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Muscular System Test A

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Myoglobin ________.

a)

breaks down glycogen

b)

is a protein involved in the direct phosphorylation of ADP

c)

stores oxygen in muscle cells

d)

produces the end plate potential

2.

After nervous stimulation stops, what prevents ACh in the synaptic cleft from continuing to stimulate contraction?

a)

calcium ions returning to the terminal cisternae

b)

the tropomyosin blocking the myosin once full contraction is achieved

c)

acetylcholinesterase breaks apart the ACh

d)

the action potential stops going down the overloaded T tubules

3.

What does excess postexercise oxygen consumption represent?

a)

amount of oxygen needed for aerobic activity to accomplish the same amount of work

b)

the difference between the amount of oxygen needed for totally aerobic muscle activity and the amount actually used

c)

the amount of oxygen equal to the oxygen already used

d)

the amount of oxygen taken into the body immediately after the exertion

4.

What is the functional unit of a skeletal muscle called?

a)

a sarcomere

b)

the sarcoplasmic reticulum

c)

a myofibril

d)

a myofilament

5.

What is the role of tropomyosin in skeletal muscles?

a)

Tropomyosin is the chemical that activates the myosin heads.

b)

Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the myosin binding sites on the actin molecules.

c)

Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the actin binding sites on the myosin molecules.

d)

Tropomyosin is the receptor for the motor neuron neurotransmitter.

6.

Which muscle cells have the greatest ability to regenerate?

a)

skeletal

b)

cardiac

c)

smooth

d)

no muscle can regenerate

7.

Most skeletal muscles contain ________.

a)

muscle fibers of the same type

b)

a mixture of fiber types

c)

a predominance of slow oxidative fibers

d)

a predominance of fast oxidative fibers

8.

The strongest muscle contractions are normally achieved by ________.

a)

increasing stimulus above the threshold

b)

increasing stimulus above the treppe stimulus

c)

increasing the stimulation up to the maximal stimulus

d)

recruiting small and medium muscle fibers

9.

What structure in skeletal muscle cells functions in calcium storage?

a)

sarcoplasmic reticulum

b)

mitochondria

c)

intermediate filament network

d)

myofibrillar network

10.

Immediately following the arrival of the stimulus at a skeletal muscle cell there is a short period called the ________ period during which the neurotransmitter is released by exocytosis, diffuses across the synaptic cleft, and binds to its receptors.

a)

contraction

b)

relaxation

c)

latent

d)

refractory

11.

Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by ________.

a)

forming a temporary chemical compound with myosin

b)

forming a chemical compound with actin

c)

inducing a conformational change in the myofilaments

d)

storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP

12.

Which of the following is a factor that affects the velocity and duration of muscle contraction?

a)

number of muscle fibers stimulated

b)

size of the muscle fibers stimulated

c)

load on the fiber

d)

muscle length

13.

Which of the following would be recruited later in muscle stimulation when contractile strength increases?

a)

motor units with the longest muscle fibers

b)

many small motor units with the ability to stimulate other motor units

c)

large motor units with small, highly excitable neurons

d)

motor units with larger, less excitable neurons

14.

What structure in skeletal muscle cells functions in calcium storage?

a)

sarcoplasmic reticulum

b)

mitochondria

c)

intermediate filament network

d)

myofibrillar network

15.

What muscle is primarily responsible for preventing foot drop?

a)

extensor digitorum longus

b)

tibialis anterior

c)

extensor hallucis longus

d)

fibularis tertius

16.

Which of the following is NOT a muscle primarily involved in the breathing process?

a)

diaphragm

b)

external intercostal

c)

internal intercostal

d)

latissimus dorsi

17.

What is the main factor that determines the power of a muscle?

a)

the length

b)

the shape

c)

the number of neurons innervating it

d)

the total number of muscle fibers (cells) available for contraction

18.

When the term biceps, triceps, or quadriceps forms part of a muscle's name, what does it tell you about the muscle?

a)

The muscle has two, three, or four origins, respectively.

b)

The muscle is able to change direction twice, three times, or four times faster than other muscles, respectively.

c)

The muscle has two, three, or four functions, respectively.

d)

The muscle has two, three, or four insertions, respectively.

19.

Which of the following muscles is involved in producing horizontal wrinkles in the forehead?

a)

the medial pterygoid

b)

the zygomaticus major

c)

the frontal belly of the epicranius

d)

the temporalis

20.

Which of the following muscles is involved in crossing one leg over the other to produce the cross-legged position?

a)

the gastrocnemius

b)

the sartorius

c)

all of the hamstrings

d)

the quadriceps femoris

21.

