wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Final Exam Review

Total questions: 208

Worksheet time: 3hrs 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
How many daughter cells are produced as a result of mitosis?
a)
2
b)
1
c)
4
d)
46
2.
How do the daughter cells produced during mitosis compare to the parent (original) cell?
a)
They are identical
b)
They are different
c)
They only have 1/2 of the DNA
3.
Two chromosomes that yo inherit form your parents (one from your mother, and one from your father) are called...
a)
homologous chromosomes
b)
sister chromatids
c)
sex chromosomes
d)
homozygous alleles
4.
True or false?
Homologous chromosomes are COMPLETELY identical.
a)
False
b)
True
5.
The process by which sperm and eggs are produced is called...
a)
crossing over
b)
haplogenesis
c)
mitosis
d)
meiosis
6.
Which of the following cell types is diploid?
a)
Ovum
b)
sex cell
c)
somatic cell
d)
gamete
7.
Which of the following cell types is haploid?
a)
egg
b)
brain
c)
skin
d)
blood
8.
Gametes are _________ so that fertilization (joining of 2 gametes) occurs, the resulting organism will have the characteristic number of chromosomes for that species.
a)
diploid
b)
haploid
c)
polyploid
d)
somatic
9.
Uncontrolled cell growth is classified as...
a)
cancer
b)
apoptosis
c)
crossing over
d)
nondisjunction
10.
During which of the following stages of the cell cycle does the cytoplasm of a cell divide?
a)
Gap 1
b)
Synthesis
c)
Gap 2
d)
Mitosis
11.
Why do the cells lining the stomach divide more quickly than those in the liver?
a)
They are much smaller cells
b)
They have fewer chromosomes
c)
They need much more surface area
d)
They undergo more wear and tear
12.
In which stage of the cell cycle do the nucleus and its contents divide?
a)
Synthesis
b)
Gap 1
c)
Mitosis
d)
Gap 2
13.
Which of the following phrases best describes cytokinesis?
a)
division of the cytoplasm
b)
division of the nucleus
c)
division of the DNA
d)
Division of surface area
14.
The process of mitosis and cytokinesis produce 2 identical
a)
daughter cells
b)
strands
c)
chromosomes
d)
chromatids
15.
During which phase of mitosis do sister chromatids separate from each other?
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
16.
Which of the following is true of cytokinesis
a)
takes place in plant cell sonly
b)
completes the cell cycle
c)
organizes DNA
d)
occurs during prophase
17.
Which best phrase describes cancer?
a)
absence of cyclins
b)
multiple gene mutations
c)
uncontrolled cell growth
d)
presence of genetic defects
18.
The tendency for genes located close together on the same chromosome to be inherited together is called...
a)
nondisjunction
b)
genetic linkage
c)
crossing over
d)
recombination
19.
The exchange of chromosome segments between homologous chromosomes during prophase I of meiosis is called...
a)
crossing over
b)
recombination
c)
nondisjunction
d)
genetic linkage
20.
A kidney cell is an example of which type of cell?
a)
sex cell
b)
germ cell
c)
somatic cell
d)
haploid cell
21.
How many chromosomes are in a human gamete?
a)
46
b)
23
c)
22
d)
44
22.
How many chromosomes are in a human muscle cell?
a)
23
b)
46
c)
22
d)
44
23.
Which of the following best describes the genetic material a person receives form his or her father?
a)
22 pairs of homologous chromosomes, and an X & Y chromosome
b)
22 haploid cells, and an X or a Y chromosome
c)
23 diploid cells and an X & Y chromosome
d)
22 autosomes and an X or Y chromosome
24.
Which phrase best describes the process of meiosis?
a)
occurs in body cells
b)
results in genetically identical cells
c)
happens only in haploid cells
d)
produces haploid gametes
25.
Which phrase best describes the process of mitosis?
a)
occurs in sex cells
b)
results in genetically unique cells
c)
produces diploid cells
d)
has 2 divisions of the cell
26.
Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have ...
a)
16 chromosomes.
b)
46 chromosomes.
c)
8 chromosomes.
d)
4 chromosomes.
27.
Structure (b) is a ____.
a)
chromosome
b)
chromatid
c)
centromere
28.
Structure (a) is a ____.
a)
chromosome
b)
chromatid
c)
centromere
