WorksheetsEnd of Year Review
Total questions: 225
Worksheet time: 3hrs 5mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Jack has a rock. The rock has a mass of 14g and a volume of 2cm3. What is the density of the rock?
a)
7 mL
b)
7 g/cm3
c)
28 g/cm3
d)
1/7 g/cm3
2.
What is the formula for density?
a)
density = mass x volume
b)
density = mass / volume
c)
density = mass + volume
d)
density = mass - volume
3.
Frank has a paper clip. It has a mass of 9g and a volume of 3cm3. What is its density?
a)
3 g/cm3
b)
1/3 g/cm3
c)
27 g/cm3
d)
39 g/cm3
4.
Two factors effecting the magnitude of the force of gravity between 2 objects are...
a)
mass and distance
b)
mass and matter
c)
distance and weight
d)
weight and mass
5.
A person would weigh more on Jupiter than on the Earth because . . .
a)
Jupiter has more mass, and therefore more gravity
b)
Jupiter has less mass, and therefore more gravity
c)
Jupiter has more mass, and therefore less gravity
d)
Jupiter has less mass and therefore less gravity
6.
What force keeps objects in our solar system orbiting our Sun?
a)
push
b)
gravity
c)
motion
d)
pull
7.
A[n] ______________ tide occurs when the sun is at right angles to the line between Earth and the moon.
a)
high
b)
neap
c)
low
d)
spring
8.
Differences in the moon's and sun's pull on different sides of the Earth cause _________.
a)
gravity
b)
lunar phases
c)
tides
d)
dabbing
9.
A[n] ___________ tide occurs when the sun, Earth, and the moon are nearly in a line.
a)
spring
b)
high
c)
low
d)
neap
10.
Tides are caused mainly by the differences in how much gravity from the moon and the sun pulls on different parts of the Earth.
a)
True
b)
False
11.
A solar eclipse only happens during a ________ moon.
a)
New
b)
Cresent
c)
Gibbous
d)
Full
12.
A lunar eclipse only happens during a ________ moon.
a)
New
b)
Cresent
c)
Gibbous
d)
Full
13.
Which type of eclipse is shown in this picture?
a)
Solar Eclipse
b)
Orbit
c)
Lunar Eclipse
d)
Total Eclipse
14.
Which type of eclipse is shown in the diagram?
a)
Solar Eclipse
b)
Lunar Eclipse
c)
Total Eclipse
d)
Partial Eclipse
15.
During the phases of the Moon, the Moon appears to change shape. This change in appearance is due to the Moon...
a)
physically changing size and shape.
b)
moving closer and then farther away from Earth.
c)
reflecting a different amount of light due to alignment with Earth and the Sun.
d)
having craters on its surface.
16.
What part of the moon do we see from Earth?
a)
all of it
b)
the same side
c)
none of it
d)
only one quarter
17.
About how long does it take the moon to make one complete cycle around the earth?
a)
65 days
b)
8 days
c)
365 days
d)
29.5 days
18.
Phases of the moon in which the moon appears to be getting larger are referred to as _.
a)
waxing
b)
waning
c)
new
d)
eclipse
19.
Name the moon phase
a)
waning crescent
b)
waxing crescent
c)
waning gibbous
d)
waxing gibbous
20.
Name the moon phase
a)
waning crescent
b)
waxing crescent
c)
waning gibbous
d)
waxing gibbous
21.
Name the moon phase
a)
First Quarter
b)
Last Quarter
c)
New Moon
d)
Full Moon
22.
Name the moon phase that would come AFTER this moon.
a)
waning crescent
b)
waxing crescent
c)
waning gibbous
d)
waxing gibbous
23.
When the Northern Hemisphere is pointing towards the sun, what season is the Southern Hemisphere?
a)
Winter
b)
Spring
c)
Fall
d)
Summer
24.
What are the reasons for the seasons?
a)
Earth's tilt and rotation.
b)
Earth's rotation and revolution.
c)
Earth's tilt and revolution.
d)
Earth's tilt and resolution
25.
Which moon phase is shown in this diagram?
a)
new moon
b)
first quarter
c)
full moon
d)
last quarter/3rd quarter
26.
