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PPL Law - Full DONE

Total questions: 194

Worksheet time: 3hrs 14mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Define Act

a)

Civil Aviation Act 1980

b)

Civil Aviation Act 1990

c)

Civil Aviation Act 1995

d)

Civil Aviation Act 2000

2.

What is it defined as when an aircraft sustains damage?

a)

Incident

b)

Serious Incident

c)

Accident

d)

Depends on injuries to persons on board

3.

Where is aerodrome elevation taken from?

a)

Lowest point on landing area

b)

Average elevation of the aerodrome

c)

Highest point on the landing area

d)

The threshold of the longest runway

4.

What is the following:

A notice containing flight safety information that doesn't qualify for the inclusion in the AIP or NOTAMs

a)

AIC

b)

AIP

c)

AIP supplements

d)

PIREP

5.

What does AIC stand for?

a)

Aerodrome Information Circular

b)

Aeronautical Information Circuit

c)

Aeroplane Individual Circuit

d)

Aeronautical Information Circular

6.

Which flight safety publication is published every 28 days?

a)

AIC

b)

AIP amendments

c)

AIP supplements

d)

NOTAM

7.

What is the purpose of an alerting service?

a)

To notify appropriate organisations for SAR operations

b)

To alert ATS when you enter and leave control airspace

c)

To alert the pilot when Vne is approaching

d)

To notify the pilot when they have reached MDA

8.

Where is altitude measured from?

a)

a specified datum

b)

ground level

c)

1013.25hPa

d)

sea level

9.

What does AWIB stand for?

a)

Aerodrome Weather Information Bulletin

b)

Aerodrome and Weather Information Broadcast

c)

Automatic Weather Information Broadcast

d)

Automatic Wind Information Bulletin

10.

Can a cost sharing flight be advertised?

a)

yes

b)

yes, but only if the pilot doesn't receive payment

c)

yes, but only if the flight is shared equally among all crew and PAX

d)

no

11.

A cross-country flight must extend more than _____ nm in a straight line distance from departure aerodrome.

a)

10

b)

15

c)

25

d)

50

12.

What is flight time defined as?

a)

from the moment the aircraft moves for the purpose of flight to the moment it comes to rest

b)

from the moment the aircraft first moves to the moment the aircraft comes to rest

c)

from the moment the aircraft is started to the moment the aircraft is shut down

d)

from the moment the aircraft takes off to the moment the aircraft touches down

13.

Where is height measured from?

a)

a specified datum

b)

ground level

c)

1013.25hPa

d)

sea level

14.

What is a manoeuvring area?

a)

movement area and maintenance areas and aprons

b)

maintenance areas and aprons only

c)

taxiways and runways only

d)

taxiways, runways, and apron (doesn't include maintenance areas)

15.

What is a movement area?

a)

manoeuvring area and maintenance areas and aprons

b)

maintenance areas and aprons only

c)

taxiways and runways only

d)

taxiways, runways, and apron (doesn't include maintenance areas)

16.

The "owner" of an aircraft has to lawfully have possession of the aircraft for ____ days or longer

a)

28

b)

60

c)

90

d)

365

17.

Is a crew member classed as a passenger?

a)

yes

b)

yes, but only if they are not PIC

c)

yes flight attendants are, but pilots are not

d)

no

18.

What are simultaneous operations?

a)

Where a pilot is flying VFR on an IFR flight plan

b)

When flying in a dual controlled aircraft

c)

Two or more aircraft operating from parallel runways

d)

An aircraft where a pilot and co-pilot are required

19.

Where is take-off weight taken from?

a)

Engine start up

b)

Start of take-off run

c)

Before entering the taxiway

d)

When the aircraft rotates

20.

The vicinity of an aerodrome shall not extend beyond _____nm from the aerodrome.

a)

8

b)

10

c)

16

d)

24

21.

Can a pilot be maintaining 'visual reference' if only the ocean is in sight?

a)

yes

b)

yes, but only if the pilot is within 10nm from shore

c)

yes, but only if the pilot is above 10,000ft

d)

no

22.

What does AFRU stand for?

a)

Aerodrome Frequency Response Unit

b)

Automatic Frequency Response Unit

c)

Aerodrome Flight Review Unit

d)

Automatic Flight Review Unit

23.

