WorksheetsSemester 2 Review
Total questions: 193
Worksheet time: 2hrs 0mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
1. Situation costs are critical to a firm that wishes to
a)
avoid skilled laborers.
b)
minimize production costs inside the plant.
c)
minimize transport costs.
d)
identify unique characteristics of a particular industry.
2.
Producers of automobiles select assembly plant locations primarily for their closer access to
a)
government subsidies.
b)
raw materials
c)
water transportation.
d)
labor markets.
3.
1. Soda bottling is an example of a
a)
perishable industry.
b)
labor intensive industry.
c)
bulk-gaining industry.
d)
communications-oriented industry.
4.
The Chicago area became a significant asset for the Western Great Lakes region owing to its steel industries and its
a)
large market area.
b)
access to the nation's transportation network.
c)
greater distance from raw materials essential for the steel industry.
d)
skilled labor force.
5.
A company which uses more than one mode of transport will often locate near what?
a)
Factory
b)
Consumer Products
c)
Raw materials
d)
Break-of-bulk Point
6.
Why are the factories in Mexico close to the border?
a)
Where the best resources are
b)
The geography is best there
c)
Easy to ship in and out
7.
What are the factories in Mexico called?
a)
Mariachi
b)
Maquiladoras
c)
Commercial Factories
d)
No factories in Mexico
8.
According to Alfred Weber, which one of the following costs of production is the most important factor in locating a new industry?
a)
Labor
b)
Transportation
c)
Raw Materials
d)
Agglomeration Costs
9.
Targets generally have Best Buys, Sally Beauty Salons, Famous Footwear, JC Penny, & Petsmarts near them. This is known as what?
a)
Maquiladora Industires
b)
Just-in-time planning
c)
Agglomerations
d)
Outsourcing
10.
AT&T having their call centers stationed in India and China is known as what industry practice?
a)
Agglomerations
b)
Outsourcing
c)
NAFTA
d)
Special Economic Zones
11.
If a product is heavier when it arrives at the factory than when it leaves (trees--> paper, potatoes-->chips) then the factory will be ____________ to the market
a)
closer
b)
farther
12.
A Doctor or Lawyer would be in which economic sector?
a)
Primary
b)
Secondary
c)
Tertiary
d)
Qinary
13.
Another word for progress. . . This describes the wealth and well being of a country as it grows and prospers.
a)
Dependency Ratio
b)
Primary Sector
c)
GNI
d)
Development
14.
Shows the influence of women in a society by measuring women's income, participation in labor force, and political influence.
a)
Human Development Index
b)
GNP
c)
Gender Empowerment Index
d)
GDP
15.
The set of goals that were made by the UN in 2000 and were revisited in recent years to evaluate progress on development of LDC's in the world.
a)
HDI
b)
Millennium Development Goals
c)
Informal Economy
d)
UNHCR
16.
The term used for a country with high birth rates, high death rates, little economic growth, and a high population in the primary sector.
a)
MDC
b)
LDC
c)
HDI
d)
GNP
17.
Mining and farming are part of which economic sector?
a)
Primary
b)
Secondary
c)
Tertiary
d)
Quaternary
18.
What stage of Rostow's Development Index does technology first get introduced?
a)
1-Traditional Society
b)
2-Preconditions of takeoff
c)
3-takeoff
d)
4-drive to maturaty
19.
What job sector is teaching in?
a)
Primary
b)
Secondary
c)
Tertiary
d)
None
20.
What is GDI
a)
A process of improvement in the material conditions of people through diffusion of knowledge and technology
b)
Compares the level of development of women with that both sexes
c)
The value of the total output of goods and services produced in a country in a given time period
d)
Compares the ability of women and men to participate in economic and political decision making
21.
How is Self-Sufficiency acomplished
a)
Making it difficult to export
b)
high import taxes
c)
quotas on imports
d)
ALL
22.
A Country with an HDI of .92 is most likely what type of country
a)
MDC
b)
LDC
c)
In between
23.
What makes up the human development index?
a)
life expectancy
b)
per capita income
c)
education level and literacy rate
d)
all of the above
24.
What does the human development index of a country tell us?
a)
the qualify of life in a country
b)
the quantity of life in a country
25.
What is per capita income?
a)
the total amount of money a country makes in a year
b)
the average amount of money earned by each person in a country
c)
the amount of capital a person owns
d)
none of the above
26.