29.
Structure (c) is a ____.
a)
chromosome
b)
chromatid
c)
centromere
30.
Name the phase of mitosis:
a)
Anaphase
b)
Telophase
c)
Metaphase
d)
Prophase
31.
Name the phase of mitosis:
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
32.
Name the phase of mitosis:
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
33.
The stages of mitosis in order
a)
Metaphase, Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase
b)
Prophase, Anaphase, Metaphase, Telophase
c)
Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
d)
Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase, Metaphase
34.
True or False?
A chromosome is a single, long DNA molecule in a compact formation.
a)
True
b)
False
35.
Cells of a multicellular organism must replicate for...?
a)
growth
b)
repair of damaged cells
c)
replacement of dying cells.
d)
All of the above
36.
Asexual reproduction will result in...
a)
Identical offspring to the parent
b)
Twins
c)
Meiosis
d)
Non-identical offspring to the parent
37.
What kind of cells are made in MEIOSIS?
a)
Haploid cells
b)
Diploid Cells
c)
Skin Cells
d)
Liver Cells
38.
If the Diploid number of Carrots is 18, the haploid number is
a)
18
b)
9
c)
27
d)
36
39.
The process of crossing over occurs in what phase of meiosis?
a)
anaphase I
b)
prophase I
c)
prophase 2
d)
telophase I
40.
The chromosomes that pair up during prophase I ofmeiosis, are called __________ chromosomes.  
a)
homozygous 
b)
asexual
c)
homologous
d)
genes
41.
Crossing over creates...
a)
male genotype
b)
genetic variation (differences)
c)
DNA replication
d)
mitosis
42.
Which cellular process is shown?
a)
meiosis
b)
endocytosis
c)
mitosis
d)
phagocytosis
43.
What phase of meiosis is represented?
a)
metaphase I
b)
metaphase 2
c)
anaphase I
d)
anaphase 2
44.
What phase of meiosis is  shown in the picture?
a)
metaphase 2
b)
anaphase 2
c)
metaphase I
d)
telophase I
45.
The products of meiosis are genetically...
a)
different
b)
identical
46.
How many daughter cells does Meiosis create?
a)
2
b)
4
c)
8
d)
1
47.
Why do multicellular organisms produce new cells?
a)
to advance the growth of the organism
b)
to replace old cells or cells that are not working well
c)
to heal a tear or wound
d)
all of the listed answers
48.
What do all cells do to prepare for cell division?
a)
increase their surface area-to-volume ratio.
b)
decrease the number of proteins they need
c)
make an extra copy of their complete DNA
d)
all of the listed answers
49.
This cross between flower colors demonstrates complete dominance. If red is dominant and white is recessive, what is the phenotypic ratio of red to white flowers?
a)
3:1
b)
1:2:1
c)
2:2
d)
0:4
50.
In pea plants, height is a completely dominant trait. Tall (T) is dominant to short pea plants (t). If a heterozygous tall pea is crossed w/ a short pea, what are the genotypes of the offspring?
a)
75%Tt, 25%tt
b)
100% Tt
c)
50% Tt, 50% tt
d)
25%TT, 50%Tt, 25%tt
51.
This test cross is an example of what type of dominance?
a)
Incomplete Dominance
b)
Complete Dominance
c)
Codominance
d)
Recessiveness
52.
Hh x hh: How many different genotypes are possible for their offspring?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
53.
The term for heterozygous organisms that display two phenotypes at the same time..?
a)
Co-dominance
b)
multiple alleles
c)
incomplete dominance
d)
gene linkage
54.
Colorblindness is an X-linked recessive disorder. A female with the genotype XBXb is crossed with a male who's genotype is XbY: What is the probability that they will have a child who is color blind?
a)
50%
b)
25%
c)
75%
d)
0%
55.
Colorblindness is an X-linked recessive disorder. A female with the genotype XBXb is crossed with a male who's genotype is XbY: What is the probability that they will have a son who is color blind?
a)
50%
b)
25%
c)
0%
d)
100%
56.
The inherited combination of alleles is known as the offspring's
a)
heredity
b)
genotype
c)
phenotype
d)
pedigree
57.
An organism's physical appearance or trait is known as its
a)
phenotype
b)
genotype
c)
pedigree
d)
inheritance
58.
How do we know that color blindness is a sex-linked trait?
