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WorksheetsTSN TWR Ly Thuyet Co So
Total questions: 203
Worksheet time: 7hrs 46mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
The danger area VVD32 is :
a)
MIG 21 MOA (Military Operation Area)
b)
SU 22 MOA (Military Operation Area)
c)
SU 27 MOA (Military Operation Area)
d)
May Tao firing area .
2.
The restricted area VVR19 is located over
:
a)
Cam Ranh Airport
b)
Ho Chi Minh city
c)
Bien Hoa airbase
d)
May Tao firing area
3.
The upper limit of VVP4 is :
a)
2000m
b)
4000m
c)
3000m
d)
5000m
4.
The upper limit of VVD32 is :
a)
FL 250 (7600m)
b)
FL 150 (4550m)
c)
FL 200 (6100m)
d)
Unspecified
5.
Tan Son Nhat CTR: A circle radius…
centred at DVOR/DME TSN
a)
5KM
b)
10KM
c)
15 KM
d)
20 KM
6.
Tan Son Nhat CTR has vertical limits:
a)
SFC to 450m (1500FT)
b)
SFC to 600m ( 2000FT)
c)
SFC to 750m ( 2500FT)
d)
SFC to 900m (3000 FT)
7.
Airspace in TSN CTR is classified as:
a)
Class A
b)
Class B
c)
Class C
d)
Class D
8.
Vertical limitation of the prohibited area
over HoChiMinh city (VVP4) is:
a)
From ground up to 3000m
b)
From ground up to 2700m
c)
From ground up to 1500m
d)
From ground up to
unlimited
9.
VVD23 has vertical limits:
a)
50M/ 1000M
b)
50M/ 1500M
c)
GND/ 1000M
d)
GND/ 1500M
10.
VVD24 has vertical limits:
a)
50M/ 1000M
b)
50M/ 1500M
c)
GND/ 1000M
d)
GND/ 1500M
11.
When VIP arrives, airport operation will be restricted:
a)
05 minutes before landing time of VIP flight, the reserved RWY for VIP
flight should be clear
b)
05 minutes before landing time of VIP flight, all RWYs should be clear
c)
05 minutes after VIP flight lands, that RWY can resume normal
operation
d)
None of the above
12.
When VIP departs, airport operation will be restricted:
a)
05 minutes before VIP flight lines up, the reserved RWY for VIP
flight should be clear
b)
05 minutes before departure time of VIP flight, all RWYs should
be clear.
c)
05 minutes after VIP flight takes off, that RWY can resume normal
operation
d)
None of the above
13.
When VIP arrives, the reserved RWY for
VIP flight will be available:
a)
When VIP flight stops at
the parking
b)
After VIP flight vacates
the RWY
c)
05 minutes after VIP
flight lands
d)
None of the above
14.
When VIP departs, the reserved RWY for
VIP flight will be available:
a)
03 minutes after VIP
flight takes off
b)
After VIP flight is
airborne
c)
05 minutes after VIP
flight takes off
d)
None of the above
15.
“..........” shall be given priority over other
aircraft listed below:
a)
VIP aircraft
b)
Military aircraft
c)
Hospital aircraft
d)
Emergency aircraft
16.
Except for aircraft in a state of emergency, or during communication failure or unlawful interference situations, and unless otherwise agreed by regional air navigation agreement or between a tranfering and an accepting ATC unit, the
tranferring unit shall assign:
a)
Code A2000 to a controlled flight prior to transferring of communications
b)
Multiple code to a controlled flight prior to transferring of communications
c)
Code A2000 to a controlled flght prior to terminating the radar service
d)
Code A2000 to a controlled flight prior to accepting the control
17.
Who have the right to open an airport or aerodrome based on the airport or
aerodrome system plans?
a)
The Prime Minister
b)
The Minister of Transport
c)
The Director of Airport Authority
d)
None of above
18.
Who shall decide to establish the prohibited and restricted areas in the
territory of VietNam?
a)
The Ministry of National Defense
b)
The Ministry of Transport
c)
The Prime Minister
d)
The Ministry of Foreign Affairs
19.
According to Decision of CAAV number 123/QĐ-CHK, whenever the usage of 2 parallel RWY07 occurs, departure aircraft can take-off on RWY07L:
a)
The arrival has landed assured on RWY07R
b)
The arrival has landed assured on RWY07R or 03 minutes before ETA of arrival in non-radar
environment
c)
The arrival has landed assured on RWY07R and the WX reported in VMC
d)
None of the above
20.
According to Decision of CAAV number 123/QĐ-CHK, whenever the usage of 2 parallel RWY25 occurs, departure aircraft on RWY25L is allowed to take off when:
a)
The arrival vacated RWY25R, and received the clearance to hold short of RWY25L
b)
The arrival seemed to be landing assured and received the clearance to hold short of RWY25L
c)
The arrival has landed assured on RWY25R or 03 minutes before ETA of arrival in non-radar
environment
d)
The arrival was approaching to land RWY25R
21.
According to Decision of CAAV number 123/QĐ-CHK, whenever the usage of 2 parallel RWY25 occurs and SMR is in operation, departure aircraft can line up RWY25L:
a)
Visibility is more than 1200m, ceiling is more than 130m independently the position of arrival and SSR/PSR is good
b)
Visibility is at 1200m, ceiling is 130m independently the position of arrival and SSR is good
c)
Visibility is less than 1200m, ceiling is less than 180m, the arrival has passed THD RWY25R and SSR/PSR is good
d)
Visibility is at 1200m or more, ceiling is 130m or more the arrival has passed THD RWY25R and SSR/PSR is good
22.