What does a fit and proper person test include? Choose all that apply.

a)

transport safety compliance history

b)

ability to obtain class 2 medical

c)

behavioural problems

d)

convictions before the commencement of the Act

e)

transport industry experience

24.

What are the duties of PIC? Choose all that apply

a)

responsible for safe operation

b)

responsible for compliance with the law

c)

to have final authority

d)

to never breach the Act

25.

What section allows a pilot to breach the Act in emergencies?

a)

Section 2C

b)

Section 91D

c)

Section 41B

d)

Section 13A

26.

Is a pilot allowed to breach the Act if a there's no danger to life or property?

a)

yes, but only if the law is breached only as far as necessary

b)

yes, but only if the aircraft is registered and airworthy

c)

yes, as long as the pilot notifies ATC as soon as possible and the pilot must be licenced

d)

no

27.

If the law is to be breached due to an emergency not arising in flight what laws MUST still be followed? Choose all that apply.

a)

pilot must be licenced

b)

pilot must be rated

c)

aircraft must be registered

d)

aircraft must be airworthy

e)

pilot must have current medical

28.

After breaching the rules when must the director be notified?

a)

as soon as practicable

b)

within 7 days

c)

within 10 days

d)

within 90 days

29.

Who is responsible for notifying the director if a pilot notices their medical condition change to a point where it could interfere with the safety of the flight?

a)

police, and they must take the medical certificate

b)

medical examiner and they must suspend the medical certificate

c)

pilot, and they must cease flying

d)

operator, and they must stand the pilot down

30.

A medical certificate can be extended no more than _____ days from its expiry date

a)

10

b)

14

c)

30

d)

60

31.

Who can the medical certificate be surrendered to if required? Choose all that apply

a)

police

b)

government official

c)

medical examiner

d)

director

e)

person authorised by the director

32.

Operating an aircraft causing endangerment. The punishment for an individual can be up to _______ and for a body corporate _______

a)

$3,000 $10,000

b)

$7,000 $35,000

c)

$8,000 $50,000

d)

$10,000 $100,000

33.

Operating an aircraft in a careless manner. The punishment for an individual can be up to _______ and for a body corporate _______

a)

$3,000 $10,000

b)

$7,000 $35,000

c)

$8,000 $50,000

d)

$10,000 $100,000

34.

An individual can receive a prison sentence of up to ____ for ____.

a)

12 months, operating an aircraft in a careless manner

b)

12 months, causing endangerment

c)

24 months, operating an aircraft in a careless manner

d)

24 months, causing endangerment

35.

What does Part 12 cover?

a)

maintenance

b)

licences and ratings

c)

accidents and incidents

d)

transition rules

36.

When must a notification of an accident be given by?

a)

as soon as practicable

b)

7 days

c)

10 days

d)

14 days

37.

When must a notification of an incident be given by?

a)

as soon as practicable

b)

7 days

c)

10 days

d)

14 days

38.

When must the details of an accident be given by?

a)

as soon as practicable

b)

7 days

c)

10 days

d)

14 days

39.

When must the details of an incident be given by?

a)

as soon as practicable

b)

7 days

c)

10 days

d)

14 days

40.

What number can be used to notify the authority of an accident or serious incident?

a)

03 359 2121

b)

0800 ACCIDENT

c)

0508 222 433

d)

04 954 6315

41.

How many days after the occurrence must an investigation report be submitted by?

a)

30

b)

60

c)

90

d)

120

42.

When may a person interfere with an aircraft after an accident? Choose all that apply

a)

to protect the aircraft contents from further damage

b)

to move the aircraft off a public road

c)

if removing a cockpit voice recorder

d)

if removing the ELT

e)

to move the aircraft off a main runway

43.

How long after a serious incident do the records need to be preserved for?

a)

7 days

b)

14 days

c)

30 days

d)

90 days

44.

When can another document be worn as a replacement for an airport ID card? Choose all that apply

a)

When the director authorises it

b)

When the airport ID card is still being made

c)

When you are a passenger boarding an aircraft

d)

When you’re a member of parliament

45.

Who can approve for you to wear an ID card with the name deleted from it?

a)

Owner of the aircraft

b)

Operator

c)

Director

d)

Airport Manager

46.

Any passenger in a security area must comply with at least one of the following:

Choose all that apply.

a)

Be escorted

b)

Have drivers licence on them

c)

Have a boarding pass on them

d)

Have their passport on them

47.