Tides are caused by ___________
a)
wind
b)
gravitational pull of moon
c)
waves gravitation toward land
d)
rain
27.
Walking on the warm sand sand with your bare feet.
a)
conduction
b)
convection
c)
radiation
28.
The Gulf Stream is a current that brings warm ocean water from the south to the north.
a)
conduction
b)
convection
c)
radiation
29.
Which direction will the heat flow while this person holds a hot cup of tea?
a)
from the cup to her hand
b)
from her hand to the cup
c)
no heat is transferred
30.
Warm air rises and the cool air sinks.
a)
conduction
b)
convection
c)
radiation
31.
The sun shines down on this family as the play on the beach.
a)
conduction
b)
convection
c)
radiation
32.
How many kinds of heat transfer are there?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4 or more
33.
In heat transfer, heat always flows from the _______________ substance to the _______________ substance.
a)
Hotter to colder
b)
Colder to hotter
c)
Hotter to hotter
d)
Colder to colder
34.
The type of heat transfer that happens through direct contact of molecules or particles with each other is ___________________.
a)
Convection
b)
Conduction
c)
Radiation
d)
insulation.
35.
The kind of heat transfer that travels through space in electromagnetic waves is ______________________.
a)
insulation.
b)
Radiation
c)
Conduction
d)
Convection
36.
___________________ is the type of heat transfer that occurs in fluids, such as warm air rising and cold air sinking; creating wind.
a)
Convection
b)
Conduction
c)
Radiation
d)
insulation.
37.
What type of energy is in this picture?
a)
Kinetic
b)
Potential
c)
Electromagnetic
38.
When plants convert the sun's energy into food, which type of energy does the sun energy become?
a)
kinetic
b)
chemical
c)
thermal
39.
Energy due to motion is ____________ energy.
a)
Potential
b)
Energy
c)
Kinetic
d)
Friction
40.
The faster an object moves, the ________ kinetic energy it has.
a)
more
b)
less
c)
none of the above
d)
all of the above
41.
__________ is stored energy.
a)
Potential
b)
Kinetic
c)
None of the above
d)
All of the above
42.
Gravitational potential energy depends on the ________ and ________ of the object.
a)
Height and mass
b)
Friction and movement
c)
Mass and Movement
d)
Height and Friction
43.
Food has _________ energy.
a)
Potential
b)
Kinetic
c)
None of the above
d)
All of the above
44.
Can energy be destroyed?
a)
no
b)
yes
45.
Can energy be changed?
a)
yes
b)
no
46.
What kind of energy is in flowerpot sitting on a windowsill?
a)
Potential
b)
Kinetic
47.
Energy can not be created or destroyed, only converted from one form to another.
a)
true
b)
false
48.
At which point is potential energy greatest?
a)
W
b)
X
c)
Y
d)
Z
49.
On a roller coaster, where is maximum kinetic energy?
a)
At the bottom of a big hill
b)
When going around a corner
c)
When going upside down
d)
At the top of a big hill
50.
How do we name air masses?
a)
Water and temperature
b)
Air pressure
c)
Humidity and temperature
d)
Cold and warm
51.
How do we characterize an air mass that forms over the ocean?
a)
Dry
b)
Wet
c)
Cold
d)
Warm
52.
How do we characterize an air mass that forms over land?
a)
Dry
b)
Wet
c)
Cold
d)
Warm
53.
How do we characterize an air mass that forms over near the equator?
a)
Dry
b)
Wet
c)
Cold
d)
Warm
54.
How do we characterize an air mass that forms near the poles?
a)
Dry
b)
Wet
c)
Warm
d)
Cold
55.
What's the humidity and temperature of a continental tropical air mass?
a)
Wet and cold
b)
Dry and warm
c)
Wet and warm
d)
Dry and cold
56.
What's the humidity and temperature of a maritime tropical air mass?
a)
Wet and cold
b)
Dry and warm
c)
Wet and warm
d)
Dry and cold
57.
A wet and cold air mass would be a...
a)
Maritime polar
b)
Continental polar
c)
Maritime tropical
d)
Continental tropical
58.