According to Decision of CAAV number 123/QĐ-CHK, whenever the usage of 2 parallel RWY07 occurs and SMR is in operation, departure aircraft can line up RWY07L:
a)
Visibility is less than 1200m, ceiling is less than 180m independently the position of arrival and SSR is good
b)
Visibility is at 1200m, ceiling is 130m independently the position of arrival and SSR is good
c)
Visibility is less than 3000m, ceiling is less than 180m, the arrival has passed THD RWY07R and SSR/PSR is good
d)
Visibility is at 1200m or more, ceiling is 130m or more and the SSR/PSR is good
23.
Air traffic services include
a)
Flight administration service, ATC service, air traffic consultancy service and alarming service
b)
Flight administration service, flight information service, air traffic consultancy service and
alarming service.
c)
ATC services, flight information service, air traffic consultancy service and alarming service.
d)
Flight administration service, flight information service, air traffic advisory service and
alarming service.
24.
Aircraft may not make exercise or training flights:
a)
Over densely populated areas, unless permitted by authorized authorities.
b)
Over densely populated areas, until permitted by competent state agencies.
c)
Over mountainous areas, unless permitted by competent state agencies
d)
Over densely populated areas, unless permitted by competent state agencies.
25.
According to Decision of CAAV number 141/QĐ-CHK, visual departure can be made:
a)
On pilot’s request or ATC suggestion at night time only, and the WX is in VMC on rolling and
climb-out segment
b)
On pilot’s request at day time only and the WX is in VMC on rolling and climb-out segment
c)
On pilot’s request or ATC suggestion at day time only.
d)
None of the above
26.
According to Decision of CAAV number 141/QĐ-CHK, ATC must be responsible:
a)
Ensure the limit clearance of visual DEP not lower than MSA in concerned sector
b)
Ensure the limit clearance of visual DEP not lower than MVA in concerned sector
c)
Ensure the limit clearance of visual DEP not higher than MSA in concerned sector and monitored by
radar.
d)
None of the above
27.
According to Decision of CAAV number 141/QĐ-CHK, visual departure can be made:
a)
No IFR flight since the ATD of visual DEP aircraft until the time aircraft completed the visual phase and changing
to IFR.
b)
No IFR flight since the ETD of visual DEP aircraft until the time aircraft completed the visual phase and changing
to IFR.
c)
No IFR flight since the ATD of visual DEP aircraft until the time aircraft completed the visual phase and changing
to enroute phase.
d)
None of the above
28.
According to Decision of CAAV number 141/QĐ-CHK, visual departure can be made
a)
The WX report from concerned unit provided that the WX in the sector or on the expected route will be in VMC
b)
The WX report from concerned unit or the actual observation from the cockpit provided that the WX in the sector or on the expected route will
be in VMC
c)
The WX report from concerned unit or the actual observation from the cockpit provided that the WX in the sector concerning to expected
route will be in VMC
d)
None of the above
29.
Flight permission granted to flights arriving and departing at the airports of Viet Nam shall become effective at 12 (twelve) hour prior to and until … hours after the ETA, ETD indicated in the
permission.
a)
6
b)
12
c)
18
d)
24
30.
Over-flight permission shall become effective 03(three) hours prior to and until
… hours after estimated over-flight time
indicated in the flight permission.
a)
12
b)
24
c)
48
d)
72
31.
In Decree 125/2015 / ND-CP, domestic
routes are used for:
a)
Domestic flights only
b)
Domestic and
international flights
c)
International flights only
d)
None of the above
32.
In Decree 125/2015 / ND-CP,
international routes are used for:
a)
Domestic flights only
b)
Domestic and
international flights
c)
International flights only
d)
None of the above
33.
The power of NDB TD is:
a)
100w
b)
100Kw
c)
50Kw
d)
None of above
34.
The power of NDB GN is:
a)
100w
b)
100Kw
c)
50Kw
d)
None of above
35.
The power of NDB AC is:
a)
100w
b)
100Kw
c)
50Kw
d)
None of above
36.
Converted time to change from primary
system to secondary system of VOR/DME system does not exceed :
a)
10s
b)
15s
c)
20s
d)
25s
37.
Converted time to change from primary system to secondary system of ILS system
does not exceed :
a)
5s
b)
10s
c)
15s
d)
20s
38.
The vertival coverage of TSN SMR is:
a)
68m (MSL)
b)
78m (MSL)
c)
68m (aerodrome
elevation)
d)
None of above
39.
SMR stands for:
a)
Surface movement radar
b)
Surface move radar
c)
Surface modoration radar
d)
None of above
40.
What is the identification of Vung Tau
VOR/DME ?
a)
VT
b)
XVL
c)
BTV
d)
VTV
41.
What is the frequency of VTV VOR/DME
?
a)
118.7 MHz
b)
114.7 MHz
c)
114.7 KHz
d)
118.7 KHz
42.
The ability of supervising the speed of A- SMGCS is:
a)
From 0 to 50 Kts for aircraft on straight
taxiway
b)
From 0 to 20 Kts for aircraft on bent taxiway
c)
1 and 2
d)
None of above
43.
The ability of supervising the speed of A- SMGCS is:
a)
From 0 to 50 Kts for traffic on moneuvring area
b)
From 0 to 10 Kts for aircraft at parkings and on taxiway that use for
parking
c)
1 and 2
d)
None of above
44.
Which button do you use on the VCCS of TSN APP to monitor the communication
between pilot and ATC ?
a)
TX
b)
RX
c)
1 and 2
d)
1 or 2
45.
How many radials does DVOR/DME
have ?
a)
90
b)
180
c)
270
d)
360
46.
How many precision approach procedures
at TSN airport ?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
47.
