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OB First Exam

Total questions: 73

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is considered normal in urine during pregnancy

a)

Protein

b)

Glucose

c)

Hematuria

d)

Leukocytes

2.

Cardiac increases by approximately what percentage over non-pregnancy values? What is the cardiac output percentage immediately after delivery?

a)

40%; 60%

b)

50%; 70%

c)

40%; 80%

d)

50%; 80%

3.

Which cardiac symptoms are considered normal during pregnancy

a)

S3 heart sounds

b)

Increase in CO

c)

Increase in SVR

d)

Plasma volume increase

e)

Exercise intolerance with shortness of breath

4.

What is a normal blood loss for vaginal birth

a)

500 ml

b)

5000 ml

c)

800 ml

d)

1000 ml

5.

How often do you assess blood pressure for spinal in a patient that is scheduled for a C-section?

a)

Every 3 minutes

b)

Every 2 minutes

c)

Every 4 minutes

d)

Every 1 minute

6.

What are select the factors that favor diffusion across the placenta barrier

a)

Low molecular weight

b)

High Lipid solubility

c)

Low degree of ionization

d)

High protein binding

e)

Low Lipid solubility

7.

Fetal heart tone is compared with what on Fetal monitor/ paper

a)

Maternal contraction

b)

Maternal heart rate

c)

Maternal oxygenation

d)

Maternal Blood pressure

8.

Which of the following indicate fetal well-being? Select all that apply

a)

Moderate amplitude beat to beat variability

b)

Marked amplitude beat to beat variability

c)

Early Deceleration

d)

Accelerations

e)

Late deceleration

9.

What is the normal fetal heart rate?

a)

110-160 bpm

b)

120-170 bpm

c)

150-180 bpm

d)

100-170 bpm

10.

Which of the following is the appropriate Bromage level needed for a spinal C-section; (NOTE: The most frequently used measure of motor block is the Bromage Scale).

a)

Bromage 3

b)

Bromage 2

c)

Bromage 1

d)

Bromage 0

11.

Mrs. Jones is a 25 year old nulliparous at 39 weeks gestation she has a epidural in place by the CRNA she is in the the first stage of labor in the active phase. She is supine, and is having continuous bouts of hypotension with no nausea. What would you do?

a)

Shift the patient to the right side

b)

Give ephedrine 10 mg

c)

Give phenylephrine

d)

Shift the patient to the left

12.

28 year old mom 38 weeks gestation, due to increased contraction. When administering a weak basic medication. What is a typical expectation?

a)

Due to the mothers decreased pH and fetal increase pH; ion trapping in the fetus

b)

Due to maternal pH increase and fetal pH increase: ion trapping in the maternal blood stream

c)

Due to the maternal increase in pH and decrease in fetal pH; ion trapping in the maternal blood stream

d)

Due to the maternal increase in pH and decrease in fetal pH; ion trapping in the fetal blood stream

13.

What is the suggested cause of decrease MAC in the pregnant patient?

a)

Increased minute ventilation with decrease residual volume

b)

Increase CO throughout the pregnancy

c)

Progesterone

d)

Increase in cerebral blood flow to the magnus ralphi

14.

The critical period of organ development extends from approximately _____ to ______ days after the last menstrual period.

a)

14 to 51 days

b)

21 to 68 days

c)

31 to 71 days

d)

30 to 100 days

15.

Which of the following anti-coagulants can be utilized during pregnancy?

a)

Warfarin

b)

Tylenol

c)

Heparin

d)

Low molecular weight heparin

e)

Clopidogrel (Palvix)

16.

What is the correct dose of uterotonic drugs

a)

Oxytocin 20 to 40 units in a 1 liter bag IV

b)

Misoprostol 1200 mcg Intrauterine

c)

Caroprost (Hemabate) 0.25 IV

d)

Ergometrine 0.2 mg IM

e)

Misoprostol 200-800 mcgs sublingual

17.

What is the definitive treatment for PIH

a)

C-section

b)

Magnesium sulfate

c)

Beta- Agonist

d)

Bed rest

18.