a)
Only males can have color blindness
b)
The allele causing color blindness is on the Y chromosome
c)
Only females can have color blindness
d)
The allele causing color blindness is on the X chromosome
59.
A squirrel with black fur & a squirrel with white fur give rise to this offspring. What type of dominance is this?
a)
codominance
b)
incomplete dominance
c)
complete dominance
d)
sex-linked traits
60.
How is Person 1 Generation 1, related to Person 5, Generation 2?
a)
Father/Daughter
b)
Grandpa/Grandaughter
c)
Grandma/Grandaughter
d)
Mother/Son
61.
Left-handedness is an autosomal recessive trait. What is the genotype of Person 2, Generation 1? Use the letter H to answer this question.
a)
hh
b)
Hh
c)
HH
d)
XhXh
62.
Left-handedness is an autosomal recessive trait. What is the genotype of Person 3, Generation 3? Use the letter H to answer this question.
a)
hh
b)
Hh
c)
HH
d)
XHY
63.
Left-handedness is an autosomal recessive trait. What is the genotype of Person 1, Generation 2? Use the letter H to answer this question.
a)
hh
b)
Hh
c)
HH
d)
XHY
64.
Myopia (nearsightedness) is an X-linked recessive disorder. What is the genotype of Person 3 Generation 2?
a)
XnY
b)
XNY
c)
XnYn
d)
XnXn
65.
Myopia (nearsightedness) is an X-linked recessive disorder. What is the genotype of Person 1 Generation 1?
a)
XNY
b)
XNYN
c)
NN
d)
Nn
66.
Myopia (nearsightedness) is an X-linked recessive disorder. What is the genotype of Person 2 Generation 1?
a)
XNXn
b)
XNXN
c)
XnXn
d)
Nn
67.
In generation II, what would the genotypes of 1 & 2 have to be if this were an autosomal trait?
a)
Nn, Nn
b)
XNXN, XnY
c)
XnXn, XnY
d)
nn, nn
68.
If brown eyes are dominant over blue eyes, what percentage of offspring could have blue eyes?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
69.
What is the phenotypic ratio of brown eyes to blue eyes?
a)
3:1
b)
1:3
c)
4:0
d)
2:2
70.
What is ALWAYS the phenotypic ratio of a dihybrid cross, where both parents are heterozygous for both traits?
a)
9:3:3:1
b)
16:0:0:0
c)
4:4:4:4
d)
8:0:8:0
71.
How would you describe the father's genotype?
a)
heterozygous
b)
homozygous dominant
c)
homozygous recessive
72.
What type of dominance is this, if mother rabbit had black fur and father rabbit had white fur?
a)
Codominance
b)
Complete Dominance
c)
Incomplete Dominance
d)
Sex-Linked Inheritance
73.
1 pair of human chromosomes is the sex chromosomes. The other 22 pairs are classified as what?
a)
chromatids
b)
dominant chromosomes
c)
autosomes
d)
recessive chromosomes
74.
What would be the genotype of a female CARRIER in a SEX-LINKED GENE?
a)
XTXT
b)
XTXt
c)
Tt
d)
XtXt
75.
What would this flower's genotype be if it displays codominance? (RR=red, WW=white)
a)
RrWw
b)
RW
c)
RR
d)
WW
76.
(R) round seeds are dominant to (r) wrinkled seeds and (T) tall plants are dominant to short plants. If you crossed a recessive parent (rrtt) with a heterozygous parent (RrTt), how many of the offspring would be round and tall?
a)
3
b)
4
c)
8
d)
9
77.
(R) round seeds are dominant to (r) wrinkled seeds and (T) tall plants are dominant to dwarf plants. If you crossed a recessive parent (rrtt) with a heterozygous parent (RrTt), how many of the offspring would be wrinked and tall?
a)
1/4
b)
1/2
c)
3/4
d)
5/16
78.
An offspring will receive how many alleles from each parent to determine a specific trait?
a)
one
b)
two
c)
three
d)
five
79.
An allele whose trait only shows up when no dominant allele is present is called...
a)
hidden allele
b)
dominant allele
c)
recessive allele
d)
present allele
80.
A homozygous dominant dog with brown fur, is crossed with a heterozygous dog with brown fur.
What are the percentages of the possible genotypes?
a)
100% BB
b)
75% BB and 25%Bb
c)
50 % BB and 50% Bb
d)
50% Bb and 50% bb
81.
A homozygous dominant dog with brown fur, is crossed with a heterozygous dog with brown fur.
What are the percentages of the possible genotypes?
a)
100% BB
b)
75% BB and 25%Bb
c)
50 % BB and 50% Bb
d)
50% Bb and 50% bb
82.
Having two different alleles for a trait (sometimes called hybrid).
a)
dominant
b)
homozygous
c)
heterozygous
d)
recessive
83.