The distance from ILS/LZZ RWY 25R to
threshold of RWY 07L:
a)
430m
b)
340m
c)
530m
48.
The position of ILS/GP- DME RWY 07R is:
a)
120m from the right of RWY 07R centerline and 300m from threshold of
RWY 07R
b)
340m from the right of RWY 07R centerline and 120m from threshold of
RWY 07R
c)
120m from the right of RWY 07R centerline and 340m from threshold of
RWY 07R
49.
The distance from NDB TD to threshold
of RWY 25R:
a)
10131m
b)
10301m
c)
9670m
50.
The position of ILS/GP- DME RWY 25L is:
a)
300m from the right of RWY 25Lcenterline and 112m from threshold of
RWY 25L
b)
112m from the right of RWY 25Lcenterline and 300m from threshold of
RWY 25L
c)
112m from the right of RWY 25Lcenterline and 400m from threshold of
RWY 25L
51.
The position of ILS/GP- DME RWY 25L is
a)
300m from the right of RWY 25Lcenterline and 112m from threshold of
RWY 25L
b)
112m from the right of RWY 25Lcenterline and 300m from threshold of
RWY 25L
c)
112m from the right of RWY 25Lcenterline and 400m from threshold of
RWY 25L
52.
The position of ILS/GP- DME RWY 25R is:
a)
120m from the right of RWY 25R centerline and 314m from threshold of
RWY 25R
b)
314m from the right of RWY 25R centerline and 120m from
c)
120m from the right of RWY 25R centerline and 340m from threshold of
RWY 25R
53.
The data displayed in flight information window of SMR include:
a)
SSR code, aircraft type, turbulance category
b)
Parking, RWY in use, SID, STAR, ETD, ETA,
Departure aerodrome, Destination aerodrome,
Speed.
c)
Additional information (free text)
d)
All are correct
54.
VHF equipment of TSN TWR frequency
118.7 MHz include:
a)
1 main unit, 1 standby unit use for each frequency, convert automatically or manually put in equipment room and connected with
VCCS system
b)
1 main unit, 2 standby unit use for each frequency, convert automatically or manually put in equipment room and connected with
VCCS system.
c)
2 main unit, 1 standby unit use for each frequency, convert automatically or manually put in equipment room and connected with
VCCS system.
d)
2 main unit, 2 standby unit use for each frequency, convert automatically or manually put in equipment room and connected with
VCCS system.
55.
VHF equipment of TSN TWR frequency
130.0 MHz include:
a)
1 main unit, 2 standby unit use for each frequency, convert automatically or manually put in equipment room and connected with
VCCS system
b)
1 main unit, 1 standby unit use for each frequency, convert automatically or manually put in equipment room and connected with
VCCS system.
c)
2 main unit, 1 standby unit use for each frequency, convert automatically or manually put in equipment room and connected with
VCCS system.
d)
2 main unit, 2 standby unit use for each frequency, convert automatically or manually put in equipment room and connected with
VCCS system.
56.
VHF equipment of TSN APP frequency
125.5 MHz include:
a)
1 main unit, 2 standby unit use for each frequency, convert automatically or manually put in equipment room and connected with
VCCS system
b)
1 main unit, 1 standby unit use for each frequency, convert automatically or manually put in equipment room and connected with
VCCS system
c)
2 main unit, 1 standby unit use for each frequency, convert automatically or manually put in equipment room and connected with
VCCS system
d)
2 main unit, 2 standby unit use for each frequency, convert automatically or manually put in equipment room and connected with
VCCS system.
57.
VHF equipment of TSN APP frequency
126.35 MHz include:
a)
1 main unit, 2 standby unit use for each frequency, convert automatically or manually put in equipment room and connected with
VCCS system.
b)
2 main unit, 1 standby unit use for each frequency, convert automatically or manually put in equipment room and connected with
VCCS system.
c)
1 main unit, 1 standby unit use for each frequency, convert automatically or manually put in equipment room and connected with
VCCS system.
d)
2 main unit, 2 standby unit use for each frequency, convert automatically or manually put in equipment room and connected with
VCCS system.
58.
VHF equipment of TSN GCU frequency
121.9 MHz include:
a)
1 main unit, 2 standby unit use for each frequency, convert automatically or manually put in equipment room and connected with
VCCS system.
b)
2 main unit, 1 standby unit use for each frequency, convert automatically or manually put in equipment room and connected with
VCCS system
c)
1 main unit, 1 standby unit use for each frequency, convert automatically or manually put in equipment room and connected with
VCCS system
d)
2 main unit, 2 standby unit use for each frequency, convert automatically or manually put in equipment room and connected with
VCCS system
59.
VHF equipment of TSN GCU frequency
121.6 MHz include:
a)
2 main unit, 2 standby unit use for each frequency, convert automatically or manually put in equipment room and connected with
VCCS system.
b)
2 main unit, 1 standby unit use for each frequency, convert automatically or manually put in equipment room and connected with
VCCS system
c)
1 main unit, 2 standby unit use for each frequency, convert automatically or manually put in equipment room and connected with
VCCS system
d)
1 main unit, 1 standby unit use for each frequency, convert automatically or manually put in equipment room and connected with
VCCS system.
60.
The emergency frequency is:
a)
121.6 MHz
b)
121.5 MHz
c)
125.5 MHz
d)
118.7 MHz
61.
The primary communication frequency of
military TSN is:
a)
120.1 MHz
b)
121.5 MHz
c)
120.7 MHz
d)
134.0 MHz
62.
The ability of supervising of A-SMGCS is:
a)
From 0 to 250 kts for aircraft on RWY, on final approach track or missed
approach track.
b)
From 0 to 80 kts for aircraft on taxiway that just vacated from the
RWY.
c)
A and b
d)
None of above
63.