A pilot must have a current pilot licence and be type rated for the aircraft they wish to perform maintenance on under Appendix A.1 and A.2.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

Can a pilot replace landing gear tyres on an aircraft that is used to perform air operations?

a)

Yes, but only if it’s requires no special tooling

b)

Yes, no extra requirements

c)

No, for any aircraft, only a LAME can do it

d)

No, but they can for an aircraft not used for air operations

49.

Can a pilot replace an aircraft battery on an aircraft that is used to perform air operations?

a)

Yes, but only if it has quick disconnect abilities

b)

Yes, no extra requirements

c)

No, for any aircraft, only a LAME can do it

d)

No, but they can for an aircraft not used for air operations

50.

Can a pilot operate the self test function on an ELT for an aircraft that is used to perform air operations?

a)

Yes, but only if the airworthiness directive states the pilot can

b)

Yes, no extra requirements

c)

No, for any aircraft, only a LAME can do it

d)

No, but they can for an aircraft not used for air operations

51.

Can a pilot replace the engine oil in an aircraft that is used to perform air operations?

a)

Yes, but only if it requires no special tooling

b)

Yes, no extra requirements

c)

No, for any aircraft, only a LAME can do it

d)

No, but they can for an aircraft not used for air operations

52.

Requirements to go first solo: choose all that apply

a)

17 years old

b)

Holds at least Class 2 medical certificate

c)

Flight is authorised by A, B, or C Cat Instructor

d)

Must have passed an ICAO English test to level 4 or higher

53.

A student has flown the last 5 hours of the their training solo, are they allowed to go fly their next flight solo?

a)

No, unless A, B or C Cat instructor authorises it

b)

Yes, no other requirements

c)

No, they must fly dual before going solo again

d)

No, unless a A or B Cat instructor authorises it

54.

Only an A-Cat instructor can authorise a first solo.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

A person must have had piloting experience within the preceding _____ days before going solo.

a)

15

b)

20

c)

25

d)

30

56.

What does a student need before going on a solo cross country flight?

a)

All theory papers completed, and authorised by an A or B Cat Instructor

b)

All theory papers completed, and authorised by A, B or C Cat instructor

c)

At least PPL Nav theory paper completed, and authorised by A, B or C Cat instructor

d)

At least PPL Nav theory paper completed, and authorised by an A or B Cat Instructor

57.

Before going solo a person must meet the English proficiency requirement. This can be met with any of the following:

a)

3 years or more secondary education in specified countries

b)

3 years or more employment in specified countries

c)

Passing an English language proficiency test

d)

2 years or more primary education in specified countries

58.

May a student pilot take PAX when acting as PIC of an aircraft?

a)

Yes, as long as an A or B-Cat instructor authorises it

b)

Yes, no restrictions

c)

No, under no circumstances

d)

No, unless the PAX is flight test examiner

59.

A student pilot has been offered to build hours with a paua ferrying business who will give the student NO remuneration, is this allowed?

a)

Yes, as long as the flight is domestic only

b)

Yes, as long as no PAX are carried

c)

Yes, as long as the flight is domestic and no PAX are carried

d)

No

60.

Requirements to gain a PPL: choose all that apply

a)

17 years old

b)

Holds at least Class 2 medical certificate

c)

Must have at least 40 hours

d)

Must have passed all 5 written examination credits

61.

You completed your last PPL theory paper in Jan 2014, what is the furthermost date in the future that you can sit your PPL flight test?

a)

Jan 2015

b)

Jan 2016

c)

Jan 2017

d)

Jan 2018

62.

How many hours does a student pilot need in the following to pass a PPL flight test? Dual, Solo, Cross Country, Instrument Flying

a)

10, 10, 5, 5

b)

15, 15, 10, 10

c)

10, 10, 10, 5

d)

15, 15, 10, 5

63.

A helicopter pilot has 40 hours PIC, 10 hours of which were gained more than 12 months ago. How many can be cross credited to their fixed wing hours?

a)

10

b)

15

c)

30

d)

40

64.

If a student wants a PPL night rating, how many hours do they require at night?

a)

5h dual, 5h solo

b)

4h dual, 4h solo

c)

2h, dual, 2h solo

d)

5h dual

65.

How long does a pilot need to retain their logbook?

a)

90 days

b)

120 days

c)

12 months

d)

Permanently

66.

