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Network+

Total questions: 95

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Where does a hub send data?

a)

Only to the receiving system

b)

Only to the sending system

c)

To all systems connected to the hub

d)

Only to the server

2.

What uniquely identifies every NIC?

a)

Media access control address

b)

IP address

c)

ISO number

d)

Packet ID number

3.

What Windows utility do you use to find the MAC address for a system?

a)

ipconfig /all

b)

ipcfg / all

c)

ping

d)

mac

4.

A MAC sends data in discrete chunks called what?

a)

Segments

b)

Sections

c)

Frames

d)

Layers

5.

Which MAC address begins a frame?

a)

Receiving system

b)

Sending system

c)

Network

d)

Router

6.

A frame ends with a special bit called the Frame Check Sequence (FCS). What does the FCS do?

a)

Cycles data across the network

b)

Verifies that the MAC addresses are correct

c)

Verifies that the data arrived correctly

d)

Verifies that the IP address is correct

7.

Which of the following is an example of a MAC address?

a)

0-255

b)

00-50-56-A3-04-0C

c)

SBY3M7

d)

192.168.4.13

8.

Which layer of the TCP/IP model controls the assembly and disassembly of data?

a)

Application layer

b)

Presentation layer

c)

Session layer

d)

Transport layer

9.

Which of the OSI seven-layer model keeps track of a system's connections to send the right response to the right computer?

a)

Application layer

b)

Presentation layer

c)

Session layer

d)

Transport layer

10.

Which of the following topologies requires termination?

a)

Star

b)

Bus

c)

Mesh

d)

Ring

11.

Star-Bus is an example of a BLANK topology

a)

Transitional

b)

System

c)

Hybrid

d)

Rampant

12.

Of the topologies listed, which one is the most fault tolerant?

a)

Point-to-point

b)

Bus

c)

Star

d)

Ring

13.

What term is used to describe the interconnectivity of network components?

a)

Segmentation

b)

Map

c)

Topology

d)

Protocol

14.

Coaxial cables all have a(n) ______rating.

a)

Resistance

b)

Watt

c)

Speed

d)

Ohm

15.

Which of the following is a type of coaxial cable?

a)

RJ-45

b)

RG-59

c)

BNC

d)

Barrel

16.

Which topology connects nodes to a ring of cable?

a)

Star

b)

Bus

c)

Ring

d)

Mesh

17.

Which of the following is a duplex fiber-optic connection?

a)

LC

b)

CAT-5E

c)

CAT-6

d)

CAT-6A

18.

What is the most common category of UTP used in new cabling installations?

a)

CAT-5

b)

CAT-5e

c)

CAT-6

d)

CAT-6e

19.

Ethernet hubs take an incoming packet and _______ it out to the other connected ports

a)

Amplify

b)

Repeat

c)

Filter

d)

Distort

20.

What is appended to the beginning of the Ethernet frame?

a)

MAC address

b)

Length

c)

Preamble

d)

FCS

21.

What type of bus does 10BaseT use?

a)

Bus

b)

Ring

c)

Star-Bus

d)

Bus-Ring

22.

What is the maximum distance that can separate a 10BaseT node from its hub?

a)

50 meters

b)

100 meters

c)

185 meters

d)

200 meters

23.

When used for Ethernet, unshielded twisted pair uses what type of connector?

a)

RG-58

b)

RJ-45

c)

RJ-11

d)

RS-232

24.

What is the maximum number of nodes that can be connected to a 10BaseT hub?

a)

1024

b)

500

c)

100

d)

185

25.

Which of the following is NOT true of crossover cables?

a)

They are a type of twisted-pair cabling

b)

They reverse the sending and receiving wire pairs

c)

They are used to connect hubs

d)

Both ends of a crossover cable are wired according to the TIA/EIA 568B standard

26.

Which of the following connectors are used by 10BaseFL cable? (select two)

a)

SC

b)

RJ-45

c)

RJ-11

d)

ST

27.