The study of the early stages of development that is one evidence of evolution is:

a)

Homologous Structures

b)

Embryology

c)

Vestigial Organs

d)

Fossils

84.
The white feathers of a snowy owl allow it to blend in with its environment during the winter months (snow). This is an example of ________________
a)
Species
b)
Environmental Change
c)
Adaptation
d)
Variation
85.
The concept of gene flow is demonstrated when a cow is driven off from its herd, joins another herd, and reproduces. When the cow contributes to the gene pool of the new herd, which of these will most likely increase?
a)
Environmental fitness
b)
Reproductive mutations
c)
Natural selection
d)
Genetic variation
86.
Which of the following statements best explains why some mosquitoes survived after the first spraying?
a)
Some mosquitoes had a genetic mutation that made them resistant to the insecticide
b)
A.  All mosquitoes had a genetic mutation that made them resistant to the insecticide
c)
A.  None of the mosquitoes had a genetic mutation that made them resistant to the pesticide
87.
The table shows the survival rate of two types of beetles in the same environment over a period of three years.  

Which statement about the beetles in this environment is best supported by the data?
a)
Brown beetles have a shorter life cycle than green beetles have
b)
Green beetles are more fit for their environment than brown beetles
c)
 brown beetles are undergo more unfavorable mutations than green beetles
88.

The similarities of the bones in the diagram provide evidence that...

a)

The organisms shown lived in the same natural envionrment

b)

The organisms shown may have developed from a common ancestor

c)

The organisms shown have the same genetic diseases

d)

All vertebrate species have identical forelimbs

89.

A prey population consists of individuals with a variety of running speeds.

The adaptation that allows some of these animals to run fast would be an example of natural selection if it helps them —

a)

survive and undergo mutations in their DNA

b)

produce offspring that run at average speeds

c)

reproduce and increase the frequency of their genes in the population

d)

lower the mortality rates of the population

90.

All of the alleles that are present in a population is called...

a)

Genetic Drift

b)

Gene Flow

c)

Gene Pool

d)

Allele Frequency

91.
Scientist sometimes compare the limbs of these organisms to look for evidence of common ancestry.
These limbs provide evidence of common ancestry because they— 
a)
have the same basic structure
b)
are the same size
c)
are parts of mammals
d)
perform the same function
92.

Genetic variation can aid in the survival of species when the environment changes.

Which of the following is the best example of an organism with a genetic variation that could improve survival chances over time?

a)

an ant that is resistant to pesticide

b)

a cactus that has no spikes

c)

a bird with a sharp beak

93.

Common baboons live on the savanna in breeding groups called troops. While females tend to stay with the troop, younger or less dominant males may leave to join a neighboring troop.

Which of these is a likely outcome of movement by young males?

a)

Gene flow occurs between the populations

b)

relative genotypic frequencies reach a constant state

c)

Allele frequencies stay the same

94.

What is evolution?

a)

Traits and organisms change slowly over a long period of time

b)

Humans select certain traits and breed for them

c)

Organisms never change based on their environments

d)

A chance event

95.

Why might giraffes have developed their long necks?

a)

Longer necks meant more food could be eaten, helping survival and reproduction

b)

To keep their heads/brains further from predators

c)

Longer necks matched their longer legs

d)

Males needed them to fight each other for females

96.
Woolly mammoths became extinct when the ice age ended. What might have been one reason?
a)
They evolved into elephants instead
b)
They were more adapted to the new warmer climate
c)
They were less adapted to the new warmer climate
d)
They were hunted by early humans
97.

Why is the fossil record most important to scientists?

a)

It's our only record of dinosaurs

b)

It tells us that very few animals have gone extinct

c)

It suggests that species have evolved over time

d)

It proves that humans have always been alive on Earth

98.