A dry and cold air mass would be...
a)
Maritime polar
b)
Continental polar
c)
Maritime tropical
d)
Continental tropical
59.
What kind of weather happens during a warm front?
a)
Light rain or light snow
b)
Heavy rain or heavy snow
c)
Clear skies, temp. warms
d)
Clear skies, temp. cools
60.
What kind of weather happens during a warm front?
a)
Light rain or light snow
b)
Heavy rain or heavy snow
c)
Clear skies, temp. warms
d)
Clear skies, temp. cools
61.
What kind of weather happens during a cold front?
a)
Light rain or light snow
b)
Heavy rain or heavy snow
c)
Clear skies, temp. warms
d)
Clear skies, temp. cools
62.
What kind of weather happens after a cold front moves out?
a)
Light rain or light snow
b)
Heavy rain or heavy snow
c)
Clear skies, temp. warms
d)
Clear skies, temp. cools
63.
What kind of weather happens after a warm front moves out?
a)
Light rain or light snow
b)
Heavy rain or heavy snow
c)
Clear skies, temp. warms
d)
Clear skies, temp. cools
64.
Which front is this?
a)
Warm front
b)
Cold front
c)
Occluded front
d)
Stationary front
65.
Which front is this?
a)
Warm front
b)
Cold front
c)
Occluded front
d)
Stationary Front
66.
What is happening in Missouri along the cold front?
a)
Clear skies
b)
Severe weather
c)
Light rain or light snow
d)
Heavy rain or heavy snow
67.
What is happening along the warm front in Illinois?
a)
Clear skies
b)
Severe weather
c)
Light rain or light snow
d)
Thunderstorms or snowstorms
68.
Cold air is more_____ than warm air
a)
Dense
b)
Stale
c)
Colorful
69.
What kind of pressure predicts good weather?
a)
high
b)
low
c)
cold
d)
stationary
70.
In _________ pressure systems, air sinks:
a)
high
b)
low
c)
medium
d)
none
71.
In _______ pressure systems, air rises
a)
high
b)
low
c)
medium
d)
none
72.
stormy weather
a)
High Pressure System
b)
Low Pressure System
73.
fair weather
a)
High Pressure
b)
Low Pressure
74.
clear skies
a)
High Pressure
b)
Low Pressure
75.
cloudy skies
a)
High Pressure System
b)
Low Pressure System
76.
Which of the following is the smallest unit of life that can carry out all life functions?
a)
the mitochondria
b)
the vacuoles
c)
the nucleus
d)
the cell
77.
Which structures are found in every living cell?
a)
cell membrane and cytoplasm
b)
chloroplasts and mitochondria
c)
a cell wall and nucleus
d)
chloroplasts and cell wall
78.
Which cell structure is found in plant and animals cells and controls what can come into or leave a cell?
a)
cell membrane
b)
cytoplasm
c)
nucleus
d)
vacuole
79.
What is the function of the cell nucleus found in both plant and animal cells?
a)
to produce energy
b)
to control cell activity
c)
to remove waste products
d)
to allow molecules to enter the cell
80.
Cell organelles that are responsible for digesting food, worn out organelles and other cellular wastes are called ___________________.
a)
Mitochondria
b)
Vacuoles
c)
Lysosomes
d)
Chlororplasts
81.
What is one basic function of the vacuoles?
a)
circulating oxygen
b)
producing food
c)
controlling cell processes
d)
storing water
82.
Chloroplasts in plant cells allow the plant to perform a function that animal cells cannot do. What is the main function of the chloroplasts found in plant cells?
a)
to absorb light energy and manufacture food
b)
to remove waste materials by active transport
c)
to manufacture chemical energy from food
d)
to control the shape of the cell
83.
All cells need energy to function. Which cell organelle is responsible for producing energy in the cell?
a)
chloroplasts
b)
mitochondria
c)
nucleus
d)
vacuoles
84.
What is the function of a cell wall?
a)
to protect and support the cell
b)
to perform different functions in each cell
c)
to prevent water from passing through it
d)
to prevent oxygen from entering the cell
85.