Which networking devices can use the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?

a)

Hubs

b)

Media converters

c)

UTP cables

d)

Switches

28.

What device directs packets based on MAC addresses?

a)

Router

b)

Hub

c)

Repeater

d)

Switch

29.

With 100BaseT, what is the maximum distance between the switch and the node?

a)

1000

b)

400

c)

100

d)

150

30.

What kind of cable and connector does 100BaseFX use?

a)

Multimode fiber with ST or SC connecors

b)

STP CAT 6 with RJ-45 connectors

c)

Single-mode fiber with RJ-45 connectors

d)

UTP CAT 5e with RJ-45 connectors

31.

How many pairs of wires do 10BaseT and 100BaseT use?

a)

4

b)

1

c)

3

d)

2

32.

What standard does IEEE 802.3ab describe?

a)

1000BaseLX

b)

1000BaseT

c)

1000BaseCX

d)

1000BaseSX

33.

What is the maximum distance for 1000BaseLX without repeaters?

a)

1 mile

b)

2500 meters

c)

20,000 feet

d)

5000 meters

34.

What is a big advantage to using fiber-optic cable?

a)

Fiber is common glass, therefore it is less expensive

b)

Fiber is not affected by EMI

c)

Making custom cable lengths is easier with fiber

d)

All that orange fiber looks impressive in the network closet

35.

How many wire pairs does 1000BaseT use?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

36.

What is the standard connector for the 10 GbE fiber standard?

a)

ST

b)

SC

c)

MT-RJ

d)

There is no standard

37.

What is the maximum cable length of 10GBaseT on CAT 6?

a)

55 meters

b)

100 meteres

c)

20 meters

d)

70 meters

38.

Which of the following cables should never b used in a structured cabling installation?

a)

UTP

b)

STP

c)

Fiber-optic

d)

Coax

39.

Which of the following enables you to use multiple NICs in a computer to achieve a much faster network speed?

a)

Bonding

b)

Linking

c)

SLI

d)

Xing

40.

How many pairs of wires are in a CAT 5e-rater cable?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

8

d)

It doesn't specify

41.

A(n) __________ organizes and protects the horizontal cabling in the telecommunications room

a)

Rack

b)

Patch panel

c)

Outlet

d)

110 jack

42.

Which of the following would never be seen in an equipment rack?

a)

Patch panel

b)

UPS

c)

PC

d)

All of the above may be seen in an equipment rack

43.

What are patch cables used for? (select two)

a)

To connect different telecommunications rooms

b)

To connect the patch panel to the switch

c)

They are used as crossover cables

d)

To connect PCs to outlet boxes

44.

Which of the following network technologies use UTP cabling in a star topology? (select two)

a)

10Base2

b)

Fiber-optics

c)

10BaseT

d)

100BaseT

45.

Jane needs to increase network throughput on a 10BaseT network that consists of one hub and 30 users. Which of the following hardware solutions would achieve this most inexpensiveness?

a)

Add a fiber backbone

b)

Upgrade the network to 100BaseT

c)

Replace the hub with a switch

d)

Add a router

46.

What two devices together enable you to pick a single cable out of a rack of cables? (select two)

a)

Tone aggregator

b)

Tone binder

c)

Tone generator

d)

Tone probe

47.

Rack-mounted equipment has a height measured in what units?

a)

Mbps

b)

MBps

c)

Inches

d)

U

48.

How many bit does an IPv4 address consist of?

a)

16

b)

32

c)

64

d)

128

49.

Identify the network ID section of the following IP address and subnet mask: 10.14.12.43-255.255.255.0

a)

10.14

b)

43

c)

10.14.12

d)

14.12.43

50.

Which of the following is a proper subnet mask

a)

11111111111111111111111100000000

b)

00000000000000000000000011111111

c)

10101010101010101010101011111111

d)

01010101010101010101010100000000

51.

What does ARP stand for?

a)

Address Reconciliation Process

b)

Automated Ranking Protocol

c)

Address Resolution Protocol

d)

Advanced Resolution Protocol

52.