The Identification of ILS system RWY
25R is:
a)
SGN
b)
TSN
c)
HCM
d)
XVL
64.
ILSy APP procedure RWY 07R require :
a)
VOR/DME
b)
NDB/DME
c)
Radar
d)
Marker beacons
65.
ILSz APP procedure RWY 07R require :
a)
VOR/DME
b)
NDB/DME
c)
Radar
d)
Marker beacons
66.
An ILS CAT 1 can guide an arriving
aircraft to
a)
Touchdown point
b)
Outer marker
c)
Middle marker
d)
Decision height of 60 m
67.
Secondary radar can provide
a)
Aircraft position
information in azimuth and range
b)
Aircraft identification code
c)
Aircraft pressure altitude
d)
All the above
68.
Primary radar means:
a)
A radar system which provides primary information of air traffic to ATC unit
b)
A radar system which uses reflected radio signal
c)
A radar system which uses primary information from aircraft and displays them on radar screen
d)
A radar system which ATC use first to
determine aircraft’s position in distance and
azimuth
69.
R468’s minimum flight altitude is:
a)
300 m
b)
450 m
c)
600 m
d)
900 m
70.
W1’s track (segment from TSN
DVOR/DME to AC)
a)
77
b)
85
c)
128
d)
135
71.
W8’s track (segment from TSN
DVOR/DME to MISAN)
a)
294
b)
250
c)
240
d)
231
72.
W9’s track (segment from TSN
DVOR/DME to LATHA)
a)
294
b)
250
c)
240
d)
181
73.
W9’s minimum flight altitude is:
a)
300 m
b)
450 m
c)
600 m
d)
1200 m
74.
W16’s minimum flight altitude is:
a)
300 m
b)
450 m
c)
600 m
d)
900 m
75.
W16’s track (segment from TSN
DVOR/DME to KANTA)
a)
294
b)
250
c)
232
d)
181
76.
W19’s track (segment from TSN DVOR/DME to VUNGTAU
DVOR/DME)
a)
128
b)
135
c)
181
d)
215
77.
What are the benefits of implementing an ATFM service
a)
Increased system operational efficiency and predictability through CDM processes
b)
Reduced fuel burn and operating costs
c)
Mitigation of the effects of unforeseen events and situations of reduced capacity along with coordinating effective and rapid solutions to recover
from them
d)
All of the above
78.
What does ATFM stands for?
a)
Air traffic flow manager
b)
Air traffic fluid
management
c)
Air traffic flow
management
d)
Alternative traffic flow
management
79.
ATFM supports the implementation of new technology and procedures that
enhance airspace capacity such as:
a)
RNAV
b)
RNP
c)
RVSM
d)
All of the above
80.
ATFM Initiatives applied may be
a)
Capping altitude below
impacted area
b)
Tunneling through
designated corridors
c)
Ground delay programs
and/or ground stops
d)
All of the above
81.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ visibility) for VOR/DME approach RWY 07R (CAT. C) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome
is:
a)
128m/2800m
b)
128m/1600m
c)
128m/2000m
d)
128m/2400m
82.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ visibility) for NDB approach RWY 25R (CAT. A) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is:
a)
145m/2400m
b)
145m/2000m
c)
145m/1600m
d)
145m/2800m
83.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ visibility) for NDB approach RWY 25R
(CAT. D) is:
a)
145m/2400m
b)
145m/1600m
c)
145m/2000m
d)
145m/2800m
84.
In the METAR/SPECI, when the RVR has decreased during the 10 minutes preceding the observation, the tendency is
indicated by:
a)
P
b)
N
c)
U
d)
D
85.
What is the minimum visibility for Cat A,B,C aircraft using ILS approach procedures runway 25R (without GP) at
Tan Son Nhat aerodrome?
a)
2000m
b)
2800m
c)
2000m
d)
1000m
86.
Wind shear warning is issued when
expected existence of wind shear ………
a)
between runway level and 500 m above that level
b)
between runway level and 1500m above that level
c)
at any level
d)
in thunderstorms
87.
Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, VFR flights shall not take off or land at an aerodrome within a control zone , or enter the aerodrome
traffic zone or traffic pattern:
a)
When the ceiling is less than 450m (1500ft)
b)
When the ground visibility is less than 5km
c)
1 or 2
d)
1 and 2
88.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ visibility) for GN NDB approach RWY 07R (CAT. D) at Tan Son Nhat
aerodrome is:
a)
163m/1600m
b)
163m/2400m
c)
163m/2000m
d)
163m/2800m
89.
In the METAR/SPECI, when the RVR no distinct change, the tendency is indicated
by:
a)
P
b)
N
c)
U
d)
D
90.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ visibility) for VOR/DME approach RWY 07R (CAT. A) at Tan Son Nhat
aerodrome is:
a)
128m/2000m
b)
128m/2800m
c)
128m/1600m
d)
128m/2400m
91.
"Meteorological Service for International
Air Navigation" is the name of:
a)
Doc 8168
b)
Annex 3
c)
Annex 4
d)
Doc 7910
92.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/
visibility) for ILS/DME approach RWY 25R at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is
a)
80m/600m
b)
80m/1000m
c)
60m/800m
d)
120m/2000m
93.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ visibility) for VOR/DME approach RWY 25R (CAT. D) at Tan Son Nhat
aerodrome is:
a)
145m/2000m
b)
145m/2200m
c)
145m/2800m
d)
145m/3200m
94.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ visibility) for VOR/DME approach RWY 07R (CAT. B) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome
is:
a)
128m/2000m
b)
128m/2800m
c)
128m/1600m
d)
128m/2400m
95.