What is life expectancy?
a)
the oldest a person is expected to live in a country
b)
the average number of years a person in a country is expected to live
27.
What is mortality rate?
a)
a measure of the number of deaths in a particular population
b)
death
c)
life
28.
What factors affect life expectancy?
a)
level of poverty
b)
diet and nutrition
c)
number of doctors
d)
all of the above
29.
What is infant mortality rate?
a)
the number of infant born in an area
b)
none of the above
c)
the number of infants who die for every thousand births
30.
Newly industrialized countries (NICs) like Brazil and Mexico are considered part of the
a)
Core
b)
Periphery
c)
Semi-Periphery
d)
External
31.
Which of the following is not an economic measure of development?
a)
GDP
b)
Purchasing Power Parity
c)
GNI
d)
literacy rate
32.
Which economic measure of development divides the total value of goods and services produced within a country in a given year by its population?
a)
GDP
b)
GDP per capita
c)
Purchasing Power Parity
d)
GINI coefficient
33.
Whose development model consists of a 5 stage process that countries go through as they develop economically?
a)
Losch
b)
Rostow
c)
Wallerstein
d)
Weber
34.
Which movement has aims to improve economic prospects for producers and laborers in LDCs?
a)
fair trade
b)
maquiladora movement
c)
sustainability initiative
d)
World Trade Organization
35.
Countries in _____ and _____ would likely have the highest rates of gender equality.
a)
North America: Western Europe
b)
South America: Western Europe
c)
North America: South America
d)
East Asia: South America
36.
Sub-Saharan Africa has all of the following problems, EXCEPT
a)
Corrupt and/or inefficient governments
b)
Low levels of female empowerment
c)
A lack of mineral resources
d)
A relatively uneducated populace
37.
This model shows how countries can become developed through 5 stages of increased international trade and modernization.
a)
Rostow
b)
Wallerstein
c)
Self-Sufficiency
d)
fair trade
38.
Mexico, China, Russia, India, Brazil, and South Africa are all
a)
peripheral countries
b)
MDCs
c)
core countries
d)
semi-peripheral countries
39.
Which types of countries' economies rely primarily on primary economic activities?
a)
Core Countries
b)
NICs
c)
Semi-Periphery Countries
d)
Periphery Countries
40.
Which region of the world has no core countries?
a)
North America
b)
Western Europe
c)
Oceania
d)
Sub-Saharan Africa
41.
Where are most core countries located?
a)
Western Hemisphere
b)
Eastern Hemisphere
c)
Northern Hemisphere
d)
Southern Hemisphere
42.
Farming, mining, fishing, and forestry are all considered to be
a)
Primary Economic Activities
b)
Secondary Economic Activities
c)
Tertiary Economic Activities
d)
Quaternary Economic Activities
43.
Created by Wallerstein to show that the world is interconnected and that we are all interdependent on each other. Divides us into three tiers of economic prosperity.
a)
Dependency Theory
b)
Neo liberal counterrevolution
c)
structural adjustment loan
d)
World Systems theory
44.
GDP PPP shows..
a)
The total income of a country
b)
How much people earn on average
c)
How much you can buy with your money
45.
Which of the following is a renewable resource?
a)
hydroelectricity
b)
oil
c)
coal
d)
fossil fuel
46.
Which country in the world uses the most fossil fuels per capita?
a)
China
b)
Australia
c)
United States
d)
India
47.
Which of the following is NOT a major source of electricity in the United States?
a)
petroleum
b)
natural gas
c)
coal
d)
nuclear power
48.
The UN considers all but the following factors when determining a country's level of development, its HDI (Human Development Index).
a)
Life expectancy
b)
Literacy rate
c)
Income per capita
d)
Natural increase rate
49.
Which three indicators are used to measure the HDI?
a)
Literacy rate, number of trees and GNI
b)
Life expectancy, schooling and GNI per capita
50.
What is GNI?
a)
Gross National Income - the amount of money a country makes
b)
Grand National Industry - the biggest industry in a country
51.
Which of the following is the best example of Outsourcing?
a)
An El Salvadorian immigrant illegally immigrates to the USA to find work
b)
An American Tech Company fires it's American Employees and hires people in Bangladesh to do the same job for 1/4 the cost
c)
A European worker moves to the USA and gets a high paying job at a tech company.
d)
An American company decides to change it's steel contracts from Japanese companies to Chinese companies
52.