What is natural selection?

a)

Only the organisms most adapted to their environments survive to reproduce

b)

Humans choosing which traits are desirable and breeding for them

c)

Organisms choose to mate with another species that is best adapted for its environment

d)

Survival through mutation

99.
Within a species of fish, some individuals have larger fins than others.  This is called
a)
mutation.
b)
random chance.
c)
selective breeding.
d)
variation.
100.

A donkey and a horse produce a mule. The mule offspring is sterile, which means that what type of isolation has occurred?

a)

Reproductive

b)

Behavioral

c)

Temporal

d)

Geographic

101.

A donkey and a horse produce a mule. The mule offspring is sterile, which means that what type of isolation has occurred?

a)

Reproductive

b)

Behavioral

c)

Temporal

d)

Geographic

102.

Why must selected traits be heritable?

a)

If a selected trait is not heritable, it cannot be passed down to the next generation

b)

Heritable traits are those traits that farmers and breeders consider worth passing on

c)

Heritable traits are common in domesticated animals that are used in breeding

d)

A selected trait that is heritable is likely to make an animal easier to domesticate

103.

Which of the following is not a branch of evidence for evolution?

a)

Fossils

b)

Geography

c)

Embryology

d)

Anatomy

e)

Descent with Modification

104.

Which of the following is not one of the principles of natural selection?

a)

Variation

b)

Adaptations

c)

Fossils

d)

Descent with Modification

e)

Overproduction

105.

Wisdom teeth in a human are an example of what type of structure that served a purpose in an ancestor, but does not any more?

a)

Vestigial

b)

Homologous

c)

Analogous

d)

Fossil

106.

Which of the following structures DOES NOT provide evidence of a common ancestor?

a)

Homologous

b)

Analogous

c)

Vestigial

107.

True or False?

Genetic variation within a population is a negative thing.

a)

False

b)

True

108.

Where is the variation within a population stored?

a)

Gene pool

b)

Allele frequencies

c)

Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium

d)

Genetic Drift

109.

Select the 2 sources of genetic variation.

a)

mutation

b)

recombination

c)

fossils

d)

Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium

110.

This term measures how common a certain allele is in a given population.

a)

Allele frequency

b)

Gene pool

c)

Genetic Drift

d)

distribution

111.

This graph demonstrates what type of natural selection?

a)

Normal

b)

Directional

c)

Stabilizing

d)

Disruptive

112.

The graph demonstrates what type of natural selection, where an intermediate phenotype is favored?

a)

Stabilizing

b)

Directional

c)

Disruptive

d)

Normal

113.

The graph demonstrates what type of natural selection, where both of the extreme phenotypes are favored?

a)

Disruptive

b)

Stabilizing

c)

Directional

d)

Normal

114.

The observable change in the allele frequencies of a population over time is called...

a)

microevolution

b)

genetic drift

c)

bottleneck effect

d)

founder effect

115.

When an individual moves into a population, they are...

a)

immigrating

b)

emigrating

116.

When an individual moves from a population, they are...

a)

emigrating

b)

immigrating

117.

The movement of alleles between populations is called...

a)

gene flow

b)

gene movement

c)

bottleneck effect

d)

founder effect

118.

This process occurs after an event greatly reduces the size of a population. (HINT: Think about the ants!)

a)

Bottleneck Effect

b)

Founder Effect

c)

Allele Frequency

d)

Recombination

119.

This process occurs after a small number of individuals colonize a new area.

a)

Bottleneck Effect

b)

Founder Effect

c)

Allele Frequency

d)

Gene Flow

120.

True or False?

Genetic drift results in a loss of genetic variation.

a)

Ture

b)

False

121.

Male Warthogs fighting for a mate is an example of what type of sexual selection?

a)

Intrasexual selection

b)

Intersexual selection

c)

Stabilizing selection

d)

Artificial selection

122.

Male peacocks have elaborate tails that attract female peacocks. What type of sexual selection is this?

a)

Intersexual selection

b)

Intrasexual selection

c)

Disruptive Selection

d)

Directional Selection

123.

True or False?

A population that is IN Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium IS NOT evolving.

a)

True

b)

False

124.

Which of the following does NOT lead to evolution?

a)

Random mating

b)

Mutations

c)

Gene Flow

d)

Genetic Drift

e)

Natural Selection

125.

If real genetic data does not match the fequencies predicted by HW Equilibrium, biologists know the population (is/is not) evolving

a)

Is

b)

Is not

c)

Not enough information

126.