What is the minimum visibility for cat D aircraft using ILS approach procedures runway 25L (without GP) at Tan Son
Nhat aerodrome?
a)
2400m
b)
1000m
c)
2800m
d)
2000m
96.
Instrument meteorological conditions (IMC):
a)
Meteorological conditions expressed in terms of visibility less than the minima specified for visual meteorological conditions
b)
Meteorological conditions expressed in terms of RVR less than the minima specified for visual meteorological conditions
c)
Meteorological conditions expressed in terms of ceiling less than the minima specified for visual meteorological conditions
d)
Meteorological conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from cloud, and ceiling, less than the minima specified for visual meteorological conditions
97.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/
visibility) for GN NDB approach RWY 07R (CAT. D) is:
a)
163m/1600m
b)
163m/2400m
c)
163m/2000m
d)
163m/2800m
98.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ visibility) for VOR/DME approach RWY 07L (CAT. D) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome
is:
a)
131m/1600m
b)
131m/2800m
c)
131m/2400m
d)
131m/2000m
99.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ visibility) for VOR/DME approach RWY 07L (CAT. C) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome
is:
a)
131m/1600m
b)
131m/2400m
c)
131m/2000m
d)
131m/2800m
100.
In the METAR/SPECI, when the RVR has increased during the 10 minutes preceding the observation, the tendency is indicated
by:
a)
U
b)
N
c)
P
d)
D
101.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ visibility) for ILS/DME approach RWY 25L (CAT D) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome
is:
a)
85m/1000m
b)
120m/2000m
c)
90m/1200m
d)
120m/2400m
102.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ visibility) for VOR/DME approach RWY 07L (CAT. A,B) at Tan Son Nhat
aerodrome is:
a)
131m/2000m
b)
131m/2000m
c)
131m/1600m
d)
131m/2400m
103.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ visibility) for VOR/DME approach RWY 07R (CAT. D) at Tan Son Nhat
aerodrome is:
a)
128m/2000m
b)
128m/1600m
c)
128m/2400m
d)
128m/2800m
104.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ visibility) for GN NDB approach RWY 07R (CAT. B) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome
is:
a)
163m/2400m
b)
163m/2000m
c)
163m/1600m
d)
163m/2800m
105.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ visibility) for GN NDB approach RWY 07R (CAT.A) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome
is:
a)
163m/2400m
b)
163m/2000m
c)
163m/1600m
d)
163m/2800m
106.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ visibility) for GN NDB approach RWY 07R (CAT. C) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome
is:
a)
163m/2400m
b)
163m/2000m
c)
163m/1600m
d)
163m/2800m
107.
The weather operation minima (ceiling/ visibility) for VOR/DME approach RWY 07R (CAT. C) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome
is:
a)
128m/2800m
b)
128m/1600m
c)
128m/2000m
d)
128m/2400m
108.
When received SOS signal, tower controllers shall
a)
Inform to airport authorities
b)
Confirm position and situation of aircraft in order to coordinate with relative units (HCM ACC,
SAR unit)
c)
Perform reactions; require other aircrafts
d)
All of above
109.
In case of fuel dumping, tower controllers shall have information about
a)
Altitude and area that cabin crew required to
perform fuel dumping
b)
Time of fuel dumping
c)
Weather condition at thefuel dumping area
d)
All of above
110.
In case of emergency landing, tower controllers shall
a)
Ask about the situation on board and cabin crew’s intention
b)
Inform cabin crew about weather information, approach procedure and perform reaction suitable with cabin crew’s
requirements
c)
Inform airport authorities, relative departments and other aircrafts in the vicinity of aerodrome
d)
All of above
111.
When have information about failure of VOR/DME or NDB, tower controllers shall
a)
Inform pilot and airport authorities about this situation
b)
Inform the technical crew to use stand-by equipments and perform reactions
c)
Discuss with pilot to get final decision (continue landing or divert to alternate
aerodrome)
d)
All of above
112.
Fire fighting facilities at Con Son airport must be checked
a)
At least 1 minute before the1st flight of day.
b)
At least 1 hour before the 1st flight of day
c)
At least 1 day before the 1st flight of day
d)
At least 30 minutes before the 1st flight of day
113.
Inbound aircrafts follow circling approach
procedure
a)
At night
b)
Not permitted
c)
Only hours of daylight
d)
At mid night
114.
The speed of vehicles in the limited area ( 7.5m apart from aircraft) will not exceed,
except in the urgent cases
a)
20 m/s
b)
10 km/h
c)
5 km/h
d)
25 km/h
115.
The speed of vehicles in TWY will not
exceed:
a)
20Km/h
b)
35Km/h
c)
20Nm/h
d)
10Km/h
116.
What does the code A7500 mean
a)
Hi-jjack
b)
Communication failure
c)
Emergency
d)
None of the above
117.
What does the code A7600 mean
a)
Communication failure
b)
Emergency descent
c)
Hi-jjack
d)
All the above
118.
What does the code A7700 mean:
a)
Communication failure
b)
Hi-jjack
c)
Emergency descent
d)
No difference
119.
….shall be given priority over other
aircraft listed below
a)
VIP aircraft
b)
Military aircraft
c)
Hospital aircraft
d)
Emergency aircraft
120.
The sequence of emergency phases are:
a)
ALERFA, INCERFA,
DETRESFA
b)
INCERFA, ALERFA,
DETRESFA
c)
DETRESFA, ALERFA,
INCERFA
d)
No difference
121.
The next of INCERFA phases are
a)
DETRESFA
b)
ALERFA
c)
INCERFA
d)
No difference
122.