Which physiology change during pregnancy is false?

a)

Increase in Heart rate by 20 to 30%

b)

Increase in CO by 40 to 80%

c)

Decrease in SVR by 20%

d)

Decrease in Renal Blood Flow by 10%

19.

Which of the following is true about pain related to stage 1 of labor. (Select 2)

a)

Results from C fibers

b)

Compression and stretching of the pelvic musculature and perineum

c)

T10, T11, T12 ,L1 are the spinal segments that are responsible for pain

d)

S2, S3, S4, are the spinal segments that are responsible for pain

20.

Which states are true regarding the second stage of Labor. (Select 2)

a)

Starts in the Perineum and compression of pelvic musculature

b)

Starts in the cervix and uterus

c)

Innervated by nerves T10- L2

d)

Innervated by nerves S2, S3, S4 in addition to T10-L2

21.

Which of the following stages of labor is false?

a)

First stage of labor latent phase: period between the onset of labor and the point at which the cervix begins to rapidly change

b)

First stage of labor active phase: 2 to 3 cm cervical dilation and is the period during which the cervix undergoes maximum dilation

c)

Second stage: begins at full cervical dilation 10 and ends with delivery of the fetus

d)

Third Stage: begins at fetus passing through the vaginal canal and the passing of the placenta.

22.

What is the recommended total weight gain for a Mrs. Smith if she has a BMI of 29 kg/m2

a)

11.9-15.9 kg

b)

12.47-18.2 kg

c)

6.8-11.4 kg

d)

5-9.1 kg

23.

What percentage of women will require a non-OB surgery while pregnant

a)

0.3-2.2%

b)

1-3%

c)

0.6-1%

d)

4-6%

24.

Which of the following causes teratogenicity in a 35 day old fetus. Select 4

a)

Radioidoine

b)

Tetracyclines

c)

Warfarin

d)

Nitrous oxide

e)

Heparin

25.

Mrs. Fernandez is 33 year old parturient at 30 weeks gestation with a multiple gravida pregnancy. You notice marked deceleration after a maternal contraction what are some intervention that can be performed? Select all that apply

a)

Change maternal positioning

b)

rapid infusion of IV fluids

c)

Maternal oxygen administration

d)

Start Pitocin

e)

Begin Mag sulfate drip.

26.

According to the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists what is the absolute minimal platelet level considered appropriate for regional anesthesia

a)

50,000 to 100,000

b)

80,000 to 120,000

c)

100,000 or greater

d)

75,000 or greater

27.

Which of the following is the highest cause of PPH (Post Partum Hemorrhage)

a)

Uterine atony

b)

Laceration, hematomas

c)

Retained tissue, invasive placenta

d)

Coagulopathies

28.

An abnormal placental implantation on the uterus myometrium is referred to as?

a)

Placenta accreta

b)

Placenta increta

c)

Placenta percreta

d)

Placenta previa

29.

Select 3 of the classic signs and treatment of placenta previa

a)

Painless vaginal bleeding

b)

Vaginal examination to stop placenta bleeding

c)

Replacement of blood loss

d)

Increased bleeding postpartum

30.

What is necessary to collect in a maternal history and physical examination 3 weeks prior to term in an uncomplicated pregnant patient? Select all that apply

a)

Maternal vital signs

b)

Gestational age

c)

Gravidity and parity

d)

Platelet count

e)

Airway assessment

31.

Competence to make legal decision occurs at the age of 18 years old in the United States of America Yes/No? What is the exception to that rule?

a)

Yes; Marriage

b)

No; Minor emancipation

c)

Yes; Minor emancipation

d)

No; Marriage

32.

What are the major arteries that provide intervillous blood supply to the fetus?

a)

Spiral Arteries

b)

Straight arteries

c)

Uterine arteries

d)

Radial Artery

33.

2017 AANA Practice Guidelines state the following about CRNA's performing anesthesia in the OB population. Select two

a)

Should be able to determine cervical dilation and effacement

b)

Determine the fetal status prior to administration of any anesthetic

c)

Document fetal status after administration of epidural anesthetic

d)

Document Obstetrician intervention and manipulation prior to insertion of epidural

34.