Isolation that involves a physical barrier is what type of isolation?

a)

Behavioral

b)

Reproductive

c)

Geographic

d)

Temporal

127.

Isolation that involves a difference in the timing of reproductive periods is what type of isolation?

a)

Temporal

b)

Behavioral

c)

Geographic

d)

Reproductive

128.

Isolation that involves a courting or mating choice is what type of isolation?

a)

Behavioral

b)

Reproductive

c)

Temporal

d)

Geographic

129.

Isolation where members of different populations can no longer mate successfully is what type of isolation?

a)

Reproductive

b)

Behavioral

c)

Geographic

d)

Temporal

130.

The rise of 2 or more species from one existing species is called...

a)

speciation

b)

isolation

c)

Hardy-Weinberg

d)

Founder Effect

131.

evolution that occurs when similar characteristics develop in unrelated species is called...

a)

Convergent evolution

b)

Divergent evolution

c)

Coevolution

d)

Extinction

132.

Evolution that occurs when related species evolve in different directions is called...

a)

Convergent evolution

b)

Divergent evolution

c)

Coevolution

d)

Extinction

133.

The elimination of a species from Earth is called...

a)

Extinction

b)

Convergent evolution

c)

Divergent evolution

d)

Coevolution

134.

The process in which species evolve in response to changes in each other is called...

a)

Coevolution

b)

Convergent evolution

c)

Divergent evolution

d)

Extinction

135.

Humans can breed dogs together deliberately so that the offspring show certain characteristics. What is this process called?

a)

Artificial selection

b)

Natural seleciton

c)

Sexual selection

d)

Directional selection

136.

An organism's fitness is a measure of...

a)

ability to survive and reproduce

b)

ability to run faster & farther

c)

ability to jump higher

d)

physical strength

137.

Structures that are found in unrelated organisms, but are used for the same purpose are called...

a)

Analogous

b)

Homologous

c)

Vestigial

138.
According to this cladogram, sharks are MOST closely related to which organism? 
a)
Amphibians
b)
Ray finned fish
c)
Crocodiles
d)
Birds
139.
Which two orgainsms have hair? 
a)
Sharks & Ray Finned Fish
b)
Primates & Rodents
c)
Birds & Crocodiles
d)
Rabbits & Birds
140.
According to this cladogram, birds are LEAST related to: 
a)
Amphibians
b)
Sharks
c)
Ray Finned Fish
d)
Crocodiles
141.
On the cladogram, which organism is the closest relative of the human?
a)
Frog
b)
Hare
c)
Caiman
d)
Parrot
142.
Which trait do only humans have, according to the cladogram?
a)
jaws
b)
mammary glands & hair
c)
terrestrial during all life stages
d)
bipedal & opposable thumbs
143.

A system for naming species in which two words are used to name organisms is _____.

a)

cladistics

b)

fan diagramming

c)

binomial nomenclature

d)

dichotomous naming

144.

The science of grouping and naming organisms is ____.

a)

classification

b)

taxonomy

c)

nomenclature

d)

phylogeny

145.

The language used for scientific names is ____ because it does not change.

a)

German

b)

Spanish

c)

Portugese

d)

Latin

146.
You look at two species and see very similar amino acid sequences. What does this likely tell you?
a)
These are the same animal.
b)
These animals have a common ancestor.
c)
These animals are not likely related.
d)
These animals are likely becoming one species.
147.
What genus does Bird Z belong to?
a)
Certhidea
b)
Geospiza
c)
Camarhynchus
d)
Platyspiza
148.

what is the taxonomic hierarchy

a)

kingdom

phylum

class

order

family

genus

species

b)

phylum

kingdom

order

class

genus

family

species

c)

kingdom

class

phylum

order

family

genus

species

149.
The scientific name for an organism is made from the:
a)
class and family name
b)
genus and species name
c)
domain and kingdom name
d)
kingdom and phylum name
150.
Term given to describe the 2 name naming system is:
a)
dichotmous key
b)
binomial nomenclature
c)
2 scientific names
d)
binomial key
151.

