces to scheduling and project management software are examples of:
A. Project management information systems (PMIS).
B. Internal communications systems (ICS).
C. Internal management systems (IMS).
D. Project records databases.
Factors that can affect the choice of communication
technology generally include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Urgency of the need for information.
B. Availability of technology.
C. Executive requirements.
D. Sensitivity and confidentiality of the information
As part of the communications model, the sender is
responsible for:
A. Ensuring that the receiver agrees with the message.
B. Confirming that the communication is correctly understood.
C. Presenting the information in the most favorable manner.
D. Decoding the medium correctly.
As part of the communications model, the receiver is
responsible for:
A. Agreeing with the sender's message.
B. Pretending that the message is received only partially, to encourage further discussions.
C. Ensuring that the information is received in its entirety, understood correctly, and acknowledged or responded to appropriately.
D. Specifying that a verbal message does not give insight to problem areas, and requiring that the message be reduced to writing to avoid potential confusion.
Sources of information typically used to identify and
define project communication requirements include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Project organization and stakeholder responsibility relationships
B. Disciplines, departments, and specialties involved in the project.
C. Logistics of how many persons will be involved with the project
and at which locations.
D. Availability of the project sponsor at the project location.
Communication activities have many potential
dimensions that generally include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Written, oral, and nonverbal.
B. Internal and external.
C. Conceptual and definitive.
D. Formal and informal.
All of the following are information management and
distribution tools EXCEPT:
A. Hard-copy document management.
B. Electronic communications management.
C. Inputting project performance data into a spreadsheet or database.
D. Electronic project management tools.
Techniques and considerations for effective
communications management generally include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Meeting management techniques, such as preparing an agenda and dealing with conflicts.
B. Conflict management for building consensus and overcoming
obstacles.
C. Listening techniques, such as listening actively and removal of
barriers that adversely affect comprehension.
D. Providing a more comfortable environment in project conference
rooms to strengthen project team cohesion.
Monitor Communications is the process of:
A. Ensuring that information is provided on a need-to-know basis only to avoid unnecessary confusion and possible conflicts.
B. Ensuring that the information needs of the project stakeholders are met throughout the entire project life cycle.
C. Providing all project information to all project stakeholders to
enhance full buy-in regarding project requirements.
D. Securing and guarding any negative information related to project performance throughout the entire project life cycle to ensure that the project team can continue working on the project with minimal disruption.
The key processes of Project Risk Management are:
A. Plan Risk Management, Identify Risks, Assess Risks, Mitigate
Risks, Transfer Risks, and Document Outcomes.
B. Identify Risks, Plan Risk Management, Evaluate Risks, Develop
Risk Responses, Mitigate Risks, and Document Results.
C. Identify Risks, Perform Qualitative Risk Validation, Perform
Quantitative Impact Assessment, Develop Risk Response
Strategies, Document Response Strategies, and Monitor Risk
Responses
D. Plan Risk Management, Identify Risks, Perform Qualitative Risk
Analysis, Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis, Plan Risk
Responses, Implement Risk Responses, and Monitor Risks.
Strategies typically used to deal with threats or risks that
may have negative impacts on project objectives if they occur include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Interpreting.
B. Avoiding.
C. Transferring
D. Mitigating.
Risk transference nearly always involves:
A. Eliminating risk through beta testing.
B. Policies and procedures for a response system.
C. Accepting a lower profit if some activities overrun their budget.
D. Payment of a risk premium to the party taking on the risk.
In the Plan Risk Responses process, an accept strategy for
a negative risk or threat indicates that the project team has decided:
A. To agree with the project manager.
B. To eliminate a specific risk or threat, to reduce the probability
and/or impact of an adverse risk event to be within acceptable
threshold limits, or to pursue an opportunity actively.
C. Not to change the project management plan to deal with a risk, or it is unable to identify any other suitable response strategy.
D. To purchase insurance, or to require performance bonds,
warranties, and guarantees.
The primary output of the Identify Risks process is the:
A. Risk register.
B. Expected monetary value of the risk events.
C. List of corrective actions.
D. Risk mitigation plan.
A thorough analysis of the_____________ will help
identify potential risks to the project.
