WorksheetsEOG Review - Disease, Biotech, Energy, Evolution, Ecosystems
Total questions: 151
Worksheet time: 2hrs 26mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
A new predator moves into an area with a population of rabbits. The rabbits with longer back legs have an advantage because they can run faster and escape the predator. Which will be the most likely effect on the rabbit population?
a)
The population will become extinct due to stress.
b)
The rabbit population will produce fewer offspring
c)
The rabbits with shorter back legs will learn to hide.
d)
The future generations of rabbits will have longer legs.
2.
Throughout fossil records, many species appearing in lower layers of rock disappear in higher layers of rock. Which best explains their disappearance?
a)
The species became extinct.
b)
The species moved to another geographic location.
c)
The fossil remains were disrupted by an earthquake.
d)
Environmental conditions were not suitable for fossil formation
3.
Which best describes the relationship between genetic variation and the ability to adapt to one’s environment?
a)
Genetic variation has no effect on the ability to adapt.
b)
As genetic variation increases, the ability to adapt increases
c)
As genetic variation decreases, the ability to adapt increases.
d)
As genetic variation increases, the ability to adapt decreases.
4.
What is true about the ability of a species to survive?
a)
A species that is able to migrate will more likely survive.
b)
A species that eats a specific food will more likely survive.
c)
A species with increased genetic diversity will more likely survive.
d)
A species whose individuals have identical traits will more likely survive.
5.
Which organisms are most closely related based on comparison of anatomical structure?
a)
Jellyfish and clam
b)
Snake and worm
c)
Pig and human
d)
Bird and bee
6.
Bird A can blend in with its environment, fly far,and eat a variety of nuts and seeds. Bird B is an unusually colored, weak flyer that eats only one type of seed regularly. Which statement is most likely true?
a)
Bird B is a powerful predator.
b)
Bird A will be easily preyed upon by larger birds.
c)
Bird A will eventually thrive and reproduce due to strong genetic variation.
d)
Bird B will eventually thrive and reproduce because of specialized features.
7.
Which is the best hypothesis for the extinction of the dinosaurs at the end of the Cretaceous period?
a)
The dinosaurs killed each other
b)
Humans destroyed all the dinosaurs
c)
Mammals evolved and killed the dinosaurs
d)
The climate changed and the dinosaurs could not adapt.
8.
How does geological evidence support the theory of evolution?
a)
Fossils can be used to determine the exact age of a particular species.
b)
Fossil record information about the mechanisms ancestral species used to capture and transform energy.
c)
Fossils preserve DNA, so that comparison scan be made between modern organisms and ancestral species
d)
Fossils can be used to show similarities in body structure between modern organisms and ancestral species.
9.
Samuel was examining the fossil layers collected from outcrops of three different regions; he concluded that some of the layers contained index fossils.
Which rock layers are likely the same age?
Which rock layers are likely the same age?
a)
rock layer A and rock layer Q
b)
rock layer A and rock layer I
c)
rock layer C, rock layer H and rock layer L
d)
rock layer A, rock layer K and rock layer Q
10.
The diagram below shows layers of sedimentary rock with embedded fossils.
a)
Fossil 4 is younger than fossil 3.
b)
Fossil 4 is older than fossil 1.
c)
Fossil 2 is older than fossil 3.
d)
Fossil 2 is younger than fossil 1
11.
When a scientist compares the quantities of stable and unstable atoms in a fossil, what can they conclude about the fossil?
a)
The absolute age of a fossil.
b)
The relative age of a fossil.
c)
How long the organism lived.
d)
The ancestors of the fossil.
12.
An archaeologist finds bones of a dodo bird.
What could help the scientist determine the approximate age of the dodo birds bones?
What could help the scientist determine the approximate age of the dodo birds bones?
a)
The kind of plants living in the area of the bones
b)
Other birds living in the area of the bones
c)
The index fossils in the area of the bones
d)
The weather conditions in the area of the bones
13.