In what part of the plant cell does the process of photosynthesis take place?
a)
nucleus
b)
mitochondria
c)
chloroplasts
d)
vacuoles
86.
Which of the following is not part of the cell theory?
a)
cells must contain DNA
b)
all living things are made from cells
c)
cells can only come from other cells
d)
cells are the basic unit of life
87.
The main purpose of the ____________ system is to break food particles into pieces that can be used.
a)
circulatory
b)
respiratory
c)
digestive
d)
skeletal
88.
What is responsible for delivering oxygen and removing carbon dioxide from the body?
a)
cell nucleus
b)
excretory system
c)
nervous tissue
d)
respiratory system
89.
The __________ system directs the body to inner and outer changes.
a)
digestive
b)
circulatory
c)
nervous
d)
skeletal
90.
Which of the following body systems work together for support, protection, and movement?
a)
respiratory and cardiovascular
b)
skeletal and muscular
c)
skeletal and integumentary
d)
digestive and respiratory
91.
Which of the following shows the levels of organization of an organism from LEAST to MOST complex.
a)
cells-tissues-systems-organs
b)
organs-cells-systems-tissues
c)
systems-organs-tissues-cells
d)
cells-tissues-organs-systems
92.
What body system removes the waste from your body?
a)
Circulatory
b)
Excretory
c)
Digestive
d)
Respiratory
93.
Which body system transports oxygen and nutrients through out the body?
a)
Muscular System
b)
Nervous System
c)
Digestive System
d)
Circulatory System
94.
What system receives oxygen and gets rid of carbon dioxide?
a)
Heart
b)
Muscular System
c)
Veins
d)
Respiratory System
95.
The main purpose of the _______ system is to ensure the continuation of the species.
a)
respiratory
b)
reproductive
c)
circulatory
d)
endocrine
96.
What system is the body's way of fighting off pathogens that would make it sick?
a)
Excretory
b)
Immune
c)
Digestive
d)
Endocrine
97.
When all of the organisms of a species have died it is called
a)
evolution
b)
extinction
c)
adaptation
d)
natural selection
98.
Which layer is the oldest?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
99.
When the DNA of an organism is altered it is referred to as…
a)
Mutation
b)
Gene Flow
c)
Genetic Drift
d)
Sexual Selection
100.
Which term refers to the process by which individuals that are better suited to the environment survive and reproduce therefore passing down their genes to their offspring?
a)
Evolution
b)
Variation
c)
Adaptation
d)
Natural Selection
101.
The environment around Manchester, England, changed during the Industrial Revolution. How did this change affect peppered moths living in the area?
a)
Natural selection favored moths with dark wings because predators could not see them on the soot-colored trees.
b)
Natural selection favored moths with white wings that were easy for predators to see.
c)
Natural selection favored moths with white wings because predators could not see them on the soot-colored trees.
d)
Natural selection caused moths with white wings to become extinct.
102.
A remnant or trace of an organism from the past is called a _______.
a)
Ancestor
b)
Skeleton
c)
Fossil
d)
Imprints
103.
Why are advantageous traits more likely to be passed onto offspring?
a)
Because they are more likely to survive and reproduce.
b)
Because they come from dominant alleles.
c)
Because they come from recessive alleles.
d)
Because the trait is an acquired phenotype.
104.
The gradual change in species over time is...
a)
Evolution
b)
Nucleotide
c)
Adaptation
d)
Natural Selection
105.
To adjust to a changing environment
a)
Mutation
b)
Adapt
106.
What characteristic did Darwin observe about the finches on the Galapagos Islands?
a)
Their feathers
b)
Genotypes
c)
Their beaks
d)
Their body sizes
107.
If two organisms have similar traits of DNA they are probably
a)
share a common ancestor
b)
share a common environment
c)
share a common population
d)
speciation
108.
What does Darwin's theory of evolution suggest?
a)
species change over time
b)
extinct species are not related to living species
c)
different species can interbreed
d)
animals that look alike are most closely related
109.
Which best describes these fossils?
a)
The oldest fossils can be found on the lower layers
b)
The oldest fossils can be found at the top layers
c)
The youngest fossils are always found on the bottom layers
d)
You can not tell the age of any of these fossils
110.