What allowed for the creation of Maquiladoras?
a)
NAFTA
b)
NATO
c)
ANSEAN
d)
HDI
53.
Which of the following is NOT a textile?
a)
Pants
b)
Blanket
c)
Shirt
d)
Wrapper
54.
Which of the following people best fits the classification of an entrepreneur?
a)
A College student studying Business
b)
A Doctor who gets hired at a hospital that does medical research
c)
A farmer who decides to give into the economic advantages and uses GMO seeds for the first time.
d)
A person who pitches their idea for a new business on the TV show Shark Tank
55.
The maximum distance people are willing to travel for a service.
a)
range
b)
hearth
c)
hinterland
d)
redlineing
56.
The central city and its surrounding suburbs is known as a
a)
Megalopolis
b)
Zoning Laws
c)
Urban Morphology
d)
Urban Area
57.
A model of the internal structure of cities in which social groups are spatially arranged in a series of rings.
a)
Concentric Zone Model
b)
Griffen-Ford Latin American City Model
c)
Peripheral Model
d)
Sector Model
58.
In the United States, the combination of all metropolitan statistical areas and micropolitan statistical areas.
a)
Zone of Transition
b)
Combined Statistical Area
c)
Core Based Statistical Area
d)
Micropolitan Statistical Area
59.
A model showing a CBD that is divided into three groups/sections: a colonial CBD, a periodic and informal market place and a traditional business center. The neighborhoods in this model are often based on ethnic connections and the periphery of the city is composed of squatter settlements due to rapid industrialization.
a)
Sector Model
b)
De Blij Sub-Saharan City Model
c)
Burgess' Model
d)
New Donut Model
60.
A model showing a CBD that is divided into three groups/sections: a colonial CBD, a periodic and informal market place and a traditional business center. The neighborhoods in this model are often based on ethnic connections and the periphery of the city is composed of squatter settlements due to rapid industrialization.
a)
Sector Model
b)
De Blij Sub-Saharan City Model
c)
Burgess' Model
d)
New Donut Model
61.
Small county subdivisions, usually containing 5,000 persons, delineated by the U.S Census Bureau as areas of relatively uniform population characteristics, economic status, and living conditions.
a)
Census Tract
b)
Exurbs
c)
Suburbs
d)
Disamenity Sector
62.
Small county subdivisions, usually containing 5,000 persons, delineated by the U.S Census Bureau as areas of relatively uniform population characteristics, economic status, and living conditions.
a)
Census Tract
b)
Exurbs
c)
Suburbs
d)
Disamenity Sector
63.
A ring of land maintained by parks, agriculture, or other types of open space to limit the sprawl of an urban area
a)
Greenbelt
b)
Urban Land
c)
Green Land Usage
d)
Sprawl Limitation
64.
A model of the internal structure of cities, created by Harris and Ullman, in which social groups are arranged around in a collection of nodes of activities
a)
Multiple Nuclei Model
b)
Concentric Zone Model
c)
Peripheral Model
d)
Sector Model
65.
A model of North American urban areas consisting in an inner city surrounded by large suburban residential and business areas tied together by a belt way or ring road.
a)
Peripheral Model
b)
New Donut Model
c)
Filtering
d)
Urban Area Model
66.
A model of the internal structures of cites in which social groups are arranged around a series of sectors, or wedges, radiating out from the central business district.
a)
Sector Model
b)
Multiple Nuclei Model
c)
Zone in Transition
d)
Concentric Zone Model
67.
A group in society prevented from participating in the material benefits of an ore developed society because of a variety of social and economic characteristics.
a)
Poverty
b)
Underemployed
c)
Underclass
d)
Exurbs
68.
The process of converting a neighborhood from a predominantly low-renter renter-occupied area to a predominantly middle-class owner-owned area
a)
Renewal
b)
Gentrification
c)
Conversion of Area
d)
Urban Renewal
69.
Annexation is
a)
the process of a city legally adding more land.
b)
The process of an unincorporated area legally defining its boundaries.
c)
The process of wealthy individuals settling into neighborhoods near the CBD.
d)
The process of removing underclass residents from inner city neighborhoods.
70.
All of the following describe edge cites except
a)
they are more convenient places of employment for newer suburban communities.
b)
they make it easier for traffic planners to design mass transit systems.
c)
other uses such as shopping malls and apartment complexes are also present.
d)
they typically are located at the intersections of highways.