Data from ice cores are important to the study of Earth’s geological history. Which best describes the importance of ice cores?
a)
The contain index fossils, which are used to date ice cores.
b)
They contain evidence showing changes in atmospheric composition over time.
c)
They follow the Law of Superposition, which gives reasons for extinctions of species,
d)
They show unconformities, which signal changes in deposition
14.
Most earthquakes occur at tectonic plate boundaries. What does the occurrence of earthquakes tell scientists about the history of Earth?
a)
The oceans are much wider today than millions of years ago.
b)
Woolly mammoths became extinct about 1.8 million years ago
c)
Earth’s continents are continually moving.
d)
The climate is constantly changing.
15.
An archaeologist finds fossils of marine organisms in a layer of rock on dry land.Which is the best conclusion for the scientist to make?
a)
Marine water once covered the area where the fossils have been found.
b)
A high tide carried the marine organisms onto dry land before they died.
c)
The moving of tectonic plates the fossils from the ocean floor to an area of dry land.
d)
The marine organisms adapted to life on dry land.
16.
Which is another term for selective breeding?
a)
Asexual reproduction
b)
Artificial selection
c)
Natural selection
d)
Survival of the fittest
17.
An allele can best be described as
a)
A defective gene
b)
An alternative form of a gene
c)
A segment of DNA
d)
A chromosome
18.
Which best describes a vector?
a)
An alternative form of a gene
b)
Used to transfer genetic material from one source to another
c)
A beneficial trait that allows an organism to survive
d)
A bundle of DNA in the nucleus
19.
Which of the following is NOT true about biotechnology?
a)
It is a field with little to no controversy
b)
It has allowed for the production of many beneficial medical treatments
c)
It has allowed for a greater understanding of human genetics
d)
It impacts agriculture
20.
Bioremediation would most likely be used to improve the quality of
a)
Schools
b)
Entertainment
c)
Water or Soil
d)
Merchandise
21.
Which best describes the role of DNA?
a)
Provides genetic information for all living and nonliving organisms
b)
Provides genetic information for all living organisms
c)
Produces carbohydrates for cellular functions
d)
Acts as cellular energy
22.
Which is an example of an asexual process?
a)
A cat has a litter of kittens
b)
Plants are cross pollinated
c)
A bacterial cell splits in half to make a new identical cell
d)
Two humans have a baby
23.
Which is the best example of a transgenic organism?
a)
A cloned sheep
b)
A newborn baby
c)
A human insulin-producing bacterial cell
d)
A virus
24.
The structure of DNA is very important to its functioning. Why is this true?
a)
The sequence of nucleotide bases codes for an organism’s specific traits.
b)
The sequence of amino acid bases codes for an organism’s specific traits.
c)
The double helix determines the type of organism it will be
d)
The double helix allows organisms to adapt
25.
Asexual reproduction involves
a)
No parents
b)
Two identical parents
c)
Two different parents
d)
One parent
26.
Gene therapy is beneficial to people who suffer from
a)
The flu
b)
Genetic disorders
c)
A cold
d)
Strep throat
27.
Which best explains a benefit of genetic variation?
a)
Genetic variation makes the gene pool of a species smaller
b)
Genetic variation only provides protection from predators
c)
It is not beneficial to living organisms
d)
A larger gene pool allows for a greater chance of success of a species
28.
A DNA fingerprint may do which of the following?
a)
Identify a suspect using crime scene DNA
b)
Reproduce an individual
c)
Disrupt a crime scene
d)
Provide irrelevant information
29.
Corn is most often genetically modified for what purpose?
a)
Slower growth
b)
Herbicide resistance
c)
Shorter growing season
d)
Color change
30.
Which best describes biotechnology?
a)
Technological application of nonliving organisms to produce beneficial products
b)
Technological application of living organisms to produce beneficial products
c)
A slowly growing field of science
d)
A field of science that has not impacted our lives
31.
A biological molecule made of amino acids and is crucial for life functions is a
a)
lipid
b)
carbohydrate
c)
protein
d)
nucleic acid
32.
Which is the least beneficial to the field of medicine?
a)
Genetically modified crops
b)
Gene therapy
c)
Transgenic insulin production
d)
The human genome project
33.