An entry must be made into a logbook within _____ days after the completion of the flight.

a)

7, unless its a domestic flight then its 3 days

b)

7, unless its a domestic flight then its 14 days

c)

14, unless its a domestic flight then its 7 days

d)

7 for any flight

67.

Can a PPL pilot act as a co-pilot?

a)

No, never

b)

Yes, as long as the aircraft is required to be operated with a co-pilot

c)

Yes, as long as the aircraft is required to be operated with a co-pilot and the pilot has a type rating

d)

Yes, anytime

68.

A PPL pilot has been asked to operate an aircraft in a glider towing business, is this allowed?

a)

Yes, and they can receive remuneration (only for gliding operations)

b)

Yes, but only if the pilot is under direct control of the gliding organisation

c)

Yes, but only for a maximum of 7 days

d)

No, a PPL pilot is not allowed to act as PIC for a aircraft operated under hire or reward

69.

For a PPL holder to be able to act as PIC and carry PAX they must have completed .....

a)

3 take offs and landings within the preceding 30 days

b)

3 take offs and landings within the preceding 90 days

c)

2 take offs and landings within the preceding 3 months

d)

5 take offs and landings within the preceding 3 months

70.

Are a pilots recency requirements allowed to be met in a simulator?

a)

Yes, as long as its on the same type

b)

Yes, but only a maximum of 1 take off and landing can be achieved

c)

Yes, no restrictions

d)

No

71.

Apart from carrying out take offs and landings yourself to meet the recency requirements, are there any other ways to become recent as a holder of a PPL?

a)

Yes, demonstrate to an A or B-Cat instructor competence

b)

Yes, demonstrate to an A-Cat instructor competence

c)

Yes, have gained your PPL licence within the preceding 12 months

d)

No, you must get yourself recent

72.

A pilot completed their PPL in 2010, if they have not done a BFR since, what are the requirements?

a)

They must resit all of their PPL theory papers, then complete another BFR

b)

They must complete another BFR

c)

They must resit their PPL flight test

d)

They must resit PPL Air Law and then complete another BFR

73.

Who is PIC during a BFR?

a)

Flight instructor

b)

PPL holder

74.

What does BFR stand for?

a)

Biannual Flight Resit

b)

Biannual Flying Review

c)

Biennial Flight Review

d)

Biennial Flying Resit

75.

A pilot completed a BFR last week for a helicopter but their last fixed wing BFR was 3 years ago, do they have to complete another BFR for fixed wing?

a)

yes

b)

no

76.

How long does the class 2 medical of a PPL holder who is 40 years old last?

a)

24 months

b)

60 months

c)

6 months

d)

12 months

77.

If on the date of issue of a new medical certificate, the applicants current medical certificate will expire in ___ days or less, then the new medical can be set with an expiry as if the certificate had been issued on the expiry date of the current medical certificate.

a)

14

b)

30

c)

60

d)

90

78.

How long can a medical certificate be granted an extension for?

a)

10 days

b)

30 days

c)

60 days

d)

90 days

79.

What flight level can a control area go up to?

a)

FL330

b)

FL440

c)

FL550

d)

FL660

80.

The lower limit of a control area must be at least _____ below IFR flights, and cannot be less than ____ AGL

a)

500ft, 700ft

b)

500ft, 1000ft

c)

1000ft, 500ft

d)

1000ft, 1500ft

81.

A transit lane is Class __ airspace and is active _____

a)

C, day only

b)

C, 24 hours

c)

G, day only

d)

G, 24 hours

82.

A GAA can be made active at night with approval from ATC.

a)

true

b)

false

83.

Which aircraft are not separated in Class C airspace? Choose all that apply.

a)

IFR and VFR

b)

VFR and VFR

c)

SVFR and SVFR under certain conditions

d)

IFR and SVFR

84.

Which aircraft are not separated in Class D airspace? Choose all that apply.

a)

IFR and VFR

b)

VFR and VFR

c)

SVFR and SVFR under certain conditions

d)

IFR and SVFR

85.

If a danger, restricted or military area states 'active by NOTAM' how much notice do they need to provide to the NOTAM office before making the area active?

a)

48 hours, unless it is an emergency

b)

48 hours under any circumstances

c)

24 hours, unless it is an emergency

d)

24 hours under any circumstances

86.

A low flying zone can be made active by night with the approval from ATC.

a)

true

b)

false

87.