The next of ALERFA phases are:
a)
INCERFA
b)
INCERFA
c)
DETRESFA
d)
No difference
123.
The frequencies used for survival radio
equipment is :
a)
121,5 Mhz and 243 Mhz
b)
120,5 Mhz and 243 Mhz.
c)
121,5 Mhz and 423 Mhz
d)
120,5 Mhz and 423 Mhz
124.
Which stand for emergency aircraft at
TSN airport ?
a)
80
b)
70
c)
60
d)
50
125.
What is the emergency frequency ?
a)
121.6
b)
121.9
c)
125.5
d)
121.5
126.
How many period of Emergency?
a)
4
b)
3
c)
5
d)
6
127.
Alerting service shall be provided by:
a)
The ATS unit responsible for the aircraft
b)
The ATS unit responsible for the aircraft, when provided by frequency
121.5
c)
The Area control centre
d)
Only by ATC units
128.
When providing Alerting Service, a phrase wherein there is reasonable certainty that an aircraft and its occupants are threatened by grave and imminent danger or require immediate assistance is
called:
a)
Alert phase
b)
Emergency phase
c)
Distress phase
d)
Warning phase
129.
When providing alerting service an aircraft known or believed to be subject of unlawful interference shall be considered
in which state of emergency:
a)
Alert phase
b)
Uncertainty phase
c)
Emergency phase
d)
Unsafe phase
130.
When providing alerting service, the states of emergencies are divided into
three phases. They are:
a)
Unsafe phase, alert phase, distress phase
b)
Unsafe phase, alert phase, emergency phase
c)
Uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase
d)
Uncertainty phase, alert phase, emergency phase
131.
Which authority provide search and
rescure service in Vietnam
a)
Civil Aviation Authority
of Vietnam
b)
Vietnam Air Traffic
Management
c)
Southern Region Air
Traffic Service
d)
Ministry of Defence
132.
Which ICAO document that provided guidance of the search and rescue in
Vietnam ?
a)
ANNEX 13
b)
ANNEX 12
c)
DOC 7030 and DOC 9731
d)
All of above
133.
Name and location of Aviation search and rescue coordination centers include:
a)
Aviation Search and rescue coordiation center- Northern Region Air Traffic Services Company
b)
Aviation Search and rescue coordiation center- Middle Region Air Traffic Services Company
c)
Aviation Search and rescue coordiation center- Southern Region Air Traffic Services Company
d)
All of above
134.
When are SAR operation initiated and carried out under the following conditions
a)
ATC Unit receives a distress call from aircraft
b)
If communication with aricraft on route failed and it is impossile to re- establish during thirty minutes.
c)
It is clear from message of the aircraft in distress or other sources that the aircraft conditions of the flight.
d)
An aircraft receives clearance for landing but fails to land at the assigned time, and these is no communicate with
the aircraft.
135.
Choose the best answers
a)
The frequency 121.5MHz is guarded continuously during the hours of services at all area control centres. It is also available at the approach control
office.
b)
The frequency 121.5MHz is guarded non- continuously during the hours of service at all area control centres. It is also available at the approach
control office.
c)
The frequency 121.5 MHz is guarded continuously during the hours of service at only the aerodrome control tower (TWRs).
d)
None of above
136.
Aerodrome control tower shall instruct an aircraft which is known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference to
……………….
a)
A holding point
b)
Terminal apron
c)
A stand for VIP aircraft
d)
An isolated parking position
137.
A radiotelephony distress message transmitted by an aircraft should
commence with the word “ .............”
preferably spoken three times.
a)
SOS
b)
MAYDAY
c)
PAN PAN
d)
EMERGENCY
138.
A radar beacon target is observed on code 7600. This would indicate
a)
The radar is in radar contact and under the
control of an approach
b)
The aircraft is experiencing a radio
failure
c)
The aircraft is being hijacked
d)
The pilot is lost and request assistance control
facility
139.
What do you do in the first action if you receive the information “hijack on the Aircraft” from the pilot-in- command of
the taxiing aircraft:
a)
Stop taxi
b)
Taxi the aircraft to the apron
c)
Taxi to the separate place
d)
Clear for take-off
140.
The runway strip available for aircraft landing in emergency
a)
On the north of RWY25L, 548m from THLD
RWY25R
b)
On the north of RWY25L, 500m from THLD
RWY07L
c)
On the north of RWY25R, 548m from
THLD RWY07L
d)
On the north of RWY25L, 500m from THLD
RWY25L
141.
The identification of runway strip available for aircraft landing in emergency
a)
Pilot have to define RWY edge lights on the North of RWY25L while
landing at night
b)
As instructed in details by ATC
c)
Pilot have to define RWY edge lights on the North of RWY25R while
landing at night
d)
Pilot have to define RWY edge lights on the North of RWY07R while
landing at night
142.
Aircraft check engine position:
a)
TWY W3 or THR RWY25L
b)
TWY W3 or THR
RWY25L when taking off
/landing is operating on RWY25R/07L
c)
As instructed in details by Airport Authorities
d)
All the above
143.
Helicopter landing area number 1 is:
a)
A defined area in the North and 600m from the edge of RWY25L with
radius 25m
b)
A defined area in the North of RWY25L and 180m from the edge of
RWY25L
c)
A defined area in the North of RWY25L and 180m West of landing
area number 2
d)
A defined area in the North of RWY25R and 180m East of landing area
number 2
144.
Helicopter landing area number 2 is:
a)
A defined area in the North and 600m from the edge of RWY25R with
radius 25m
b)
A defined area in the North of RWY25L and 180m from the edge of
RWY25L
c)
A defined area in the North of RWY25L and 180m East of landing area
number 2
d)
A defined area in the North of RWY07R and 180m from the edge of
RWY25L
145.