71.
Which urban model best explains the spatial impact of automobiles and the construction of interstate highways on metropolitan areas in the United States?
a)
concentric ring
b)
peripheral/galactic city model
c)
sector model
d)
multiple nuclei model
72.
Which of the following settlement types is likely to use the largest percentage of land space for residents?
a)
town
b)
suburb
c)
hamlet
d)
physical city
73.
Unrestricted low-density development of residential and commercial activities over a large expanse of land is
a)
sprawl
b)
edge city
c)
new urbanism
d)
smart growth
74.
Squatter settlements in Least Developed Countries (LDCs) cities are usually located
a)
along major highways
b)
on the outskirts of the urban area
c)
in warehouse districts
d)
adjacent to industrial areas
75.
Large cities develop many nodes around which different types of people and activities cluster. This describes the
a)
peripheral/galactic
b)
multiple nuclei
c)
sector
d)
concentric
76.
What type of land use dominates on the periphery of the Latin American Model?
a)
squatter settlements
b)
industrial activity
c)
commerical
d)
middle class residental
77.
The minimum number of people needed to support a business is called the
a)
range
b)
threshold
c)
bid rent
d)
radius
78.
Young single recent college graduates who move into distressed inner city neighborhoods and refurbish their new residences would be an example of
a)
blockbusting
b)
red lining
c)
gentrification
d)
white flight
79.
The largest major population concentration of North America is
a)
from Toronto to Montreal.
b)
A. from Miami to Jacksonville.
c)
from San Diego to San Francisco
d)
from Washington D.C. to Boston.
80.
In Hoyt’s Sector Model lower income neighborhoods are usually located
a)
in a wedge that extends from the CBD to the suburbs.
b)
adjacent to the industrial and transportation corridor
c)
on the east side of the city.
d)
in the first ring around the CBD.
81.
Formulated by Christaller to explain the size and distribution of cities in terms of a competitive supply of goods and services dispersed to populations. Bigger centers have a larger hinterland, while smaller centers have smaller hinterland and less specialty and high-order goods.
a)
Central Place Theory
b)
Christaller's Theory
c)
Christaller's Place Theory
d)
Central Hinterland Theory
82.
A pattern of settlements in a country such that the largest settlement has more than twice as many people as the second-ranking settlement
a)
Primate City Rule
b)
Secondary City Rule
c)
Dense Cuty
d)
Dense Settlements
83.
A pattern of settlements in a country such that the nth largest settlement is 1/n the population of the largest settlement. Developed countries tend to conform to this rule, while developing countries tend to have one primate city.
a)
Rank-Size Rule
b)
City-Size Rule
c)
City Development Rule
d)
Primate City Size Rule
84.
What was the first hearth of civilization?
a)
Peru
b)
Nile
c)
Indus
d)
Mesopotamia
85.
Large cities are economic hubs with radiating connections for commerce according to
a)
Von Thunen
b)
Concentric Ring
c)
Central Place Theory
d)
none of these
86.
What geometric pattern is associated with Christaller’s Central Place Theory?
a)
square
b)
hexagon
c)
circle
d)
pentagon
87.
A primate city is
a)
when the largest city is located on the periphery.
b)
the largest city in a region of a country.
c)
the most important city in a country.
d)
when the largest city in a country is twice the size of the next largest city.
88.
According to the classic bid-rent curve, what happens to the value of land as one gets closer to the Central Business District (CBD)?
a)
Land gets used more extensively.
b)
Land gets more expensive.
c)
Land gets used less intensively.
d)
Land gets more affordable along busy streets.
89.
What promoted urbanization more than any other event?
a)
highways
b)
industrial revolution
c)
commericalization
d)
minimum wage
90.
From largest to smallest the urban hierarchy of the following would go...
City, Town, ________, Hamlet
City, Town, ________, Hamlet
a)
Suburb
b)
Mega-City
c)
Village
d)
County
91.
________ is the process of settlement, formation, expansion, and change.
a)
Suburbanization
b)
Urbanization
c)
Urban Sprawl
d)
City Growth
92.
Street patterns in Medieval European cities resemble
a)
A grid pattern
b)
A chaotic, twisting layout
c)
Concentric Circles
d)
Grid system with diagonal boulevards
93.
Industries during the 1800s located near the CBD to be close to
a)
Transportation lines
b)
The expanding urban population
c)
Affordable land
d)
Low-cost storage
94.