Why should we limit our dependence on petroleum?
a)
It is difficult to profit from its use
b)
It provides many safe natural habitats for a wildlife
c)
It is a nonrenewable resource that is damaging to obtain
d)
It is a renewable resource that is damaging to obtain
34.
Which is an example of selective breeding?
a)
Asexual reproduction
b)
Natural selection
c)
Survival of the fittest
d)
Dog breeding for desired characteristics
35.
Which is the best example of an antibiotic?
a)
Ibuprofen
b)
Aspirin
c)
Penicillin
d)
Vaccine
36.
What is a technique that can be used to treat genetic disorders?
a)
Physical therapy
b)
Gene therapy
c)
Vaccine
d)
Antibiotics
37.
Genetic modification is a technique used in
a)
Herbicide-resistant crops
b)
Transgenic organisms
c)
Cloning
d)
All of the above
38.
How can bioremediation techniques help to clean up an oil spill that disrupts an aquatic ecosystem?
a)
Naturally occurring bacteria can be introduced to consume the oil without causing harm to the ecosystem
b)
Virus particles can be introduced to consume the oil without causing harm to the ecosystem
c)
Naturally occurring bacteria can be introduced to consume the oil while harming the ecosystem
d)
Virus particles can be introduced to consume the oil while harming the ecosystem
39.
How many chromosomes are found in a cell of a typical human?
a)
50
b)
42
c)
46
d)
44
40.
A gene is a segment of DNA that
a)
Is harmful to humans
b)
Fights off invading pathogens
c)
Always causes mutations
d)
Codes for a trait
41.
Health department officials are trying to identify the source of an outbreak of an intestinal virus. Which is the most likely source of the virus?
a)
polluted air
b)
lack of exercise
c)
contaminated water
d)
poor nutritional habits
42.
Which best compares bacteria and viruses?
a)
Bacteria are smaller than viruses.
b)
Bacteria cause disease, but viruses do not.
c)
Bacteria are living organisms, but viruses are not.
d)
Bacteria have genetic material, but viruses do not.
43.
Which pair correctly matches a vector and the infectious disease it carries?
a)
human – influenza
b)
opossum – rabies
c)
mosquito – malaria
d)
flea – Lyme disease
44.
Which environmental conditions contribute most to the spread of bacteria?
a)
cold temperatures and low humidity
b)
warm temperatures and low humidity
c)
cold temperatures and high humidity
d)
warm temperatures and high humidity
45.
Which best explains why viruses are dangerous to humans?
a)
They are all airborne.
b)
They are easily spread.
c)
They are better suited to live in cold environments.
d)
They cannot be treated for several months after infection.
46.
Which best explains how a nonliving virus is able to reproduce?
a)
A virus becomes living when in contact with a host organism.
b)
A virus infects a host organism by injecting its DNA into the cells of the host organism.
c)
A virus infects a host organism by pulling the DNA from the cells of the host organism into itself.
d)
A virus becomes living when a sufficient number of viruses invade a host organism and cause an infection.
47.
Which disease can be transmitted by casual contact between two individuals?
a)
influenza
b)
malaria
c)
kidney disease
d)
Lyme disease
48.
Which practice contributes to the antibiotic resistance of bacteria?
a)
failing to cover open cuts
b)
taking only part of a prescribed antibiotic
c)
completing an entire antibiotic prescription
d)
storing medicine and antibiotic products improperly
49.
What is the main purpose of hand sanitizer?
a)
to promote viral contamination
b)
to reduce the number of virus strands
c)
to increase cell production on one’s hands
d)
to decrease the bacteria found on one’s hands
50.
How does the structure of a virus compare to that of a bacterium?
a)
They are both multicellular and living.
b)
They are both single-celled and nonliving.
c)
The virus is nonliving so it has no cells, whereas the bacterium is single-celled.
d)
The bacterium is nonliving, so it has no cells, whereas the virus is single-celled.
51.
Which is the best way to prevent the spread of pathogens?
a)
Wear gloves while outside.
b)
Educate the public about disease transmission.
c)
Wash hands frequently with antibacterial soap.
d)
Stay at home during flu season whenever possible.