A. Risk identification checklist based on historical information and
knowledge
B. Project's change control system
C. Project's mission statement
D. Project's schedule and budget
All of the following are inputs to the Identify Risks
process EXCEPT:
A. Risk management plan.
B. Scope baseline.
C. Risk mitigation plan
D. Quality management plan.
Outputs from the Plan Risk Responses process include all
of the following EXCEPT:
A. Change requests.
B. Corrective actions.
C. Project documents updates.
D. Project management plan updates.
Tools and techniques of the Perform Quantitative Risk
Analysis process include:
A. Contracting, contingency planning, alternative strategies, and
insurance.
B. Interviewing, historical results, workarounds, and response
development
C. Checklists, damage control reports, standard allowances, and
inspection.
D. Expert judgment, data gathering, simulations, and decision tree
analysis.
As an output of the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
process, the risk register is updated. These updates generally include:
A. Prioritized list of quantified risks.
B. Qualitative analysis of the threats to ignore and opportunities to
accept.
C. Checklists, corrective actions, and qualified decision trees.
D. Direction, resources, and contingency costs.
A risk impact assessment to investigate the potential
effect on a project objective such as schedule, cost,
quality, or performance has the following characteristics EXCEPT:
A. Evaluation of each risk can be conducted using a probability and
impact matrix that leads to rating the risks as low, moderate, or high priority.
B. Approaches used in evaluating risk impacts related to project
objectives could be relative, numerical, or nonlinear.
C. Usually, risk-rating rules are specified by the organization in. advance of the project and can be tailored to the specific project.
D. The impact on project objectives should be assessed primarily at the end of the project, as part of the lessons learned.
The outputs from the Monitor Risks process include all of
the following EXCEPT:
A. Project documents updates.
B. Work breakdown structure (WBS).
C. Change requests.
D. Project management plan updates.
The risk rating:
A. Is calculated by multiplying the probability of the occurrence of a
risk times its impact (numerical scale) on an objective (e.g., cost,
time, scope, or quality) if it were to occur.
B. Is the sum of squares of the scale values assigned to the estimates of probability and impact.
C. Cannot be used to determine whether a risk is considered low,
moderate, or high.
D. Is a commonly used technique for risk avoidance.
Which one of the following choices is the BEST
description of sensitivity analysis?
A. It examines the extent to which the uncertainty of project objectives affects each project element simultaneously.
B. It examines the extent to which the uncertainty of each project
element affects the objective being studied when all other uncertain elements are held at their baseline values.
C. It is a method for assessing stakeholders' tolerance to risk.
D. It cannot be used to determine which risks have the most potential impact on the project.
All of the following are characteristics of a decision tree
EXCEPT:
A. A decision tree is a diagramming and calculation technique for
evaluating the implications of a chain of multiple options in the
presence of uncertainty.
B. Decision tree analysis is a risk analysis tool that can be used to
choose the most appropriate responses.
C. A decision tree is primarily a graphical, qualitative risk analysis
technique and is not generally used in quantitative risk analysis.
D. Decision tree analysis uses the expected monetary value (EMV)
analysis to calculate the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen.
The risk management plan generally includes all of the
following EXCEPT:
A. Methodology.
B. Risk strategy.
C. Responses to individual risks.
D. Risk categories
The Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process assesses
the priority of identified risks using all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Relative probability or likelihood of occurrence of identified risks.
B. Impact on project objectives if the identified risks occur.
C. A mathematical technique, such as the expected monetary value
(EMV), to create the impression of precision and accuracy.
D. The organization's risk tolerance associated with the project
constraints of cost, schedule, scope, and quality
As an output of the Monitor Risks process, an updated
risk register generally includes some or all of the following EXCEPT:
A. The work breakdown structure (WBS).
B. Outcomes of risk reassessments, risk audits, and periodic risk
reviews.
C. Identification of new risks, updates to probability, impact, priority,
response plans, ownership, and other elements of the risk register.
D. Actual outcomes of the project's risks and of the risk responses.
SWOT analysis has all of the following characteristics
EXCEPT:
A. It is a technique that examines the project from each of the
strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT)
perspectives to increase the breadth of identified risks by including internally generated risks.
B. It identifies strengths and weaknesses of the organization,
regardless of the specific project or the general business area.
C. It identifies any opportunities for the project that arise from
organizational strengths, and any threats arising from organizational weaknesses.
D. It examines the degree to which organizational strengths offset
threats, as well as identifies opportunities that may serve to
overcome weaknesses.