Heredity is the passing of traits from _____________________ to _____________________
a)
predators to prey
b)
water to rain
c)
parents to offspring
d)
fungi to protists
111.
___________________________ is the study of how traits are passed on, or inherited.
a)
dominant traits
b)
ratio
c)
phenotype
d)
genetics
112.
One trait that is ALWAYS present and causes the other traits to disappear is a ________________________
a)
recessive trait
b)
aggressive trait
c)
absent trait
d)
dominant trait
113.
_____________________ is the appearance of an organism, or how it looks
a)
phenotype
b)
ratio
c)
recessive trait
d)
heredity
114.
Dominant or recessive?
tt
tt
a)
Dominant
b)
Recessive
115.
Dominant or recessive?
Dd
Dd
a)
Dominant
b)
recessive
c)
neither
d)
homozygous
116.
Dominant alleles are represented by a:
a)
Male gene
b)
lowercase letter
c)
recessive trait
d)
capital letter
117.
AA and Aa always show up as
a)
dominant
b)
recessive
118.
aa always shows up as
a)
dominant
b)
recessive
119.
The number of pairs of human chromosomes is
a)
11
b)
12
c)
23
d)
46
120.
The total number of human chromosomes is
a)
23
b)
46
c)
92
121.
all matter is made of what
a)
energy
b)
atoms
c)
electrons
d)
compounds
122.
The positive particles of an atom are
a)
electrons
b)
positrons
c)
neutrons
d)
protons
123.
an atom with atomic number 6 would have how many protons
a)
6
b)
12
c)
3
d)
cannot be determined
124.
Particles in an atom that are neutral and have no charge are
a)
negatrons
b)
electrons
c)
neutrons
d)
protons
125.
A particle that moves around the nucleus is a(n)...
a)
Proton
b)
Neutron
c)
Electron
d)
Quark
126.
Element is a
a)
pure substance
b)
compound
c)
mixture
d)
molecule
127.
How many elements are in HHe
a)
3
b)
4
c)
2
d)
5
128.
Is salt (NaCI) a compound or a element
a)
Compound
b)
element
129.
Which of the following is not a compound?
a)
HCl
b)
Cl
c)
NaCl
d)
CO2
130.
How many elements are represented in the compound?
Na2CO3
Na2CO3
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
131.
The difference between elements and compounds is that...
a)
elements can be separated by physical means and compounds cannot.
b)
elements cannot be separated by physical means and compounds can.
c)
elements contain only one kind of atom and compounds contain more than one kind of atom.
d)
elements contain more than one kind of atom and compounds contain only one kind of atom.
132.
What is salad?
a)
element
b)
compound
c)
mixture
133.
Which of the following substances is a compound?
a)
oxygen
b)
salt
c)
helium
134.
Can a mixture be separated?
a)
No
b)
Yes
c)
Only sometimes
135.
Molecules are
a)
2 atoms bound together
b)
2 elements bound together
c)
2 or more atoms mixed together
d)
2 or more atoms bound together
136.
What do we call a chemical substance made up of 2 or more different types atoms bonded together?
a)
formula
b)
atom
c)
subscript
d)
compound
137.
The smallest unbreakable unit of a compound is called
a)
subscript
b)
proton
c)
formula
d)
molecule
138.
2H2O
How many H2O molecules are present?
How many H2O molecules are present?
a)
1
b)
4
c)
2
d)
8
139.
How many elements are in C6H12O6?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
140.
How many atoms are there TOTAL in:
H2SO4
H2SO4
a)
6
b)
5
c)
7
d)
3
141.
Is melting butter for popcorn a chemical or physical change?
a)
chemical
b)
physical
142.
Is bleaching your hair a physical or chemical change?
a)
physical
b)
chemical
143.
Is burning wood a chemical or physical change?
a)
chemical
b)
physical
144.
A change in the size, shape, or state of matter.
a)
chemical change
b)
physical change
c)
chemical reaction
d)
electron change
145.