The 7 levels of classification, most broad to most specific.

a)

Genus, Family, Order, Class, Phylum, Kingdom, Species

b)

Species, Kingdom, Genus, Phylum, Family, Class, Order

c)

Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species

d)

Order, Kingdom, Species, Phylum, Family, Class, Genus

152.
An illustration and a dichotomous key are given. What is the correct classification for this organism?
a)
Class Insecta
b)
Order Amblygygi
c)
Order Araneae
d)
Order Scorpiones
153.
A dichotomous key for trees is provided. Hikers found a tree that has large brown cones and single sharp needles. What species of tree have the hikers found?
a)
Juniper
b)
Pine
c)
Spruce
d)
Fir
154.
Which of the following organisms are MOST closely related?
a)
organisms that share a domain
b)
organisms that share a family 
c)
organisms that share a genus 
d)
organisms that share an order  
155.
What step do we always start with when using dichotomous keys?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
156.
Cladograms are constructed by grouping organisms together based on their____________ characteristics.
a)
shared
b)
different
c)
similar
d)
opposite
157.
Who first proposed binomial nomenclature as a way of classifying organisms?
a)
Carolus Linnaeus
b)
Carl's Jr.
c)
Charles Darwin
d)
Henry Groseclose
158.
What is the most specific level of classification?
a)
Family
b)
Domain
c)
Species
d)
Carolus Linnaeus
159.

Choose the correct way to write the scientific name for humans:

a)

homo sapiens

b)

Homosapiens

c)

Homo sapiens

d)

Homo Sapiens

160.
The scientific name for water bear is Hypsibius dujardini.  What is its genus?
a)
Hypsibius 
b)
dujardini
c)
water 
d)
tardigrade
161.
The scientific name for water bear is Hypsibius dujardini.  What is its species?
a)
Hypsibius 
b)
dujardini
c)
water 
d)
tardigrade
162.
How do scientists organize living things?
a)
by looks
b)
by shared characteristics
c)
by size
d)
by differences
163.
If two species share the same class, they also share the same______.
a)
phylum
b)
order
c)
genus
d)
species
164.
In a properly written scientific name, which part is lowercase?
a)
species
b)
genus
165.
In a properly written scientific name, which part is capitalized?
a)
species
b)
genus
166.
Who is the closest relative to the birds?
a)
crocodiles
b)
sharks
c)
fish
d)
amphibians
167.

The scientific name for the cat is Felis catus. Which of the following organisms is most closely related to the cat?

a)

Felis lybica

b)

Panthera tigris

c)

Lynx rufus

d)

Puma concolor

168.
An organism that needs to eat other organisms to obtain energy is known as a:
a)
Autotroph
b)
Producer
c)
Consumer
d)
Mutualist
169.

A consumer that eats plants is called a...

a)

autotroph

b)

herbivore

c)

producer

d)

community

170.
What does a food web represent?
a)
All connections of energy flow throughout all organisms in a habitat.
b)
The specific ways that mutualism is carried out.
c)
A single pathway or energy flow between organisms. 
d)
How carnivores get their food. 
171.
The rabbit in this food web would be considered a:
a)
Decomposer
b)
Producer
c)
Secondary Consumer
d)
Primary Consumer
172.
Where an organism lives
a)
habitat
b)
niche 
c)
heterotrogh
d)
biosphere
173.
In this Food Web Pyramid Which type of consumer gets only 10% of the energy stored in plants?
a)
Herbivore
b)
Carnivore
c)
Omnivore
d)
Secondary Consumer
174.
What is the term for each step in the transfer of energy and matter within a biological community?
a)
energy path
b)
food web
c)
trophic level
d)
food pyramid
175.
The amount of energy that usually transfers from one trophic level to the next...
a)
10%
b)
20%
c)
80%
d)
50%
176.
An illustration that uses arrows to show the MANY possible directions in which matter and energy can pass through the organisms in an ecosystem.
a)
Food chain
b)
Food web
c)
Energy Pyramid
d)
Succession Map
177.
The nonliving aspects of an ecosystem.
a)
Abiotic factors
b)
Biotic factors
178.
The living portions of the ecosystem.
a)
Biotic factors
b)
Abiotic factors
179.
A graphic illustration that shows each trophic level and the amount of useable energy contained within.
a)
Food chain
b)
Food web
c)
Energy Pyramid
d)
All of these
180.
A collection of organisms that make up a community as well as all of the nonliving aspects of the environment.
a)
Population
b)
Community
c)
Habitat
d)
Ecosystem
181.

As you move upward from level to level in an energy pyramid, energy _____.

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays the same

d)

increases exponentially

182.