52.
Which is most often used to destroy bacteria?
a)
fungus
b)
vitamin
c)
vaccine
d)
antibiotic
53.
Why do some antibiotics become ineffective over time?
a)
because they only kill certain viruses
b)
because they mutate before being used
c)
because they are overused for treatments
d)
because they only work for a few hours a day
54.
How are viruses different from most other microbes?
a)
They are nonliving.
b)
They can cause disease.
c)
They contain genetic material.
d)
They are only seen with a microscope.
55.
Why do doctors suggest that people get a flu vaccine each year?
a)
Viruses replicate more rapidly over time.
b)
Viruses can mutate from year to year.
c)
Vaccines are absorbed by the body after a year.
d)
Vaccines get stronger over time.
56.
Ten people became sick with the flu after attending a school dance. What is the scenario that could best explain how the people got sick?
a)
contact with environmental sources
b)
contact with an infected animal
c)
contact with a contaminated object
d)
contact with an infected person
57.
Which helps humans to resist an infectious disease?
a)
heredity
b)
immunity
c)
pathogens
58.
Which best describes the size of a virus compared to the size of bacteria?
a)
Bacteria are small, while viruses are larger.
b)
Bacteria are large, while viruses are larger.
c)
Bacteria are small, while viruses are smaller.
59.
Which best describes how athlete’s foot is spread to other individuals?
a)
inhaling fungal spores in the air
b)
eating food contaminated with fungus
c)
having contact with fungus on a shower floor
d)
swimming in a lake that has a large amount of algae
60.
A student sorted a list of diseases and conditions into two groups. Which of these describes the diseases in Group 1?
a)
inherited conditions.
b)
infectious diseases.
c)
caused by environmental conditions.
d)
not treatable with medications.
61.
Which cause athlete’s foot, ringworm, and thrush?
a)
protozoa
b)
bacteria
c)
viruses
d)
fungi
62.
Which best explains why antibiotics are ineffective in treating viral infections?
a)
Viruses destroy the antibiotic.
b)
Antibiotics only kill living cells.
c)
Antibiotics increase the rate of viral growth.
d)
Viruses escape antibiotics by hiding in cells.
63.
Diseases that can be transmitted between organisms are
a)
infectious
b)
inherited
c)
environmental
d)
congenital
64.
A plant is discolored and has large brown blotches on its leaves. This condition is most likely caused by
a)
pollination
b)
photosynthesis
c)
nourishment
d)
disease
65.
Which of the causes can be categorized as an infectious disease?
a)
cancer
b)
stroke
c)
diabetes
d)
influenza
66.
The overuse of antibiotics has most likely resulted in the development of resistant strains of which organisms?
a)
bacteria
b)
fungi
c)
protozoa
d)
viruses
67.
Alan noticed that his foot itched between his toes after coming home from the gym. He now believes he may have contracted athlete’s foot. What type of pathogen most likely caused this possible infection of his foot?
a)
bacterium
b)
fungus
c)
virus
68.
Which product would be most effective in preventing the spread of a cold virus?
a)
hand soap
b)
mouthwash
c)
cough drops
d)
antibiotic cream
69.
A city has an outbreak of a disease that affects an unusually large portion of its population at the same time. Which term best describes the outbreak?
a)
pandemic
b)
plague
c)
epidemic
d)
infection
70.
Which aspect of modern life could most likely cause an epidemic to turn into a pandemic?
a)
vaccination
b)
transportation
c)
communication
d)
sanitation
71.
The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) causes AIDS. The first known human cases AIDS were in Africa in the late 1950s. Since then, tens of millions of people have died from the disease, and tens of millions more people all over the world are infected. Which term best describes the disease AIDS?
a)
isolated cases
b)
outbreak
c)
epidemic
d)
pandemic
72.
Which is the best requirement for viruses to reproduce?
a)
The virus must be inside a living cell.
b)
The virus must produce a toxin.
c)
The virus must be a pathogen.
73.