Mrs. Williams is 28 year nulliparous whom denied any past medical history. She was a difficult IV stick and after three attempts was unable to achieve IV access. The CRNA was called to attempt epidural access for as the patient is rapidly progressing into stage 1 active phase of labor and requesting anesthesia. What do you do?

a)

Place the epidural

b)

Explain the risk of epidural placement without an IV and place the epidural

c)

Explain the risk of placing an epidural catheter without IV access; and attempt IV access

d)

Walk out of the room and tell the nurse she has wasted your time

35.

Which factors minimize the effect of drug circulation within the fetus. Select all that apply

a)

Dilution by the intervillous blood supply

b)

Fetus and metabolizes medication

c)

Medication absorbed by the placenta

d)

Duration of maternal utilization of medication

36.

Mrs. Garcia is 29 year parturient who is approximately 39 weeks gestation, denies co-morbidities and has had a relatively normal pregnancy. Her baby is currently in breech position, she is 2 cm dilated and has a epidural in place. She states an allergy to morphine. At 0500 you receive a page that Mrs. Garcia has a cord prolapse and is heading to the

OR now. What local anesthetic would you give?

a)

Lidocaine 2% with Epi 1:100,000

b)

Lidocaine 2% with Epi 1:200,000

c)

2-Chloroprocaine

d)

Bupivacaine

37.

If the patient is have a C-section with an epidural in place and is not a emergency, cut-down what local anesthetic would be most appropriate

a)

Lidocaine 2% with Epi 1:200,000/cc

b)

Lidocaine 2% with Epi 1:100,000/cc

c)

2-Chloroprocaine

d)

Ropivacaine

38.

Which of the following is the preferred antiseptic of choice for Neuraxial Anesthesia?

a)

2-Chloroprocaine sprayed on the patient

b)

Chlorhexidine with a 3 minute dry time

c)

Iodine

d)

Betadine

39.

Select two indications for a lateral neuraxial anesthetic placement?

a)

Fetal head entrapment

b)

Early deceleration

c)

Umbilical cord prolapse

d)

Marked variability

40.

Which of the following statements regarding pregnancy and physiology is false

a)

Increase of tidal volume as pregnancy approaches term gestation

b)

Decrease in total functional residual capacity

c)

Decrease in residual capacity

d)

Decrease closing capacity

41.

Ultrasound of the spine increases the ability to see structure for an epidural placement, what are some of the hypoechoic structure? select all that apply

a)

Bone

b)

CSF

c)

Blood

d)

Muscles

e)

Intrathecal space

42.

What medication, given concomitantly with tocolytics allows the fetus' lungs to mature?

a)

Pitocin

b)

Hemabate

c)

None, their lungs are matured prior to 37 weeks.

d)

corticosteroids

43.

Initial benefits of corticosteroid, when given with tocolytics, occurs at (pick 2)

a)

18 hours after administration of the first dose.

b)

Immediately following the first dose.

c)

Max benefit at 48 hours

d)

Max benefit at 72 hours

44.

You're caring for a parturient in active labor, You administer a test dose of 1.5% Lidocaine w/ 1:200,000 Epi. You find that the HR is increased, along with circumoral numbness, lightheadedness, and auditory changes. Which of the adverse effects leads you to believe the patient is having LA toxicity?

a)

Circumoral Numbness

b)

Increased HR

c)

Lightheadedness

d)

Auditory Changes.

45.

According to the LAST pdf. a >70kg patient will receive

a)

Bolus 100mL Lipid Emulsion 20%rapidly over 2-3 min

b)

Bolus 1.5mL/kg Lipid Emulsion 20%rapidly over 2-3 min

c)

Infuse 200-250mL over 15-20min

d)

0.25mL/kg/min (Ideal Body Weight)

46.

According to the LAST pdf. a <70kg patient

a)

Bolus 100mL Lipid Emulsion 20%rapidly over 2-3 min

b)

Bolus 1.5mL/kg Lipid Emulsion 20%rapidly over 2-3 min

c)

Infusion 200 - 250mL over 15-20min

d)

Infusion of 0.25mL/kg/min (Ideal Body Weight)

47.