Which of the following is NOT an example of a physical change?
a)
crumpled paper
b)
pencil sharpening
c)
shrunken clothing
d)
sour milk
146.
Kim puts an ice cube in a beaker and it melts. This is a good example of:
a)
a physical change.
b)
a chemical change.
c)
an experiment.
d)
an analysis.
147.
Photosynthesis is an example of a
a)
physical change
b)
chemical change
148.
Adding baking soda and vinegar together and it fizzes and creates carbon dioxide.
a)
Chemical
b)
Physical
149.
When you break a cracker into pieces it is a
a)
Chemical change
b)
Physical change
c)
Chemical Weathering
d)
Physical Weathering
150.
what is the definition of chemical change?
a)
any change that results in the formation of new chemical substances.
b)
changing clothes
c)
matter cannot be created or destroyed, only change form
d)
changes affecting the form of a chemical substance, but not its chemical composition.
151.
what is the definition of physical change?
a)
any change that results in the formation of new chemical substances.
b)
rusting
c)
changes affecting the form of a chemical substance, but not its chemical composition.
d)
any property that is measurable, whose value describes a state of a physical system
152.
The thinnest layer of the Earth is the ___________.
a)
mantle
b)
crust
c)
core
153.
Tectonic plates are made up of continental crust and ________ crust.
a)
continental
b)
oceanic
c)
plates
d)
mantle
154.
What describes the outer core?
a)
solid
b)
liquid
c)
viscous
d)
gas
155.
Why is the inner core solid?
a)
its unknown
b)
what it's made of
c)
the pressure
d)
it is colder than the outer core
156.
What is the correct order (starting from the surface) of Earth's layers?
a)
crust, outer core, inner core, mantle
b)
mantle, outer core, inner core, crust
c)
crust, mantle, outer core, inner core
d)
outer core, inner core, crust, mantle
157.
What happens to temperature as we move from the crust to the inner core?
a)
Decreases
b)
Increases
c)
Nothing
158.
Which layer of Earth has the GREATEST density?
a)
crust
b)
mantle
c)
outer core
d)
inner core
159.
The type of plate boundary where two plates come together is a .....
a)
Convergent Boundary
b)
Divergent Boundary
c)
Transform Boundary
d)
Plate Boundary
160.
Which of the following causes Earth's tectonic plates to move?
a)
Energy from the Sun
b)
Magnetic Pole Reversal
c)
Convection currents in the mantle
d)
Faults in Mountain Ranges
161.
What type of plate boundary is this?
a)
Plate
b)
Divergent
c)
Convergent
d)
Transform
162.
A divergent boundary occurs when plates ....
a)
Pull apart
b)
Come together
c)
Slide past each other
d)
subducting
163.
What type of plate boundary is this?
a)
Transform
b)
Convergent
c)
Divergent
d)
Plate
164.
A fault is formed by the movement of a __________ plate boundary
a)
Transform
b)
Convergent
c)
Divergent
165.
Mountains are created when....
a)
Two continental plates collide
b)
Two oceanic plates pull apart
c)
An Oceanic plate subducts under a Continental Plate
d)
Two continental plates pull apart
166.
The Great Rift Valley in Africa and the Mid-Ocean Ridge were all created by this boundary
a)
Divergent
b)
Convergent
c)
Reform
d)
Transform
167.
Which layer has convection currents?
a)
Inner Core
b)
Outer Core
c)
Mantle
d)
Crust
168.
subduction zones in the ocean can create which features?
a)
islands
b)
volcanoes
c)
earthquakes
d)
all of the above
169.
What is this image...
a)
Revolving boundary
b)
San Andreas (Transform)
c)
Convergent
170.
The area around the pacific plate where boundaries form is called...
a)
death ring
b)
fire zone
c)
ring of fire
d)
zone of fire
171.
This area contains over 70 percent of volcanoes and 90 percent of earthquakes in the world.
a)
North American plate
b)
ring of fire
c)
fiery rings
d)
African plate
172.
What are the 3 major types of rocks?
a)
Igneous, Metamorphic, Sedimentary
b)
Metamorphic, Igneous, Cementation
c)
Brown, Red, Gray
d)
Streak, Hardness, Breakage
173.