Which has had the greatest impact on preventing epidemics in the twenty-first century?
a)
immunizations
b)
new medicines
c)
good hygiene
74.
How can the rate of an infectious disease be drastically reduced?
a)
by taking medication daily
b)
by preventing transmission between people
c)
by wearing clean clothing daily
d)
by performing dental hygiene three times each day
75.
Which is the best way to help prevent the flu from becoming a pandemic?
a)
getting a vaccination
b)
taking antibiotics
c)
eating fruits and vegetables
d)
washing hands often
76.
Which will most likely occur when the quality of sanitation in an area improves?
a)
The number of disease carriers will increase.
b)
The number of infectious disease cases will decrease.
c)
The amount of available food resources will decrease.
d)
The amount of necessary medical treatment will increase.
77.
Which term refers to the spread of disease across a large region or sometimes worldwide?
a)
antibiotic
b)
epidemic
c)
pandemic
d)
pathogenic
78.
Which has made the possibility of an epidemic becoming a pandemic much more likely in the 21st century?
a)
increased deforestation
b)
increased global travel
c)
increased vaccinations
d)
increased air pollution
79.
Which would most likely prevent a cold virus from spreading through a classroom?
a)
Have a large supply of tissues on the teacher’s desk.
b)
Have all students wash their hands regularly with soap.
c)
Have all students shake hands regularly with all students.
d)
Have all students wipe desk with dry paper towel at end of class.
80.
How are an epidemic and pandemic alike?
a)
Both involve a viral infection.
b)
Both involve a bacterial infection.
c)
Both involve an outbreak of a disease.
d)
Both involve small numbers of infected individuals.
81.
Which best determines the number of wolves that can live in an area?
a)
the amount of snow in the area each year
b)
the number of birds that live in the area
c)
the number of trees in the area
d)
the amount of food available in the area
82.
If wolves prey on deer for food, what will most likely happen to the deer population if wolves are removed from an area where deer live?
a)
The population of deer will increase.
b)
The population of deer will decrease.
c)
The population of deer will remain the same.
d)
The population of deer will become extinct.
83.
The white-tailed deer found in North Carolina are herbivores. What will most likely happen to the deer if there is a drought and most of the plant life dies?
a)
Deer population will not change.
b)
Deer population will increase due to a lack of food.
c)
Deer population will decrease due to a lack of food.
84.
In an ecosystem dependent on pine trees, if a pine forest is cleared for a new housing development, which will most likely occur?
a)
Some of the organisms would be able to survive the change because of erosion.
b)
The organisms in the ecosystem would have to adapt to living in fenced area.
c)
Many of the organisms would perish due to habitat loss.
85.
Which would a drought most likely affect?
a)
all organisms in a particular ecosystem
b)
only the plants in a particular ecosytem
c)
only the animals in a particular ecosystem
86.
What term describes how a species meets its need for food and shelter and how it reproduces?
a)
niche
b)
habitat
c)
environment
87.
Which are major abiotic factors that determine the types of plants that can grow in an ecosystem?
a)
birds and bees
b)
precipitation and bees
c)
precipitation and temperature
88.
Certain types of worms live in the mud at the bottom of lakes. What does the mud represent for the worms?
a)
community
b)
shelter
c)
niche
d)
food
89.
Which is the place where a member of a population lives and finds food?
a)
space
b)
habitat
c)
shelter
d)
population
90.
Which best describes biotic stress in an ecosystem?
a)
fungi damaging corn fields
b)
wildfires started by lightning burning a forest
c)
floods causing land degradation and soil erosion
d)
high salinity levels in local waters decreasing crop yield
91.
Which is the most significant limiting factor in a desert ecosystem?
a)
nutrients
b)
predators
c)
sunlight
d)
water
92.
Which of these is an abiotic element of a desert ecosystem?
a)
sand
b)
cactus
c)
lizard
d)
scorpion
93.
Which best describes mutualism?
a)
Ticks live and feed on dogs and other animals’ blood to survive.
b)
Mushrooms send out long, underground structures which allow them to grow in other areas.
c)
Ants attack animals that try to feed on the acacia tree, and the ants feed on the nectar of the tree.