What is the population of the fourth largest city in a country where the rank-size rule applies if the largest city is two million in population?
a)
250,000
b)
1,000,000
c)
500,000
d)
100,000
95.
Which of the following is NOT one of the three most influential cities in the world?
a)
New York
b)
London
c)
Tokyo
d)
Los Angeles
96.
The process of dividing older inner city homes into smaller apartments due to declining property values is know as
a)
Redlining
b)
Filtering
c)
Gentrification
d)
Subdividing
97.
Grid street patterns are most typical for cities in
a)
North America
b)
South America
c)
Asia
d)
Europe
98.
Inner city neighborhoods face all of the following challenges except
a)
a lack of social and economic diversity
b)
a culture of poverty
c)
deteriorating housing
d)
increased crime
99.
Financial institutions refused to offer loans to risky neighborhoods in cities.
a)
McMansions
b)
Blockbusting
c)
Redlining
d)
Racial Steering
100.
Tearing down and then rebuilding new supersized homes.
a)
McMansions
b)
Blockbusting
c)
Gentrification
d)
New Urbanism
101.
Which of the following is not something unions fought for?
a)
8-hour work days
b)
End of child labor
c)
Higher wages
d)
Expanded child labor
102.
This process increased production speed and made goods like clothing and cars cheaper.
a)
Hand craftmanship
b)
Assembly line
c)
Bessemer process
d)
Vertical integration
103.
The very poorest parts of cities that in extreme cases are not even connected to regular city services and are controlled by gangs or drug lords.
a)
Slums
b)
Dinks
c)
Disamenity Sector
d)
Zone in Transition
104.
Legislation and regulations to limit suburban sprawl and preserve farmland
a)
Smart Growth
b)
NIMBY
c)
Zoning
d)
Red Lining
105.
A ring of land maintained by parks, agriculture, or other types of open space to limit the sprawl of an urban area
a)
Greenbelt
b)
Urban Land
c)
Green Land Usage
d)
Sprawl Limitation
106.
A safe and trendy attraction intended to serve as a major catalyst for other redevelopment. (Indicative of a post-modern landscape.)
a)
Greenbelt
b)
Festival Marketplace
c)
Market
d)
Festival Zone
107.
An analysis of the demographic characteristics of a city at the census tract or block level in an attempt to explain the distribution of different types of people in an urban area.
a)
Demographic Analysis
b)
Urban Area Study
c)
Demographic Analysis
d)
Social Area Analysis
108.
A young urban professional who lives in or near a large city.
a)
SINKS
b)
Urban Youth
c)
Yuppie
d)
DINKS
109.
What a municipality becomes a self-governing entity under the laws of the state or province in which they are located. Often, this event is marked by the award or declaration of a municipal charter.
a)
Incorporation
b)
Succession
c)
Zoning
d)
Self-governing Model
110.
A program in which cities identify inner-city neighborhoods, acquire the properties from private owners, relocate the residents and businesses, clear the site, build new roads and utilities, and turn the land over to private developers.
a)
Incorporation
b)
Core Revitalization
c)
Urban Renewal
d)
City Renewal Act
111.
The right of a government or its agent to expropriate private property for public use, with payment of compensation.
a)
Eminent Domain
b)
Zoning In
c)
Domain
d)
Flagpole Annexation
112.
GNP or Gross National Product is....
a)
The measure of the total value of the officially recorded goods and services produced by the citizens and corporations of a country in a given year
b)
Calculates the monetary worth of what is produced within a country plus income received from investments outside the country minus income payments to other countries around the world.
c)
Only goods and services produced within a country during a given year.
d)
The legal economy that governments tax and monitor.
113.
Gross National Income or GNI is.....
a)
Calculates the monetary worth of what is produced within a country plus income received from investments outside the country minus income payments to other countries around the world.
b)
The measure of the total value of the officially recorded goods and services produced by the citizens and corporations of a country in a given year
c)
Only goods and services produced within a country during a given year.
d)
The legal economy that governments tax and monitor.
114.
Which of the following is not a Millennium Development Goal?
a)
Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger.
b)
Reduce child mortality
c)
Provide jobs for everyone
d)
Ensure environmental sustainability
115.
Major world powers continue to control the economies of the poorer countries, even though poorer countries are now politically independent states is called what?
a)
Colonialism
b)
Neo-Colonialism
c)
Dollarization
d)
Modernization Model
116.