Which of the following is NOT a member of the hamstrings?

a)

gracilis

b)

semitendinosus

c)

semimembranosus

d)

biceps femoris

22.

Which of the following best describes the orbicularis oris?

a)

It closes, purses, and protrudes the lips.

b)

It pulls the lower lip down and back.

c)

It draws the eyebrows together.

d)

It closes the eye.

23.

Tennis players often complain about pain in the arm (forearm) that swings the racquet. What muscle is usually strained under these conditions?

a)

the triceps brachii

b)

the anconeus

c)

the brachioradialis

d)

the flexor digitorum profundus

24.

Which muscle(s) is (are) contracted to exhale forcibly?

a)

diaphragm alone

b)

internal intercostals and rectus abdominus

c)

external intercostals and diaphragm

d)

rectus abdominis and diaphragm

25.

Paralysis of which of the following would make an individual unable to flex the thigh?

a)

biceps femoris

b)

vastus medialis

c)

soleus

d)

iliopsoas and rectus femoris

26.

Which of the following muscles serves as a common intramuscular injection site, particularly in infants as the buttocks and arm muscles are poorly developed?

a)

the vastus intermedius

b)

the vastus medialis

c)

rectus femoris

d)

the vastus lateralis

27.

Which of the following surrounds an individual muscle cell?

a)

perimysium

b)

endomysium

c)

epimysium

d)

fascicle

28.

Rigor mortis occurs because ________.

a)

the cells are dead

b)

sodium ions leak into the muscle causing continued contractions

c)

no ATP is available to release attached actin and myosin molecules

d)

proteins are beginning to break down, thus preventing a flow of calcium ions

29.

What is the functional role of the T tubules?

a)

stabilize the G and F actin

b)

enhance cellular communication during muscle contraction

c)

hold cross bridges in place in a resting muscle

d)

synthesize ATP to provide energy for muscle contraction

30.

During vigorous exercise, there may be insufficient oxygen available to completely break down pyruvic acid for energy. As a result, the pyruvic acid is converted to ________.

a)

a strong base

b)

stearic acid

c)

hydrochloric acid

d)

lactic acid

31.

When a muscle is unable to respond to stimuli temporarily, it is in which of the following periods?

a)

relaxation period

b)

refractory period

c)

latent period

d)

fatigue period

32.

In an isotonic contraction, the muscle ________.

a)

changes in length and moves the "load"

b)

does not change in length but increases tension

c)

never converts pyruvate to lactate

d)

rapidly resynthesizes creatine phosphate and ATP

33.

An anaerobic metabolic pathway that results in the production of two net ATPs per glucose plus two pyruvic acid molecules is ________.

a)

the citric acid cycle

b)

glycolysis

c)

hydrolysis

d)

the electron transport chain

34.

What is the most distinguishing characteristic of muscle tissue?

a)

It is composed of multiple cells working together.

b)

the ability to respond to nervous stimulation

c)

its cells' inability to reproduce by mitosis

d)

the ability to transform chemical energy into mechanical energy to move the body

35.

What part of the sarcolemma contains acetylcholine receptors?

a)

motor end plate

b)

end of the muscle fiber

c)

part adjacent to another muscle cell

d)

any part of the sarcolemma

36.

The oxygen-binding protein found in muscle cells is ________.

a)

hemoglobin

b)

ATP

c)

myoglobin

d)

immunoglobin

37.

During muscle contraction, myosin cross bridges attach to which active sites?

a)

myosin filaments

b)

actin filaments

c)

Z discs

d)

thick filaments

38.

A muscle that opposes, or reverses, a particular movement is a(n) ________.

a)

antagonist

b)

fixator

c)

synergist

d)

agonist (prime mover)

39.

Myasthenia gravis is a disease that is believed to be caused by autoimmune disorder, resulting in the loss of ACh receptors at the motor end plate of muscle fibers. Which of the following is likely to be a symptom of myasthenia gravis?

a)

weakness of muscle

b)

seizures and uncontrollable muscle movement

c)

coma and loss of voluntary muscle movement

d)

dehydration with headache

40.

The 100-meter dash is a quick and short run requiring explosive speed. On completion of the dash, the runners will continue to breathe hard for several seconds to minutes even though they are no longer running. Which of the following is the best explanation for why this is so?

a)

The runners' use of stored oxygen, glucose, and creatine phosphate is being replenished and this requires a prolonged increase of oxygen intake.

b)

Since the exercise was mostly aerobic exercise, the runners' bodies have not yet realized the run is over.

c)

The runners' fast oxidative muscles are so slow to utilize oxygen, they only begin aerobic respiration by the time the run has finished.

d)

Slow oxidative fibers are recruited last and have only started to work at completion of the run.