TORA at the end of Runway 25R is:
a)
3048m
b)
3358m
c)
3800m
d)
4100m
146.
ASDA at the end of Runway 25R is:
a)
3358m
b)
3048m
c)
3059m
d)
4100m
147.
LDA at the end of Runway 25R is:
a)
3358m
b)
3048m
c)
4100m
d)
3059m
148.
TORA at the end of Runway 25L is
a)
3800m
b)
4100m
c)
3059m
d)
3358m
149.
TODA at the end of Runway 25L is:
a)
3800m
b)
4100m
c)
3059m
d)
3358m
150.
ASDA at the end of Runway 25L is:
a)
4100m
b)
3059m
c)
3358m
d)
3048m
151.
LDA at the end of Runway 25L is:
a)
3800m
b)
3059m
c)
3358m
d)
3048m
152.
TORA at the end of Runway 07R is
a)
3800m
b)
4100m
c)
3059m
d)
3358m
153.
TODA at the end of Runway 07R is:
a)
3800m
b)
4100m
c)
3059m
d)
3358m
154.
ASDA at the end of Runway 07R is
a)
3800m
b)
4100m
c)
3059m
d)
3358m
155.
LDA at the end of Runway
07R(displaced THR) is:
a)
3800m
b)
4100m
c)
3059m
d)
3358m
156.
TORA at the end of Runway 07L is:
a)
3048m
b)
3358m
c)
3800m
d)
4100m
157.
TODA at the end of Runway 07L is:
a)
3048m
b)
3358m
c)
3059m
d)
4100m
158.
ASDA at the end of Runway 07L is
a)
3358m
b)
3048m
c)
3059m
d)
4100m
159.
LDA at the end of Runway 25R is:
a)
3358m
b)
3048m
c)
4100m
d)
3059m
160.
TORA of RWY 25R( from the
intersection with TWY NS1) is
a)
2812m
b)
3218m
c)
3313m
d)
3059m
161.
TODA of RWY 25R(from the intersection
with TWY NS1) is
a)
2812m
b)
3218m
c)
3313m
d)
3059m
162.
ASDA of RWY 25R( from the
intersection with TWY NS1) is
a)
2812m
b)
3218m
c)
3313m
d)
3059m
163.
TORA of RWY 25L( from the
intersection with TWY E4) is
a)
3108m
b)
3218m
c)
3313m
d)
3059m
164.
Refer to AIP Viet Nam: Elevation of
threshold RWY 07R:
a)
9,9m
b)
10m
c)
6,1m
d)
5,7m
165.
At TSN airport , TORA of runway 25L is
:
a)
3036m
b)
3059m
c)
3800m
d)
4100m
166.
Which ground of code should Ho Chi Minh use for AFR 175 from TSN to
BKK:
a)
5500-5600
b)
1700-1777
c)
5700-5777
d)
4100-4177
167.
Refer to AIP Viet Nam: Elevation of
threshold RWY 25R:
a)
9,9m
b)
10m
c)
6,1m
d)
5m
168.
There are … holding patterns in Tan Son
Nhat airport area:
a)
5
b)
3
c)
4
d)
6
169.
Distance between 2 runway center line of
TSN airport:
a)
365m
b)
300m
c)
315m
d)
790m
170.
Refer to AIP Viet Nam: Elevation of
threshold RWY 25R:
a)
9,9m
b)
10m
c)
6,1m
d)
5m
171.
Refer to AIP Viet Nam: Elevation of
threshold RWY 07R:
a)
9,9m
b)
10m
c)
6,1m
d)
5,7m
172.
Refer to AIP Viet Nam: Elevation of
displaced threshold RWY 07R:
a)
9,9m
b)
7,3m
c)
8,8 m
d)
7,5m
173.
TWY edge lights shall be :
a)
red
b)
yellow
c)
blue
d)
white
174.
Airfield lighting system CAT I consists of :
a)
Approach lights , RWY edge lights , RWY threshold lights , RWY end lights , apron edge lights , PAPI , TWY edge lights , apron edge lights
b)
Approach lights , RWY center lights , RWY threshold lights , RWY edge lights , RWY end lights , touch down zone lights , PAPI , TWY edge lights , TWY center lights
c)
And apron flood lights
d)
None of the above
175.
The distance between a taxi holding position and the centerline of a non
–precision approach runway of an
aerodrome code 3 shall be :
a)
40m
b)
60m
c)
75m
d)
90m
176.
Red pyrotechnic directed by tower to an aircraft in flight means:
a)
Return for landing
b)
Not withstanding any previous instruction, do not land for the time
being.
c)
Give way to other aircraft and continue circling.
d)
Clearance to and taxi will be given in due course.
177.
Aircraft taking –off can positively be identified only if they are seen
a)
Within 5 miles of the upwind end of the runway
b)
Within 3 miles of the upwind end of the runway
c)
Within 1 mile of the
upwind end of the runway.
d)
Actually leaving the runway
178.
ILS reference datum is :
a)
A point at a specified height located vertically above the intersection of the runway centerline and the threshold and through which the downward extended straight portion
of the glide path passes .
b)
A line at a specified height located vertically above the intersection of runway centerline and threshold and through which the downward extended straight portion
of the glide path passes
c)
A point at a specified height located vertically above the intersection of the runway centerline and the threshold and through which the upward extended straight portion
of the glide path passes
179.
Ground to air communication is
a)
One –way communication from station or location on the surface of the earth to aircraft.
b)
One –way communication from aircraft to station on the surface of the earth to aircraft .
c)
Two –way communication between aeronautical station and the aeronautical mobile
service
180.