195. All of the following are inputs to the Implement Risk
Response process EXCEPT:
A. Project documents.
B. Project risk management plan.
C. Organizational project assets.
D. Expert judgment.
All of the following are inputs to the Plan Procurement
Management process EXCEPT:
A. Risk register.
B. Stakeholder register.
C. Procurement strategy.
D. Enterprise environmental factors.
Generally, a bid differs from a proposal in that the term:
A. Bid is used when the seller selection decision will be based on price.
A. Bid is used when the seller selection decision will be based on price.
B. Bid is used when technical capability or technical approach are
paramount.
C. Proposal is used when the selection decision will be based on price.
D. Proposal is used when the project time frame is limited.
D. Proposal is used when the project time frame is limited.
The buyer structures procurement documents, which
include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Procurement statement of work.
B. Bid documents.
C. Source selection criteria and independent cost estimates.
D. Control procurement documents.
Approved change requests can generally include all of the
following EXCEPT:
A. Modifications to the terms and conditions of the contract.
B. Modification to pricing.
C. Seller invoices.
D. Modification to descriptions of the products, services, or results to
be provided.
Which of the following is FALSE about advertising as one
of the tools and techniques of the Conduct Procurements process?
A. Some government jurisdictions require public advertising of certain types of procurement items.
B. Advertisements in general circulation publications and using online resources can cause public pressure, resulting in bid disputes.
C. Advertising can often be used to expand existing lists of potential
sellers.
D. Advertisements can be placed in general circulation publications
such as selected newspapers or in specialty trade publications.
The buyer, usually through its authorized procurement
administrator, provides the seller with as an
output of the Control Procurement process.
A. Formal written notice that the contract has been completed
B. Letters of commendation to all project team members
C. Informal notice of acceptance of the deliverables
D. A copy of the internal notice of completion provided to senior
management
In which type of contracts do buyers need to precisely
specify the product or services being procured?
A. Cost plus award fee contracts.
B. Fixed-price contracts.
C. Cost-reimbursable contracts.
D. Partnership contracts.
Which of the following is one of the terms used to describe
contested changes and potential constructive changes
where the buyer and seller cannot reach an agreement on compensation for the change or cannot agree that a change has occurred?
A. Forcing.
B. Mediation.
C. Complaints.
D. Claims.
Constructive changes are:
A. Postponed as long as possible to protect the budget.
B. Viewed as negative, quantified, and tabulated.
C. Uniquely identified and documented by project correspondence.
D. Submitted for bids to the relevant vendor list.
All legal contractual relationships generally fall into one
of the following broad categories EXCEPT:
A. Request for proposal (RFP).
B. Fixed-price contracts.
C. Cost-reimbursable contracts.
D. Time and material contracts (T&M).
All of the following are true about the statement of work
(SOW) for a procurement EXCEPT:
A. It describes the procurement item in sufficient detail to allow
prospective sellers to determine if they are capable of providing the products, services, or results.
B. It should be as ambiguous, incomplete, and wordy as possible to
allow for future negotiations.
C. It can include specifications, quantity desired, quality levels,
performance data, period of performance, work location, and other requirements.
D. It can be revised and refined as required as it moves through the
procurement process until incorporated into a signed agreement.
Source selection criteria are developed and used to rate or
score seller proposals. These criteria generally have all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:
A. They are often included as a part of the procurement documents.
B. They can be objective or subjective.
C. They may be limited to only the purchase price if the procurement item is readily available from a number of acceptable sellers.
D. They generally require specification of the name of the
transportation organization responsible for delivery of procured products.
All of the following are tools and techniques of the
Conduct Procurements process EXCEPT:
A. Interpersonal and team skills.
B. Bidder conferences.
C. Expert judgment.
D. Proposal evaluation techniques.
Cost plus fixed-fee contracts (CPFF) have all of the
following characteristics EXCEPT:
A. Seller is reimbursed for all allowable costs for performing the
contract work.
B. Seller receives a fixed-fee payment calculated as a percentage of the actual project costs.
C. Seller receives a fixed-fee payment calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated project costs.
D. The fee is paid only for completed work and does not change due to seller performance unless the project scope changes.
This type of analysis results in a decision as to whether
particular work can best be accomplished by the project team or needs to be purchased from outside sources.
A. Source-selection analysis.
B. Regulations analysis.
C. Make-or-buy analysis.
D. Data-gathering analysis.
In many projects, negotiation is:
A. Primarily the concern of contract administration.
B. A discussion aimed at reaching an agreement.
C. A direct result of ineffective decision making.
D. Conducted by senior executives to increase the probability of
project success.