Pt is presenting with a serum magnesium level of 18ml/dL accompanying with hypotention and respiratory depression. The SRNA would:

a)

Reduce Magnesium continuous infusion from 2g IV to 1g IV, give ephedrine, administer O2, and airway support

b)

Stop Magnesium infusion, administer ephedrine IV, administer O2, and airway support

c)

Stop Magnesium infusion, administer neosynepherine, administer O2, and airway support

d)

Stop Magnesium infusion, administer calcium gluconate IV, administer O2, and airway support.

48.

During the SRNA anesthesia pre-evaluation the 34 week parturient begins to have a seizure... There is no-one to be found because there is a MH case going in OR4. You and the PACU RN implement;

a)

Turn the pt in left lateral position, apply jaw thrust, ambu bag 15LPM continuously, delegate RN to start an IV, infuse Magnesium 2g bolus IV followed by 1g/hr maintenance infusion, and administer 10mg labetalol IV

b)

Turn the pt in left lateral position, apply jaw thrust, ambu bag 15LPM continuously, delegate RN to start an IV, infuse Magnesium 5mg bolus IV followed by 2g/hr maintenance, and administer 30mg esmolol IV

c)

Turn the pt in left lateral position, apply jaw thrust, ambu bag 15LPM continuously, delegate RN to start an IV, infuse Magnesium 5g bolus IV followed by 2g/hr maintenance, and administer 10mg labetalol IV

d)

Delegate the RN to grab some dry towels and a basin full of warm water because we gonna deliver this baby now!!!!

49.

What percentage decrease is seen in FRC when a 28 week pregnant patient is placed in the supine position

a)

60%

b)

50%

c)

70%

d)

80%

50.

When should the SRNA and circulating nurse displace the uterus?

a)

At the start of first trimester

b)

At the start of the second trimester

c)

At the third trimester

d)

Only during labor

51.

How many hours postpartum does spinal dosing return to pre-pregnancy dose

a)

12-36 hours

b)

14 days

c)

2-6 days

d)

24-72 hours

52.

Which medication below is associated with higher incidence of cleft lip or cleft palate utilized prior to 10 weeks

a)

Dexamethasone

b)

Warfarin

c)

Labetalol

d)

Amiodarone

53.

If there is no allergies which antibiotics are considered safe for

a)

Cefazolin (ancef)

b)

Doxycycline

c)

Tetracycline

d)

Augmentin

e)

Ciprofloxacin [Quinolones]

54.

The principle of mono-therapy related to anticonvulsants is to reduce multiple medication interaction with the fetus. Which medications are highly teratogenic related to anticonvulsant medication

a)

Valproic acid

b)

Phenytoin

c)

Carbamazepine

d)

Gabapentin

e)

Phenobarbital

55.

Mrs. Jackson is a pre-eclamptic parturient who is 32 weeks gestation, she is on a mag sulfate drip at 5 mg/min. Upon assessment Mrs. Jackson has no deep tendon reflex, what do you do?

a)

Turn the mag sulfate up to 7mg/min

b)

Place oxygen on the patient and reassess in an hour

c)

Shut the mag sulfate off and administer 1g calcium gluconate over 3-5 minutes

d)

Mrs. Jackson had hyperreflexive coming into the hospital, so it is only right she has absent reflexes now.

56.

Which of the following weights with an associated physiologic component is incorrect

a)

Uterus: 1 Kg

b)

Amniotic fluid: 1 Kg

c)

Fetus and Placenta: 4 Kg

d)

Interstitial fluid: 2 Kg

57.

Mrs. Jacobs is a 38 year old parturient who is approximately 34 weeks gestation. Upon assessment you hear what appears to be a grade 5 heart murmur. What is your next step?

a)

Bring a crash cart

b)

Let the OB know, and/or call a cardiology consult

c)

Systolic ejection murmur's are normal

d)

Tell the nurse to pass it on, you have better things to do

58.

Which of the following medications have a anti-pruritus effect on neuraxial opioids. Select all that apply

a)

Nalbuphine

b)

Ondansetron

c)

Droperidol

d)

Diphenhydramine

e)

Metoclopramide

59.