What is the minimum angle of turn
necessary to identify an aircraft ?
a)
15 degrees.
b)
25 degrees .
c)
30 degrees
d)
45 degrees
181.
Vectoring an arriving aircraft to intercept the final approach course at an angle not
greater than
a)
15 degrees
b)
20 degrees
c)
30 degrees
d)
45 degrees
182.
Radar separation may be applied between an aircraft taking off and other radar controlled flights provided there is reasonable assurance that :
a)
The taking -off aircraft will be identified within 1 NM from the end of the runway and at the time the required radar
separation will exist
b)
The taking –off aircraft is at or above the minimum flight altitude of minimum safety altitude.
c)
Both taking –off aircraft and other radar controlled flight are being identified
.
183.
Aircraft being radar vectored for an approach as soon as practicable , be
informed of :
a)
The type of approach to be anticipated and the
runway in use.
b)
The traffic on the aerodrome circuit
c)
The latest landing condition
d)
Both a and c.
184.
Missed approach procedure is
a)
The procedure to be followed if the aircraft cannot land
b)
The procedure which aircraft uses when there are any obstacles on the
runway-in-use
c)
The procedure to be commenced by aircraft at decision height
d)
The procedure to be followed if the approach cannot be continued
185.
Control zone is:
a)
A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to
transition altitude.
b)
A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to
transition level
c)
A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to
transition layer
d)
A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to
a specified upper limit.
186.
Flight information centre
a)
A unit established to provide flight information
service.
b)
A unit established to provide alerting service
c)
1 or 2
d)
1 and 2
187.
Flight plan:
a)
Specified information provided to air traffic services units, relative to an intended flight or portion of a flight of an
aircraft
b)
Specified information provided to air traffic services units
c)
Specified information provided to weather offices
d)
Specified information provided to pilots
188.
Holding fix is
a)
A geographical location
that serves as a reference for a holding procedure
b)
A VOR station that serves
as a reference for a holding procedure
c)
A NDB station that serves
as a reference for a holding procedure
d)
None of the above
189.
IFR flight is
a)
A flight conducted in accordance with the
instrument flight rules
b)
A flight conducted in accordance with the
general flight rules.
c)
1 or 2
d)
1 and 2
190.
Vectoring
a)
Provision of navigational guidance to aircraft for approach
b)
Provision of navigational guidance to aircraft for holding
c)
Provision of navigational guidance to aircraft for departure
d)
Provision of navigational guidance to aircraft in the form of specific headings,
based on the use of radar
191.
VFR flight
a)
A flight conducted in accordance with the
visual flight rules
b)
A flight conducted in VMC
c)
A flight conducted in IMC
d)
None of the above
192.
In radiotelephony communications, which of the following words equals the
meaning: “Authorized to proceed under
the conditions specified.”
a)
CLEARED
b)
GO AHEAD
c)
1 or 2
d)
1 and 2
193.
In radiotelephony communications ,which of the following phase equals the
meaning: “I repeat for clarity or
emphasis.”
a)
Yes
b)
That is correct
c)
I say again
d)
None of the above
194.
Heading 140 degrees transmitted as
a)
Heading one hundred and
forty
b)
Heading one four zero
c)
Heading one forty
d)
None of the above
195.
Radar approach is
a)
An approach in which the final approach phase is executed under the direction of a radar
controller
b)
An approach in which the initial approach phase is executed under the direction of a radar
controller
c)
An approach in which the middle approach phase is executed under the direction of a radar
controller
d)
An approach in which the missed approach phase is executed under the direction of a radar
controller
196.
Radar identification:
a)
The situation which exists when the radar symbol is seen on a radar display and positively identified by the air traffic controller
b)
The situation which exists when the radar position of a particular aircraft is identified by the air traffic controller
c)
The situation which exists when the radar blip is seen on a radar display and positively identified by the air traffic controller
d)
The situation which exists when the radar position of a particular aircraft is seen on a radar display and positively identified by the air traffic
controller
197.
Reporting point is
a)
A specified geographical location in relation to which the position of an
aircraft can be reported
b)
A specified VOR station in relation to which the position of an aircraft can
be reported
c)
A specified NDB station in relation to which the position of an aircraft can
be reported
d)
None of the above
198.
Taxiway markings and aircraft stand
markings shall be :
a)
Yellow
b)
Green
c)
Red
d)
White
199.
The missed approach point (MAPt) in a procedure may be:
a)
the point of intersection of an electronic glide path
with the applicable DA/H
b)
a fix or navigation facility
c)
a specified distance from the final approach fix
(FAF)
d)
all are correct.
200.
Air traffic means :
a)
All aircraft in the air
b)
All aircraft in flight or operating on the manoeuvring area of an
aerodrome.
c)
All aircraft and helicopters flying within a FIR.
d)
All aircraft in the air , aircraft on apron , and aircraft operating in a
hangar
201.
Critical positions of aircraft in the aerodrome traffic and taxi circuits are:
a)
Where an aircraft receives aerodrome information, taxi, take-off or landing clearance
b)
Where an aircraft operating on manoeuvring area may experience dangerous conditions
c)
Where an aircraft operating on manoeuvring area may experience dangerous conditions
202.
Visual approach is:
a)
An approach made by an IFR flight when either part or all of an instrument approach procedure is not
completed
b)
An approach made by VFR flight
c)
Executed in visual reference to terrain
d)
1 and 3
203.
Transition level is:
a)
The altitude below which the vertical position of an aircraft is controlled by reference to altitudes
b)
The altitude at which or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is controlled by reference to
altitudes
c)
The altitude above which the vertical position of an aircraft is controlled by reference to flight levels
d)
The altitude at which a pilot has to change the altimeter setting.
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