This rock was found near the mouth of a volcano. What type of rock is this?
a)
Sedimentary
b)
Igneous
c)
Metamorphic
174.
This rock was formed by smaller pieces of rock that settled at the bottom of a lake millions of years ago. What type of rock is this?
a)
Sedimentary
b)
Igneous
c)
Metamorphic
175.
What is deposition?
a)
Dropping off sediment
b)
Movement of sediment
c)
Breaking down of sediment
176.
The process when rocks break into smaller pieces due to exposure to natural elements is called
a)
erosion
b)
weathering
c)
sediments
d)
deposition
177.
The movement of weathered material (sediment) is called?
a)
weathering
b)
erosion
c)
deposition
d)
cementation
178.
Which type of rock is formed from INTENSE heat and pressure?
a)
igneous
b)
sedimentary
c)
metamorphic
179.
The change from liquid to solid, or the reverse of melting, is called:
a)
freezing
b)
condensation
c)
boiling
d)
sublimation
180.
What happens when the particles in a gas lose enough thermal energy to form a liquid?
a)
condensation
b)
vaporization
c)
Mrs. Bowden farts
d)
freezing
181.
The state of matter that has definite shape and definite volume is:
a)
solid.
b)
liquid.
c)
gas.
182.
The state of matter that has indefinite volume and indefinite shape is
a)
Solid
b)
Liquid
c)
Gas
183.
Adding more heat energy to particles of matter will
a)
make them move slower
b)
make them move faster
c)
make them stop moving
d)
destroy them
184.
In which state of matter are particles moving the slowest?
a)
solid
b)
liquid
c)
gas
d)
gummy bears
185.
A puddle of water dries up after a long time. What process has taken place?
a)
melting
b)
freezing
c)
evaporation
d)
condensation
186.
Taking energy away from a substance will make its particles move
a)
more slowly
b)
more quickly
c)
at the same speed
187.
The state of matter that has indefinite shape and definite volume is
a)
solid
b)
liquid
c)
gas
188.
Which organelle performs PHOTOSYNTHESIS?
a)
Chloroplast
b)
Mitochondria
189.
Which of the following is the correct equation for PHOTOSYNTHESIS?
a)
CO2 + light + H2O --> O2 + Sugar
b)
CO2 + sugar + H2O --> O2 + light
c)
O2 + light + H2O --> CO2 + Sugar
d)
CO2 + O2 + H2O --> Light+ Sugar
190.
What is the ultimate ORIGINAL source of energy for living things
a)
Sugar
b)
Sun
c)
Moon
d)
Carbon Dioxide
191.
What are the products of photosynthesis?
a)
water and carbon dioxide
b)
oxygen and glucose
c)
oxygen and carbon dioxide
d)
oxygen and water
192.
Plants need ________ for photosynthesis
a)
oxygen
b)
soil
c)
carbon dioxide
d)
sugar
193.
What is the pigment in chloroplasts that performs photosynthesis?
a)
Chlorosynthesis
b)
Chlorophyll
c)
ADP
d)
Electron Transport
194.
What process is the diagram representing?
a)
Photosynthesis
b)
Soil development
c)
Plant reproduction
d)
Nitrogen Cycle
Nitrogen cycle
Nitrogen cycle
195.
Which group do fungi, bacteria, and termites belong to?
a)
decomposers
b)
producers
c)
herbivores
d)
omnivores
196.
Which describes a decomposer?
a)
an organism that eats only plants
b)
an organism that makes its own food
c)
an organism that breaks down dead matter
d)
an organism that recieves energy from the sun
197.
Examples of how humans negatively affect local ecosystems are
a)
Building dams, deforestation (cutting down trees), adding point sources to nearby streams to allow for run-off, building roads and structures, and salting roads.
b)
Creating laws to prohibit fishing from local streams.
c)
Planting trees and other plants to attract native species.
d)
Removing non-native species from the environment.
198.
Pollution is anything that people add to the environment that__________________.
a)
disappearing particles
b)
benefits an ecosystem
c)
produces plants
d)
harms living things
199.