94.
Kudzu vines grow by climbing and wrapping around trees. Trees covered by kudzu can die because they are starved of sunlight. What type of relationship exists between the trees and the kudzu growing on them?
a)
competition
b)
mutualism
c)
parasitism
d)
predator-prey
95.
Which of these organisms is a producer in a marine ecosystem?
a)
fish
b)
gull
c)
algae
d)
worm
96.
Which term best describes two predators living in the same habitat who feed on the same prey?
a)
coexistence
b)
competition
c)
mutualism
97.
Dead matter and waste would pile up without which type of organism?
a)
decomposer
b)
consumer
c)
producer
98.
Which is the best term to describe organisms living together in their ecosystem?
a)
parasitism
b)
competition
c)
coexistence
99.
As a dog walks through thick brush, a tick attaches to its leg. Which best describes the relationship between the dog and the tick?
a)
parasitism
b)
mutualism
c)
commensalism
100.
Which best explains cooperation?
a)
a colony of ants working together to build an ant colony
b)
a butterfly getting nectar from a flower
c)
male deer fighting for territory
101.
Bees and butterflies help pollinate plants, enabling them to reproduce while getting nectar from those plants. Which is best represented by this relationship?
a)
mutualism
b)
parasitism
c)
competition
d)
predator-prey
102.
Which is the base of a rain forest ecosystem food web?
a)
decomposition
b)
precipitation
c)
consumers
d)
producers
103.
Which statement about parasitism is most correct?
a)
Both organisms benefit.
b)
Neither organism benefits.
c)
One organism benefits and the other is not affected.
d)
One organism benefits and the other is negatively affected.
104.
Which is the best example of predation in an ecosystem?
a)
bee and flower
b)
fox and rabbit
c)
flea and rat
d)
mosquito and human
105.
Which best demonstrates a producer in an ecosystem?
a)
fox
b)
bear
c)
grass
d)
rabbit
106.
Which relationship shows how terrestrial and aquatic food webs are interconnected?
a)
A bird eats fish.
b)
A cow eats grass.
c)
A shark eats fish.
d)
A grasshopper eats grass.
107.
Which is needed by all organisms to survive?
a)
water
b)
oxygen
c)
sunlight
d)
carbon dioxide
108.
Which shows the correct flow of energy through this simple food chain?
a)
fox → grass → rabbit
b)
grass → fox → rabbit
c)
grass → rabbit → fox
d)
rabbit → grass → fox
109.
Which level of a food chain has the most energy?
a)
decomposers
b)
scavengers
c)
consumers
d)
producers
110.
Through which process do organisms release carbon dioxide into the atmosphere?
a)
diffusion
b)
respiration
c)
transpiration
d)
photosynthesis
111.
From what source does most of the energy in an ecosystem come?
a)
oil
b)
wind
c)
water
d)
sunlight
112.
What is the primary source of energy for producers?
a)
the Sun
b)
the atmosphere
c)
the metabolism of glucose
d)
the decomposition of organic matter
113.
Through which process do producers convert sunlight into food energy which is consumed and passed on to other organisms?
a)
oxidation
b)
reduction
c)
photosynthesis
d)
cellular respiration
114.
An energy pyramid is pictured.
Which statement best explains the flow of energy as it moves through the different levels?
Which statement best explains the flow of energy as it moves through the different levels?
a)
Energy decreases as it is lost as heat to the environment.
b)
Energy increases as it is gained from the environment.
c)
Energy is unavailable because it is used up by the organisms at Level 1.
d)
Energy is transferred as it is produced by organisms in the next level.
115.
Which process will directly result in organic matter being added to the soil?
a)
water freezing in cracks of rocks
b)
glaciers carving out a valley
c)
river water eroding the banks of a stream
d)
bacteria breaking down dead matter
116.
In an energy pyramid, the total energy available for consumption from one trophic level to the next one above it is
a)
reduced
b)
conserved
c)
multiplied
d)
evenly distributed.
117.