Identify the class of the following IP address 146.203.143.101

a)

Class A

b)

Class B

c)

Class C

d)

Class D

53.

Which of the following are valid subnet masks? (select two)

a)

11111111.11111111.11100000.00000000

b)

11111111.11111111.11111111.00000000

c)

11111111.00000000.11111111.00000000

d)

00000000.00000000.11111111.11111111

54.

What is the maximum amount of hosts in a /19 subnet?

a)

254

b)

8,192

c)

16,382

d)

8,190

55.

When DHCP Discover fails, what process will the client use to generate an address for itself?

a)

ATAPI (Automatic Temporary Address Program Imitator)

b)

APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing)

c)

ATIPA (Automatic Temporary IP Address)

d)

APFBA (Automatic Programmable Fall Back Address)

56.

Which of the following is a valid loopback address?

a)

128.0.0.1

b)

127.0.0.0

c)

128.0.0.255

d)

127.24.0.1

57.

What is a router?

a)

A piece of hardware that forwards packets based on IP address

b)

A device that separates your computers from the internet

c)

A piece of hardware that distributes a single Internet connection to multiple computers

d)

A synonym for a firewall

58.

Routers must use the same type of connection for all routes, such as Ethernet to Ethernet or ATM to ATM

a)

True

b)

False

59.

What technology allows you to share a single public IP address wit many computers?

a)

Static Address Translation

b)

Natural Address Translation

c)

Computed Public Address Translation

d)

Port Address Translation

60.

Distance vector routing protocols such as RIP rely on what metric to determine the best route?

a)

Hop count

b)

Link speed

c)

Ping time

d)

Routes are chosen at random

61.

What are two big advantages to using OSPF over RIP or BGP? (select two)

a)

OSPF is a modern protocol that does not have legacy problems

b)

OSPF chooses routes based on link speed, not hop count

c)

OSPF runs on all routers, big and small

d)

OSPF sends only routing table changes, reducing network traffic

62.

What is Area 0 called in OSPF?

a)

Local area

b)

Primary zone

c)

Trunk

d)

Backbone

63.

What is the name of the cable that you use to connect to the console port on Cisco routers?

a)

Router console cable

b)

Yost cable

c)

That funny blue Cisco cable

d)

Null modem cable

64.

When you are first setting up a new router, you should never plug it into an existing network?

a)

True

b)

False

65.

The traceroute utility is useful for?

a)

Configuring routers remotely

b)

Showing the physical location of the route between you and the destination

c)

Discovering information about the routers between you and the destination address

d)

Fixing the computer's local routing table

66.

The protocol created by Netscape for transmitting private documents over the internet is known as what?

a)

SSS

b)

SSA

c)

SSL

d)

NSSL

67.

Which of the following are key benefits of Web-Based mail? (select two)

a)

You can access your e-mail from anywhere in the world using a web browser and an internet connection

b)

Is is completely spam-free

c)

It is great for creating throw-away accounts

d)

You can use a third-party application, like Microsoft Outlook to download your e-mail

68.

An SSL URL connection starts with which prefix?

a)

http

b)

www

c)

ftp

d)

https

69.

Which statements about SSH and Telnet are true? (select two)

a)

Windows comes with preinstalled SSH and Telnet clients

b)

SSH is more secure than Talnet because it encrypts data

c)

Telnet is a command-line tool, whereas SSH is a GUI tool

d)

SSH uses port 22, and Telnet uses port 23

70.

Why might you use the netstat utility?

a)

To see the route on IP packet takes across multiple routers

b)

To see your IP address and configuration details

c)

To see the endpoints of your sessions

d)

To issue commands to a remote server

71.

Why might you use a Telnet client?

a)

To see the route an IP packet takes across multiple routers

b)

To see your IP address and configuration details

c)

To see the endpoints of your sessions

d)

To issue commands to a remote server

72.