What dosage of spinal medication is appropriate for a c-section parturient. Select all that apply

a)

Fentanyl 10-20 mcgs

b)

Morphine 0.1-0.25 mg

c)

Sufentanil 2.5 to 15 mcgs

d)

Bupivacaine 0.75% in 8.25% dextrose 13 mg

e)

Bupivacaine 0.75% 13 mg

60.

Mrs. Harris is a 30 year old parturient who is 34 weeks gestation, is being flown in on helicopter after a fatal car accident. Her vitals are HR 130, B/P: 80/40, fetal heart sounds are heard and estimated around 130 bpm the radio cuts off after that what medication would you use to induce general anesthesia?

a)

Ketamine 1 mg/kg

b)

Propofol 2 mg/kg

c)

We avoid general anesthesia in pregnant population

d)

Use succinylcholine only 1 to 1.5 mg/kg

61.

Which of the following statements regarding general anesthesia for a cesarean section is true?

a)

Volatile anesthetic has no effect on uterine contraction as long as pitocin is running

b)

100% oxygen with high flow should be avoided at all cost as it can harm the neonate

c)

General anesthesia should be delivered to achieve a 0.8 MAC concentration pre-delivery

d)

Nitrous oxide should never be used because it is harmful to the fetus.

62.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of epidural neuraxial anesthesia

a)

Large dural puncture increases risk for PDPH

b)

Slow onset of anesthesia

c)

Larger doses required than spinal

d)

Limited duration of anesthesia

e)

Greater fetal drug exposure

63.

Which epidural medication dose range is incorrect

a)

Lidocaine 2% with epinephrine 1:200,000: 300-500 mg

b)

Fentanyl 50-100 mcg

c)

Morphine 3-4 mg

d)

Bupivacaine 0.5% 25-75 mg

64.

True or false: Tranexamic acid is a synthetic derivative of lysine which binds to sites of plasminogen and inhibits the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin.

a)

True

b)

False

65.

What is the ideal volume for an epidural blood patch? Does the technique have to be sterile?

a)

15-20 ml; No

b)

15-20 ml; Yes

c)

20-30 ml; No

d)

20-30 ml; Yes

66.

What coagulation factor increases

a)

Thromboplastin XI

b)

Prothrombin time

c)

Factor XII Hageman factor

d)

Factor XIII Fibrin-stabilizing factor

67.

Mrs. Tina is in first stage of labor she is 29 weeks gestation, she has preeclampsia with a B/P of 165/98. She receives labetalol. Does her fetus receive effects of the medication?

a)

Yes

b)

No

68.

What is the duration of lidocaine 2% with epinephrine 5 mcg/ml

a)

75-100 minutes

b)

35-75 minutes

c)

120-400 minutes

d)

40-50 minutes

69.

What is the preferred density for laboring epidural?

a)

Very dense block, abolish motor movement

b)

Only opioids go into laboring epidurals

c)

Smaller density; do not abolish motor movement

d)

Density only deals with spinal anesthesia

70.

A epidural test dose is given and in 3 to 5 minutes the patients cannot feel their legs what has happen?

a)

Spinal Anesthetic

b)

Epidural block continue monitoring

c)

It is a total spinal and unmanageable quickly intubate the patient

d)

Call Colonel Glymph

71.

What is the correct dose of Epidural Analgesia select all that apply? (Max volume is 8 to 12 ml)

a)

Bupivacaine 0.0625% to 0.125%

b)

Ropivacaine 0.1% to 0.2%

c)

Fentanyl 1 to 3 mcg/ml

d)

Fentanyl 10 to 25 mcg/ml

e)

Sufentanil 0.3 to 0.5 mcg/ml

72.

PDPH can have one symptom to be diagnosed. Which symptoms apply to PDPH? Select all that apply

a)

Headache

b)

Neck stiffness

c)

Photophobia

d)

Nausea

e)

Postural Change

73.

What step is excluded from a Dural puncture epidural

a)

Proceed mid-line like a spinal

b)

Insert an touchy needle

c)

Once dura is puncture instill opioids only

d)

Thread epidural catheter like normal and administer test dose