Biotic nitrogen fixation is performed by certain
a)
lichens
b)
viruses
c)
bacteria
d)
mammals
118.
By which process is water taken from the ocean to form clouds?
a)
condensation
b)
evaporation
c)
transpiration
119.
Which consume(s) energy from dead organisms?
a)
the Sun
b)
producers and consumers
c)
trees, grasses, and shrubs
d)
scavengers, fungi, and bacteria
120.
Which best describes the role of nitrogen-fixing bacteria in the flow of energy?
a)
They convert carbon dioxide into nitrogen.
b)
They convert nitrogen into carbon dioxide.
c)
They convert sunlight and nitrogen into energy-rich sugar molecules.
d)
They convert atmospheric nitrogen into molecules that other organisms can use.
121.
Why do doctors suggest that people get a flu vaccine each year?
a)
Viruses replicate more rapidly over time
b)
Viruses can mutate from year to year
c)
Vaccines are absorbed by the body after a year
d)
Vaccines get stronger over time
122.
Which is the best day to help prevent the flu from becoming a pandemic?
a)
Getting a vaccination
b)
Taking antibiotics
c)
Eating fruits and vegetables
d)
Washing hands often
123.
Malaria is a common disease in many countries. What type of pathogen is malaria?
a)
A virus
b)
A fungus
c)
A bacterium
d)
A protist
124.
How can the rate of an infectious disease be drastically reduced?
a)
By taking medication daily
b)
By preventing transmission between people
c)
By wearing clean clothing daily
d)
By performing dental hygiene three times each day
125.
Jill got a case of chicken pox when she was three years old. After she got it, Jill’s sister came down with chicken pox. What is chicken pox?
a)
an immune disorder
b)
an infectious disorder
c)
a noninfectious disease
d)
a type of egg
126.
Which type of pathogen is responsible for causing the flu, chicken pox, and yellow fever?
a)
viruses
b)
fungi
c)
parasites
d)
bacteria
127.
Malaria is an infectious disease that can be acquired when a mosquito carrying the protist Plasmodium falciparum bites a human. In the transmission of malaria, which of the following is the disease vector?
a)
the malaria illness
b)
the protist Plasmodium falciparum
c)
the person
d)
the mosquito
128.
Influenza, strep throat, measles, and the common cold are all infectious diseases. Which of the following methods can be used to avoid getting infectious diseases?
a)
not washing fruit before eating it
b)
touching an infected keyboard
c)
sharing a drink only with family members
d)
washing your hands before eating
129.
Sabrina has the flu. Her neighbor suggests she get a prescription for an antibiotic, but Sabrina's mother says that antibiotics would not help in this situation. Why?
a)
the flu is caused by a virus and it cannot be treated with an antibiotic.
b)
the flu is caused by a fungus, and it must be treated with an antifungal medication.
c)
the flu is caused by a parasitic worm, and it must be treated with an antihemlntic medication.
d)
the flu is caused by a bacterium, and it cannot be treated with an antibiotic.
130.
Ten people became sick with the flu after attending a school dance. What is the scenario that could best explain how the people got sick?
a)
contact with the environment
b)
contact with an infected animal
c)
contact with a contaminated object
d)
contact with an infected person
131.
Which is a way the agricultural biotechnology industry could have a positive impact on the environment?
a)
by producing crops that are virus resistant
b)
by making robots to replace large farm machines
c)
by reducing the need for countries to import food
d)
by increasing the use of wind farms that produce electricity
132.
Which of these careers would a student studying biotechnology most likely pursue?
a)
electrical engineering
b)
astronomy
c)
agricultural research
d)
geology
133.
Malaria is a common disease in many countries. What is the cause of this disease?
a)
a virus
b)
a bacterium
c)
a fungus
d)
a parasite
134.
What is involved in creating genetically modified bacteria?
a)
allowing them to reproduce freely
b)
changing their food source
c)
using biotechnology techniques
d)
growing them on selected plants
135.
What is the difference between an epidemic and a pandemic?
a)
Epidemics are from bacteria, pandemics are from viruses
b)
Epidemics are more local, pandemics are over a large area
c)
Pandemics are preventable, epidemics are not preventable
d)
There is no real difference between an epidemic and pandemic
136.