Port 110 (POP) is what kind of port?

a)

Well-known

b)

Registered

c)

Ephemeral

d)

Reserved

73.

What ports does FTP use traditionally? )select two)

a)

20

b)

21

c)

23

d)

25

74.

Which of the following protocols are used to receive e-mail from servers? (select two)

a)

IMAP

b)

ICMP

c)

IGMP

d)

POP

75.

Which statements about netstat switches (in Windows) are true? (select three)

a)

-a shows all used ports

b)

-n shows raw port numbers and IP addresses

c)

-o shows the process ID

d)

-s shows the application name

76.

NetBIOS uses what type of name space?

a)

Hierarchical name space

b)

People name space

c)

DNS name space

d)

Flat name space

77.

The DNS root directory is represented by what symbol?

a)

. (dot)

b)

/ (forward slash)

c)

\ (back slash)

d)

$ (dollar sign)

78.

What command do you use to see the DNS cache on a Windows system?

a)

ping /showdns

b)

ipconfig /showdns

c)

ipconfig /displaydns

d)

ping /displaydns

79.

The users on your network haven't been able to connect to the server for 30 minutes. You check and reboot the server, but your're unable to ping either its own loopback address or any of your client systems. What do you do?

a)

Restart the DHCP server

b)

Restart the DNS server

c)

Replace the NIC on the server because it has failed

d)

Have users ping the server

80.

A user calls to say she con't see the other systems on the network when she looks in My Network Places. You are not using NetBIOS. What are your first two troubleshooting steps? (select two)

a)

Ping the address of a known website

b)

Ping the loopback address to test her NIC

c)

Ping several neighboring systems using both DNS names and IP addresses

d)

Ping the IP addresses of the router

81.

What is checked first when trying to resolve an FQDN to an IP address?

a)

Hosts file

b)

LMHOSTS file

c)

DNS server

d)

WINS server

82.

Which type of DNS record is used by mail servers to determine where to send e-mail?

a)

A record

b)

CNAME record

c)

MX record

d)

SMTP record

83.

Which command allows you to eliminate DNS cache?

a)

ipconfig

b)

ipconfig /all

c)

ipconfig /dns

d)

ipconfig /flushdns

84.

Which tool enables you to query the functions of a DNS server?

a)

ipconfig

b)

nslookup

c)

ping

d)

xdns

85.

Where does a DNS server store the IP addresses and FQDNs for the computers within a domain?

a)

Forward lookup zone

b)

Canonical zone

c)

MX record

d)

SMTP record

86.

Any encryption that uses the same key for encryption and decryption is called?

a)

Encoded key

b)

Symmetric key

c)

Single key

d)

Synthetic key

87.

RC4 is a(n) _______ cipher

a)

Block

b)

Forwarding

c)

Stream

d)

Asymmetric

88.

In a PKI encryption method, which key encrypts the data?

a)

Public

b)

Private

c)

Both

d)

Depends on who sends the data

89.

The process of verifying with a high degree of confidence that the sender is who the receiver thinks he or she should be called ________

a)

PKI

b)

Authentication

c)

Locking

d)

Nonrepudiation

90.

A hash function is by definition a _________

a)

Complex function

b)

PKI function

c)

One-way function

d)

Systematic function

91.

Which of the following is a common hash function?

a)

MD5

b)

RC4

c)

AES

d)

BMX

92.

In order to have a PKI you must have a(n) _________

a)

Web server

b)

Web of trust

c)

Root authority

d)

Unsigned certificate

93.

Which type of access control requires a label to define its sensitivity?

a)

MAC

b)

DAC

c)

RBAC

d)

VAC

94.

If you saw some traffic running on UDP ports 1812 and 1813, what AAA standard would you know was running?

a)

PPP

b)

RADIUS

c)

MS-CHAP

d)

TACACS+

95.

Which authentication standard is highly time sensitive?

a)

PAP

b)

RADUIS

c)

802.1X

d)

Kerberos

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