Political and economic relationships between countries and regions of the world control and limit the economic development possibilities in poorer ares is called....
a)
Dependency Theory
b)
Structuralist Theory
c)
World-Systems Theory
d)
Modernization Model
117.
The governments of many countries in the global periphery and semi periphery have set up special manufacturing export zones which offer favorable tax, regulatory, and trade agreements to foreign firms is called...
a)
Maquiladoras
b)
Export Processing Zones (EPZs)
c)
Special economic zones
d)
NAFTA
118.
These specific zones in Mexico are mainly sited directly across the border from the United States because these zones attract a mix of manufacturing operations, depending on skill levels of the labor force and available infrastructure is called....
a)
Maquiladoras
b)
NAFTA
c)
Dollarization
d)
Secondary Sector
119.
The transition from cottage industries to the Industrial Revolution and wanting to generate a greater profit by producing larger quantities of the goods in high demand, which in turn decreased the average cost of producing the good is called....
a)
Economies of Scale
b)
Industrial Revolution
c)
Dollarization
d)
Spillover Effect
120.
A set of processes that are increasing interactions, deepening relationships, and heightening interdependence without regard to country borders is called...
a)
Globalization
b)
Big Mac Index
c)
Dollarization
d)
Transitional economies
121.
The process of incorporating every aspect of production for example raw materials, to assembly, distribution, and marketing is called...
a)
Vertical Integration
b)
Horizontal integration
c)
least cost theory
d)
location theory
122.
The increase in time and cost that usually comes with increased distance over which commodities must travel is called....
a)
Friction of distance
b)
Location theory
c)
Agglomeration
d)
Least Cost Theory
123.
The impact of a function or an activity will decline as one moves away from its point of origin and suggests that manufacturing plants should be more concerned with serving the markets nearby places than more distant places is called...
a)
Distance Decay
b)
Agglomeration
c)
Least Cost Theory
d)
Location Theory
124.
Focused on factory owner's desire to minimize three categories of costs such as, transportation, labor, and agglomeration is called...
a)
Least Cost Theory
b)
Location Theory
c)
Distance Decay
d)
Vertical Integration
125.
This is based on the idea that developments in communication and transportation technologies have accelerated the speed with which things happen and have made the distance between places less significant is called...
a)
Time-space compression
b)
Distance Decay
c)
Commodification
d)
Spatial Fix
126.
Globalized production in which a defined segment of the commodity chain is contracted abroad is called...
a)
Outsourcing
b)
Time-space compression
c)
Spatial Fix
d)
Distance Decay
127.
A process by which companies move industrial jobs to other regions is called....
a)
Deindustrialization
b)
Intermodal Connections
c)
Global sourcing
d)
Commodity chain
128.
According to von Thunen's Model, which agricultural zone is closest to the market?
a)
Livestock
b)
Commercial Grain
c)
Dairy Farming
d)
Forestry
129.
All of the following are assumptions made in the von Thunen model EXCEPT
a)
Terrain has forested areas with several small lakes and rivers
b)
Farmers sell all of their harvest
c)
The city is located centrally within an isolated state
d)
Soil and climate are the same
130.
The result of overgrazing in semi-arid climates is
a)
environmental modification
b)
desertification
c)
aquaculture
d)
desalination
131.
According to Carl Sauer, there are two distinctive types of agriculture
a)
vegetative planting and double-cropping
b)
shifting cultivation and vegetative planting
c)
vegetative planting and seed agriculture
d)
slash-and-burn agriculture and double-cropping
132.
Which crop is associated with intensive agriculture?
a)
Corn
b)
Rice
c)
Wheat
d)
Cotton
133.
Farmers that produce food that they need to survive on a daily basis are called
a)
Commercial agriculture
b)
Industrial agriculture
c)
Slash-and-burn agriculture
d)
subsistence agriculture
134.
Which of the following is true about slash-and-burn agriculture in the 21st century?
a)
It can take decades to replenish the soil with nutrients
b)
Farmers stay in one place
c)
Rain forests are not as risk
d)
Nitrogen is removed from the soil
135.
Mediterranean agriculture must be practiced in a climate that is
a)
Wet summer, dry winter
b)
Plentiful rainfall year round
c)
Dry summer, cool moist winter
d)
Mild and dry year round
136.