Plants that convert energy from the sun into food are called...

a)

decomposer

b)

primary consumer

c)

secondary consumer

d)

producer

183.

The study of how living things interact with one another and with their environment.

a)

Biology

b)

Geology

c)

Ecology

d)

Paleontology

184.
Two or more members of a particular species living and interacting in the same area
a)
Community
b)
Population
c)
Organisms
d)
Biosphere
185.

Different populations of living things that are interacting with each other in the same area

a)

Biome

b)

Ecosystem

c)

Community

d)

Niche

186.
Which of the following would be the definition of a detritivore?
a)
Animals that eat insects.
b)
Organisms that feed on rocks, recycling the nutrients back into the ground.
c)
Organisms that eat only pants
d)
Things that feed on dead organisms, recycling the nutrients back into the ground.
187.
A living relationship between two species in which one organism is harmed is called...
a)
mutualism
b)
commensalism
c)
parasitism
d)
niche
188.

A symbiotic relationship in which both organisms benefit is called...

a)

competition

b)

Mutualism

c)

Commensalism

d)

energy pyramid

189.

A symbiotic relationship in which both organisms benefit is called...

a)

competition

b)

Mutualism

c)

Commensalism

d)

energy pyramid

190.

Which type of symbiotic relationship does this represent?

a)

parasitism

b)

mutualism

c)

commensalism

d)

predation

191.
Autotrophs make up the _______ level in all ecosystems.
a)
First
b)
Second
c)
Third
d)
Fourth
192.
What is the original source of almost all energy in most ecosystems?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
sunlight
c)
water
d)
carbon
193.

A symbiotic relationship in which one organism benefits and the other is not affected is called...

a)

Mutualism

b)

Parasitism

c)

Commensalism

d)

Competition

194.

This type of distribution is best described as...

a)

Clumped

b)

Uniform

c)

Random

195.

This type of distribution is best described as...

a)

Clumped

b)

Uniform

c)

Random

196.

This type of distribution is best described as...

a)

Clumped

b)

Uniform

c)

Random

197.

A lizard has an equal chance of survival during infant and adult life stages. What type of survivorship curve will they exhibit?

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

198.

A polar bear puts a lot of energy into parental care for their young. For this reason, many infant polar bears survive until old age. Which type of survivorship curve does this exhibit?

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

199.

A salmon can have thousands of eggs at a time. Due to predation & lack of parental care, they have a high infant mortality rate. Which type of survivorship curve does the exhibit?

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

200.

A salmon can have thousands of eggs at a time. Due to predation & lack of parental care, they have a high infant mortality rate. Which type of survivorship curve does the exhibit?

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

201.

This type of growth occurs when a population size increases dramatically over a period of time

a)

Logistic

b)

Exponential

c)

Gigantic

d)

Steady

202.

This type of growth occurs when a population begins with a period of exponential growth, before leveling off at a stable size. It is influenced by the amount of resources.

a)

Logistic

b)

Exponential

c)

Steady

d)

Gigantic

203.

This term is composed of all of the physical, chemical, and biological factors that a species needs to survive, stay healthy, & reproduce.

a)

Niche

b)

Habitat

c)

Trophic Level

d)

Producer

204.

The establishment and development of an ecosystem in an area that was previously uninhabited.

a)

Primary succession

b)

Secondary succession

c)

Tertiary succession

205.

The reestablishment of a damaged ecosystem in an area where the soil was left intact.

a)

Primary Succession

b)

Secondary Succession

c)

Tertiary Succession

206.

What are factors that are affected by the number of individuals in a given area called?

a)

Density-Dependent

b)

Density-Independent

c)

Density-Limiting

d)

Limiting-Density

207.

What are factors that limit a population’s growth regardless of the density of the population called?

a)

Density-Dependent

b)

Density-Independent

c)

Density-Limiting

d)

Limiting-Density

208.

What is the maximum number of individuals of a particular species that the environment can normally and consistently support called?

a)

Carrying capacity

b)

Niche

c)

Logistic growth

d)

Survivorship curve

Similar Resources on Wayground

C. Biology EOC Review

209 questions

C. Biology EOC Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

23 Competition IG Biology

205 questions

23 Competition IG Biology

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

45 IG Class Competition

205 questions

45 IG Class Competition

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

Energy, photosynthesis and cell respiration

213 questions

Energy, photosynthesis and cell respiration

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th Grade