Stakeholders are:
A. The project engineers who design and construct the project.
B. The people, groups, or organizations that could impact or be
impacted by a decision, activity, or outcome of the project.
C. The organization's corporate attorneys.
D. The individuals or agencies that control contingency funds and their disbursement through the project management office (PMO).
Which of the following is NOT a process in Project
Stakeholder Management?
A. Identify Stakeholders.
B. Control Stakeholder Engagement.
C. Monitor Stakeholder Engagement.
D. Manage Stakeholder Engagement.
To increase the chances of achieving project success, the
project manager should do all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Identify the stakeholders early in the project or phase.
B. Analyze the stakeholders' levels of interest and individual
expectations as well as their importance and influence.
C. As much as possible, create conflicts among various stakeholders to allow the project team to get optimal work done.
D. Communicate and work with stakeholders to meet their
needs/expectations.
You are developing management strategies to effectively
engage stakeholders throughout the project life cycle, based on the analysis of their needs, interests, and potential impact on project success. This is known as:
A. Manage Stakeholder Engagement.
B. Monitor Stakeholder Engagement.
C. Plan Stakeholder Engagement.
D. Plan Stakeholder Management
You are involved in the process of communicating and
working with stakeholders to meet their
needs/expectations, address issues as they occur, and
foster appropriate stakeholder engagement in project
activities throughout the project life cycle. This is known as:
A. Manage Stakeholder Engagement.
B. Monitor Stakeholder Engagement.
C. Plan Stakeholder Management.
D. Plan Stakeholder Engagement.
You are monitoring overall project stakeholder
relationships and adjusting strategies and plans for engaging stakeholders. This is known as:
A. Manage Stakeholder Engagement.
B. Plan Stakeholder Engagement.
C. Stakeholders' Relationship Engagement.
D. Monitor Stakeholder Engagement.
You are using a classification model for stakeholders'
analysis that groups the stakeholders based on their level of authority and their level or concern regarding the
project outcomes. This is known as:
A. Power/influence grid.
B. Influence/impact grid.
C. Power/interest grid.
D. Salience model.
In developing a stakeholder register, you need to include
all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Identification information.
B. Assessment information.
C. Stakeholder classification.
D. Project risk information.
Classification of the engagement levels of stakeholders
includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Resistant.
B. Neutral.
C. Supportive.
D. Manipulative.
Manage Stakeholder Engagement involves all of the
following activities EXCEPT:
A. Clarifying and resolving issues that have been identified.
B. Avoiding potential concerns that have not yet become issues.
C. Anticipating future problems that may be raised by stakeholders.
D. Managing stakeholders' expectations through negotiation and
communication.
All of the following statements about Manage Stakeholder
Engagement are true EXCEPT:
A. Managing stakeholder engagement helps increase the probability of project success.
B. The ability of stakeholders to influence the project is typically
highest during the initial stages and gets progressively lower as the project progresses.
C. The ability of stakeholders to influence the project is typically
lowest during the initial stages and gets progressively higher as the project progresses.
D. The project manager is responsible for engaging and managing the various stakeholders in a project and may call upon the project sponsor to assist as needed.
Monitor Stakeholder Engagement tools and techniques
include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Decision making.
B. Stakeholder analysis.
C. Meetings.
D. Issue log.
The power/interest grid classification model for
stakeholders' analysis suggests:
A. Keeping high-power/high-interest stakeholders informed.
B. Keeping high-power/low-interest stakeholders satisfied.
C. Monitoring low-power/high-interest stakeholders.
D. Managing low-power/low-interest stakeholders closely.
During a public hearing regarding your company's
proposed state-of-the-art water tower, a highly interested resident of the area challenges you: "Would you have this thing built in your own backyard?" Your best answer can begin by saying:
A. Given that you are not listed in the stakeholders' register, I cannot take your concerns seriously.
B. I am sorry that you appear to dislike having this water tower as your neighbor. We will look for another location for it.
C. Given that the experts provided ample information that the proposed location is the most suitable, I would be pleased to have this state-of-the-art water tower as a neighbor.
D. If you want to have usable water pressure in your residence, you should not interfere with our work.
Examples of interpersonal skills that a project manager
uses most often include all of the following indicators EXCEPT:
A. Leadership.
B. Influencing.
C. Governance.
D. Effective decision making.