The Third Agricultural Revolution is also known as
a)
GMO Revolution
b)
Seed Agricultural Revolution
c)
Green Revolution
d)
Industrial Revolution
137.
Which type of agriculture is found primarily in developing countries?
a)
Plantation
b)
Truck farming
c)
Mediterranean
d)
Livestock ranching
138.
Shifting cultivation is most commonly found in which climate region?
a)
Dry
b)
Tropical
c)
Polar
d)
Warm temperate
139.
All of the following are aspects of commercial agriculture EXCEPT
a)
a heavy reliance on machinery
b)
the product is consumed off the farm
c)
there is little relationship to other businesses
d)
a small percentage of the workforce is engaged directly in agriculture.
140.
According to geographer Carl Sauer, agriculture probably first originated in
a)
the Fertile Crescent.
b)
Southeast Asia
c)
South America
d)
Europe
141.
Which of the following pairs of agricultural types occupies the largest percentage of the world’s total land area?
a)
Cattle ranching and Mediterranean agriculture
b)
Plantation agriculture and specialized horticulture
c)
Shifting cultivation and nomadic herding
d)
Intensive rice cultivation and subsistence farming
142.
Which of the following is NOT a major grain exporter?
a)
China
b)
Canada
c)
USA
d)
Australia
143.
Corn was first domesticated in
a)
the Tibetan Plateau
b)
the Canadian Prairie.
c)
Central Mexico
d)
Northern Argentina.
144.
The second agricultural revolution coincided with
a)
the Industrial Revolution.
b)
the first wave of European migration
c)
Imperialism
d)
the Enlightenment.
145.
Physiological density is defined as
a)
the average farm production compared to arable land.
b)
the number of farmers as compared to the total population.
c)
the number of people compared to arable land.
d)
the number of farms compared to the total land area.
146.
Humans have obtained food in a variety of ways. Which method below emerged last?
a)
Hunting & gathering
b)
Vegetative planting
c)
Seed agriculture
d)
The Colombian Exchange
147.
Crop rotation & the enclosure movement were hallmarks of:
a)
The First Agricultural Revolution
b)
The Second agricultural revolution
c)
the Third agricultural revolution
d)
the Green revolution
148.
Opponents of GMOs are afraid that the GMOs:
a)
will hinder global trade
b)
make plants more resistant to disease
c)
may cause irreversible changes in humans
d)
make pants resistant to drought
149.
Farming that requires lots of labor and/or capital investment is:
a)
intensive agriculture
b)
extensive agriculture
c)
subsistence agriculture
d)
diffusion agriculture
150.
Production of agricultural products for the market is called:
a)
hunting and gathering
b)
sedentary cultivation
c)
subsistence agriculture
d)
commercial agriculture
151.
One type of agriculture is not like the other.
a)
Mediterranean
b)
ranching
c)
livestock
d)
pastoral nomadism
152.
The empire that had so many colonies that the "sun never set" on their empire was
a)
French
b)
Spanish
c)
American
d)
British
153.
The group responsible for the 9/11 terrorist attacks was
a)
ISIS
b)
Boko Haram
c)
al-Qaeda
d)
Kurds
154.
North Korea is an example of an
a)
Democracy
b)
Autocracy
c)
Anocracy
d)
Plutocracy
155.
True or false: In general, the world has become more democratic.
a)
True
b)
False
156.
Which of the following states is NOT linked with sponsored terrorism?
a)
Afghanistan
b)
Iran
c)
Libya
d)
Israel
157.
The UN is an example of what?
a)
Alliance
b)
Multinational state
c)
Confederation
d)
Supranational organization
158.
What economic alliance was the USSR a part of during the Cold War?
a)
NATO
b)
Warsaw Pact
c)
COMECON
d)
European Union
159.
Which listed military alliance supported the US during the Cold War?
a)
COMECON
b)
Warsaw Pact
c)
NATO
d)
European Union
160.
What is it called when a state peacefully chooses to split up into multiple smaller states?
a)
Balkanization
b)
Devolution
c)
Evolution
d)
Federalism
161.
Which system of government gives the national government all the real power?
a)
Unitary
b)
Federal
c)
Confederate
d)
Democracy
162.
Redrawing districts to gain an advantage for one group is
a)
Redistricting
b)
Gerrymandering
c)
Electoral college
d)
Caucusing
163.
Poland is an example of what state shape?
a)
Elongated
b)
Perforated
c)
Fragmented
d)
Compact
164.