Where does an off spring get its traits in asexual reproduction?
a)
From both parents
b)
From only one parent
c)
From neither parent
d)
There are no traits handed down
200.
Sexual reproduction requires _____ parents and asexual reproduction requires ___ parents
a)
1,1
b)
2,2
c)
2,1
d)
1,2
201.
What is an advantage of sexual reproduction?
a)
Allows genetic variation
b)
Only needs one parent
c)
Happens very quickly
d)
Offspring are exact copies of parent
202.
What is one disadvantage of sexual reproduction?
a)
Only one parent needed
b)
Off spring are exact copies of parents
c)
Happens very quickly
d)
Needs two parents
203.
All of the offspring of an organism have the same genetic material, which is identical to the parent organism. From this, we can conclude that this organism -
a)
makes its own food
b)
is unicellular
c)
live in a marine habitat
d)
reproduces asexually
204.
Why does sexual reproduction result in more genetic diversity than asexual reproduction?
a)
Traits from two parents are combined.
b)
More organisms reproduce this way.
c)
Offspring grow in different environments.
d)
Offspring come from identical parents.
205.
Many invertebrate animals, such as the hydra, reproduce asexually. What form of reproduction in this stage of the life cycle of the hydra is shown in the diagram?
a)
binary fission
b)
budding
c)
fragmentation
d)
vegetation propagation
206.
Transfer of pollen to a stigma, plants reproduce in this manner.
a)
Pollination
b)
fertilization
c)
Budding
d)
haploid
207.
Why is the Equator warmest?
a)
Because it is closest to the sun.
b)
Because it receives the most direct sunlight
c)
Because no clouds form here.
d)
Because it is far from the sun
208.
One rotation of Earth is equal to
a)
a day.
b)
a year.
210.
How long does Earth take to make a complete rotation?
a)
365 days
b)
24 hours
210.
How long does Earth take to make a complete rotation?
a)
365 days
b)
24 hours
211.
Mass cannot be created or__________ during a chemical reaction?
a)
Reacted
b)
Transferred
c)
Born
d)
Destroyed
212.
This type of system does not interact with the world around it. It does all the work by itself
a)
Closed System
b)
Open System
213.
The tool used to measure the mass of a substance or object is a ______________.
a)
balance
b)
graduated cylinder
c)
ruler
d)
thermometer
214.
Which units of measurement are used for volume?
a)
grams
b)
centimeters
c)
grams/milliliter
d)
milliliter
215.
Which lab tool might you use to measure the volume of a liquid?
a)
electric scale
b)
bunsen burner
c)
test tube
d)
graduated cylinder
216.
Put the liquids in order from most dense to least dense?
a)
4, 3, 2, 1
b)
1, 2, 3, 4
c)
3, 4, 2, 1,
d)
4, 3, 1, 2
217.
Which liquid is the least dense?
a)
oil
b)
water
c)
syrup
d)
plastic bottle
218.
Which box has a higher density?
a)
Box A
b)
Box B
c)
cannot be determined
d)
they are the same
219.
An object with which of the following densities will float on water?
a)
0.7 g/cm3
b)
1.2 g/cm3
c)
3.5 g/cm3
d)
11.4 g/cm3
220.
A can of Coke will sink in a bowl of water. A can of Diet Coke will float in a bowl of water. What does this tell you about the density of the Diet Coke?
a)
it is bigger than 1
b)
it is smaller than 1
c)
it is equal to 1
d)
it is equal to -1
221.
Why do ice cubes float in a glass of water?
a)
the ice cubes are more dense than the water
b)
the water is more dense than the ice cubes
c)
the water is more dense than the glass
d)
the ice is more dense than the glass
222.
Volume is the amount of space an object takes up.
a)
True
b)
False
223.
What units measure mass? Pick 2!
a)
inch
b)
gram
c)
kilogram
d)
liter
224.
What is the volume of the screw?
a)
10 mL
b)
13 mL
c)
16 mL
d)
3 mL
225.
What is mass?
a)
the force of an object caused by gravity
b)
the amount of space something takes up
c)
the amount of matter in an object
d)
how fast something is moving
100 %