When is a cellphone or another portable electronic device not allowed to be operated?

a)

for an aircraft opertaing under VFR or IFR during any critical phase of flight

b)

for an aircraft operating under IFR at any stage

c)

for an aircraft operating under IFR on an instrument approach

d)

for any aircraft at any time

88.

Can a voice recorder be operated on an IFR approach?

a)

yes

b)

no

89.

A cellphone or any other device that is designed to transmit electromagnetic energy shall not be operated ....

a)

for an aircraft opertaing under VFR or IFR during any critical phase of flight

b)

for an aircraft operating under IFR at any stage

c)

for an aircraft operating under IFR on an instrument approach

d)

for any aircraft at any time

90.

Can a cellphone be used on a VFR flight?

a)

yes

b)

no

c)

yes, but not on approach

d)

no, unless operator gives authority

91.

For a ferry flight with passengers being dropped off at different locations what are the requirements to carry a firearm on board?

a)

disabled and inaccessible

b)

disabled

c)

disabled and operator permits it to be on board

d)

unloaded and inaccessible

92.

A pilot is carrying a group of hunters to a remote aerodrome, what are the requirements to carry a firearm on board?

a)

disabled and inaccessible

b)

disabled

c)

disabled and operator permits it to be on board

d)

unloaded and inaccessible

93.

When can a firearm be carried on board simply 'unloaded'? Choose all that apply.

a)

the aircraft is carrying criminals and police officers

b)

the aircraft is carrying livestock

c)

the aircraft is carrying only essential people and will be shooting animals on the ground

d)

the aircraft is carrying a group of people associated with the firearm

94.

When can a firearm be discharged to immobilise animals on the ground? Choose all that apply

a)

Firearm is not loaded unitl the aircraft is in the area

b)

Only people performing an essential function may be carried

c)

The firearm is disabled until the aircraft is in the area

d)

It will not pose a hazard and it is not discharged above a city

95.

What are the requirements if a firearm is to be brought on an aircraft performing a military operation and only essential people are on board?

a)

no requirements

b)

disabled and inaccessible

c)

disabled

d)

unloaded

96.

When do noise and vibration requirements not have to be followed?

a)

Take off and landing, taxiing

b)

Take off and landing

c)

Take off and landing, during run ups

d)

Take off and landing, run ups and taxiing

97.

What are the restrictions when an aircraft is being refuelled with Class 3.1A flammable liquid?

a)

PAX cannot embark or disembark and the engines cannot be running

b)

PAX cannot embark or disembark only

c)

The engines cannot be running only

d)

No restrictions

98.

What are the restrictions when an aircraft is being refuelled with Class 3.1C or Class 3.1D flammable liquid?

a)

PAX cannot embark or disembark and the engines cannot be running

b)

PAX cannot embark or disembark only

c)

The engines cannot be running only

d)

No restrictions

99.

Can an aircraft be flown without a current airworthiness certificate?

a)

Yes for an emergency only

b)

Yes for a test flight

c)

Yes as long as the Director approves

d)

No, never

100.

What are the requirements for a test flight? Choose all that apply

a)

The PIC must be a LAME

b)

The PIC must have a type rating

c)

No PAX are carried on board

d)

The PIC must have a current pilot licence

101.

An aircraft with a _____ airworthiness certificate can only be used for: type ratings, agricultural ratings or the specific operational purpose for which the aircraft is certified.

a)

restricted category

b)

special category

c)

limited category

d)

experimental category

102.

An aircraft with a _____ airworthiness certificate cannot be used to carry PAX for hire or reward (unless its for flight instruction)

a)

restricted category

b)

special category

c)

limited category

d)

experimental category

103.

May an aircraft with a special category airworthiness certificate operate over a town (not including take off and landing)?

a)

no, never

b)

no, unless director authorises it in writing

c)

yes, but no PAX may be on board

d)

yes, no restrictions

104.

Which documents does a NZ registered aircraft operating in NZ require? Choose all that apply.

a)

airworthiness certificate, flight manual

b)

tech log, weight and balance data, aircraft radio station equipment approval levels

c)

general radio users licence, certificate of registration

d)

noise level and engine emission compliance, certificate of registration

105.