Redrawing districts to gain an advantage for one group is
a)
Redistricting
b)
Gerrymandering
c)
Electoral college
d)
Caucusing
165.
Why did the Europeans colonize other places in the world?
a)
To gain wealth and resources
b)
For personal wealth and recognition
c)
To promote Christianity
d)
All of the above
166.
A territory legally tied to a sovereign state would best describe a
a)
State
b)
Country
c)
Colony
d)
Province
167.
Mountains, water, and deserts are examples of
a)
Frontier boundaries
b)
Cultural boundaries
c)
Physical boundaries
d)
Geometric boundaries
168.
The continent of Africa owes most of its modern borders to
a)
Physical features
b)
European colonization
c)
American imperialism
d)
Ethnic borders
169.
Monaco is an example of what?
a)
Microstate
b)
Elongated state
c)
Prorupted state
d)
Fragmented state
170.
What is the largest country in the world by land area?
a)
United States
b)
China
c)
Russia
d)
Canada
171.
Where did the concept of a nation-state develop?
a)
Asia
b)
Middle East
c)
Africa
d)
Europe
172.
A region not fully integrated into a national state that is often marginal or undeveloped is called a
a)
Frontier
b)
Stateless Nation
c)
Hearland
d)
Core
173.
With its system of regional provinces, Canada is an example of a
a)
Electoral State
b)
Reapportioned state
c)
Federal State
d)
Nation-state
174.
Which of the following is a landlocked country?
a)
Peru
b)
Germany
c)
Afghanistan
d)
Colombia
175.
The celebration of a national holiday is an example of
a)
Centrifugal Force
b)
Centripetal Force
c)
Terrorism
d)
Revolution
176.
Which of the following is not an ethnicity in the British Isles?
a)
British
b)
English
c)
Welsh
d)
Irish
177.
What is an example of a multi-national state?
a)
United States
b)
Germany
c)
United Kingdom
d)
Peru
178.
Which Supreme Court ruling found segregated schools unconstitutional?
a)
Brown v. Board of Education
b)
Plessy v. Ferguson
c)
Roe v. Wade
d)
Scott v. Smith
179.
_______ is the practice of judging another culture by the standards of one’s own culture.
a)
diffusion
b)
habit
c)
environemental determinism
d)
ethnocentrism
180.
A group of people with a common culture living in a territory and having a strong sense of unity is called a ____.
a)
state
b)
nation-state
c)
country
d)
nation
181.
The term nation-state would best fit which country?
a)
United States
b)
Israel
c)
Brazil
d)
Japan
182.
What is it called when a country breaks apart into several smaller countries?
a)
Centripetal Force
b)
Nation State
c)
Fragmented State
d)
Balkanization
183.
A country where everyone is similar minded, cultured, language speaking, and have a lot of national pride would be called?
a)
multi-state nation
b)
multinational state
c)
nation-state
d)
stateless nation
184.
When 3 or more countries join together to promote shared goals, it is called?
a)
Nation-state
b)
Federation
c)
Centrifugal Forces
d)
Supranationalism
185.
What is the physical separation of different races into different geographic areas?
a)
Apartheid
b)
Block-busting
c)
Ethnic Cleansing
d)
Balkanization
186.
What is an example of a multi-national state?
a)
United States
b)
Germany
c)
United Kingdom
d)
Peru
187.
What is an example of a multi-national state?
a)
United States
b)
Germany
c)
United Kingdom
d)
Peru
188.
The concept that ethnicities have the right to govern themselves is known as what?
a)
Apartheid
b)
Block-busting
c)
Democracy
d)
Self-determination
189.
In this image if C belongs to B it is considered a ___________ of country B and a _______ of country A
a)
core, periphery
b)
enclave, exclave
c)
exclave, enclave
d)
heartland, periphery
190.
The map above illustrates what concept designed to give political advantage to a particular group?
a)
devolution
b)
political enclave
c)
gerrymandering
d)
cultural landscape
191.
The Kurds are an example of
a)
a stateless nation
b)
a state
c)
a supranational state
d)
a multinational state
192.
Which country's ethnic conflict gave rise to the term “balkanization”?
a)
Soviet Union
b)
Sudan
c)
Serbia
d)
Yugoslavia
193.
Which of the following play a role in devolution?
a)
All of these
b)
Political decisions
c)
Cultural and economic forces
d)
Physical Geography/location
100 %