Which best describes the consequence of an oil spill?
a)
Wildlife is immediately affected but recovers quickly.
b)
Wildlife is unaffected, and there are no long-term effects.
c)
Wildlife is not immediately affected, but there may be long-term effects.
d)
Wildlife is immediately affected, and there are long-term, permanent effects.
137.
Which best explains the environmental consequences associated with generating hydroelectric power?
a)
Hydroelectric dams produce large amounts of oxygen.
b)
Reservoirs are also used for water sports and recreation.
c)
Reservoirs cause habitat destruction of surrounding areas.
d)
Hydroelectric dams produce large amounts of carbon dioxide
138.
Which form of energy production creates radioactive waste?
a)
Coal combustion
b)
Nuclear power
c)
Wind turbines
d)
Solar cells
139.
The burning of fossil fuels has been attributed to the accumulation of greenhouse gases and rising global temperatures. Which best explains this?
a)
Solar energy is collected during the burning of fossil fuels.
b)
Wind energy is produced during the burning of fossil fuels.
c)
Thermal energy is released during the burning of fossil fuels.
d)
Electrical energy is wasted during the burning of fossil fuels.
140.
Which is most likely an environmental consequence of transporting large amounts of oil on boats?
a)
The odor disturbs the fish population below.
b)
The sounds disrupt the calls of nearby seabird populations.
c)
A spill would have short and long-term effects on marine organisms.
d)
A large amount of energy is required to steer the boat against ocean currents.
141.
Which best describes the main concern with using nuclear fission as an alternative energy source?
a)
The number of accidents in power plants using nuclear fission is higher than for other power plants.
b)
The raw materials for power plants using nuclear fission are more expensive than for other power plants.
c)
The temperatures required for power plants using nuclear fission cannot be easily achieved and controlled.
d)
The disposal of waste from power plants using nuclear fission is potentially more hazardous than for other power plants.
142.
Which best explains why fossil fuels should be conserved?
a)
They are inexpensive
b)
They are in limited supply
c)
They are dangerous to handle.
d)
They do not cause pollution when used.
143.
Which is a disadvantage of using solar or wind energy to produce electricity?
a)
They are controlled energy resources.
b)
These energy sources are nonrenewable.
c)
They are an expensive way to produce energy.
d)
Their ability to produce energy is inconsistent and variable.
144.
Which best explains describes the potential of solar power for future energy use?
a)
It is not likely to be used because it pollutes the environment and contaminates drinking water supplies.
b)
It is likely to be used because its capture and storage does not require special equipment.
c)
It is likely to be used because it is a renewable resource that is indefinitely available.
d)
It is not likely to be used because it is less expensive than fossil fuel resources.
145.
Which is the best example of the management of natural resources?
a)
Drilling oil wells to produce more energy.
b)
Increase the use of current energy resources.
c)
Limiting research of alternative energy resources.
d)
Managing and caring for current energy resources.
146.
Which of the following is an example of a connection between an ocean food web and a land food web?
a)
A polar bear eats a seal.
b)
A whale eats a cod.
c)
A small fish eats plankton.
d)
A cod eats a small fish.
147.
__________is a gas found under the Earth’s surface and is used to produce energy by burning it.
a)
Geothermal
b)
Natural Gas
c)
Coal
d)
Nuclear
148.
The energy of nuclear reactions between atoms that creates heat and turns turbines is _________.
a)
Coal
b)
Wind
c)
Hydro
d)
Nuclear
149.
Which two fuel types make up over 50% of the total used?
a)
oil and hydroelectric
b)
coal and natural gas
c)
natural gas and hydroelectric
d)
natural gas and oil
150.
What can India do to decrease air pollution?
a)
drive more cars
b)
use more fossil fuels
c)
ride a bike instead of drive
d)
get an air conditioner for each house
151.
Why might China and the USA have more wind energy than Italy or France?
a)
They are better countries
b)
They are smaller countries
c)
They are larger countries
d)
They have more people
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