Which documents does a NZ registered aircraft operating outside NZ require? Choose all that apply.

a)

airworthiness certificate, flight manual

b)

tech log, weight and balance data, aircraft radio station equipment approval levels

c)

general radio users licence, certificate of registration

d)

noise level and engine emission compliance, certificate of registration

106.

Which documents does a foreign aircraft operating in NZ require? Choose all that apply.

a)

airworthiness certificate, flight manual

b)

tech log, weight and balance data, aircraft radio station equipment approval levels

c)

general radio users licence, certificate of registration

d)

noise level and engine emission compliance, certificate of registration

107.

It is the responsibility of the ____ to retain daily flight records _____

a)

operator, permanently

b)

PIC, permanently

c)

operator, for 12 months after the date of the flight

d)

PIC, for 12 months after the date of the flight

108.

Can a person with no licence taxi an aircraft if they know how to work the radio?

a)

Yes, as long as operator approves and they are competent

b)

Yes, as long as they have received at least 1hr of training from operator

c)

Yes, as long as they receive written authority from the director and they are competent

d)

No, under no circumstances

109.

What are the requirements regarding simulated instrument flight? Choose all that apply.

a)

Safety pilot must have current licence

b)

Safety pilot must have type rating in aircraft being flown

c)

You must have an observer to aid in vision if the safety pilot cannot see forward and to the sides

d)

The aircraft must have dual controls or controls that can be reached either side of cockpit

110.

If a pilot wants to operate under simulated instrument flight but the aircraft does not have dual controls, what are the requirements?

a)

Must be in class C airspace, pilot can rapidly remove foggles

b)

Must be in controlled airspace, safety pilot has to have type rating

c)

Must in uncontrolled airspace, pilot can rapidly remove foggles

d)

Must be in the instrument sector, safety pilot must be IFR rated

111.

When can a pilot enter a restricted area?

a)

At any time

b)

At any time, as long as entering will not affect the safety of the aircraft

c)

With approval from the user agency

d)

With approval from the administering authority

112.

When can a pilot enter a danger area?

a)

At any time

b)

At any time, as long as entering will not affect the safety of the aircraft

c)

With approval from the user agency

d)

With approval from the administering authority

113.

May a pilot take PAX into a LFZ at night?

a)

No passengers allowed and only permitted to enter during day

b)

Yes if the PAX are less than 4 years old

c)

Yes you can take PAX, but not at night

d)

Yes you can operate at night, but not with any PAX

114.

When can a pilot enter a military area?

a)

At any time

b)

At any time, as long as entering will not affect the safety of the aircraft

c)

With approval from the user agency

d)

With approval from the administering authority

115.

When is it NOT compulsory to broadcast in a MBZ?

a)

Entering the zone

b)

Exiting the zone

c)

Downwind in the circuit

d)

Joining the circuit

e)

Vacating the circuit

116.

It is mandatory that the aircraft operates their landing lights and anti-collision lights in a MBZ.

a)

True

b)

False

117.

Pilots flying in formation in a MBZ can operate without broadcasting as long as....

a)

The trailing aircraft makes radio calls on behalf of the other aircraft

b)

The lead aircraft makes radio calls on behalf of the other aircraft

c)

It is arranged for another person on the ground to make calls for the pilots behalf

d)

They operate in the area for less than 10 mins

118.

When can an aircraft enter a MBZ without an operable radio?

a)

For repairs, if possible they must turn lights on and arrange for a person to make calls on behalf

b)

For repairs, it is mandatory that they turn aircraft lights on and arrange for a person to make calls on behalf

c)

For an aviation event, if possible they must turn lights on and arrange for a person to make calls on behalf

d)

For an aviation event, it is mandatory that they turn aircraft lights on and arrange for a person to make calls on behalf

119.

When can an aircraft enter a CFZ without an operable radio?

a)

With the approval of the administering authority

b)

For repairs, it is mandatory that they turn aircraft lights on and arrange for a person to make calls on behalf

c)

With written approval from the director

d)

Anytime

120.

When can an aircraft operate in a volcanic hazard zone?

a)

Day only, after ensuring entering will not affect the safety of the flight

b)

VMC only, after ensuring entering will not affect the safety of the flight

c)

VMC only, day only, after ensuring entering will not affect the safety of the flight

d)

VMC only, day only, no PAX, after ensuring entering will not affect the safety of the flight

121.

When can an aircraft operate in a GAA?

a)

Day only, after approval from ATC if required

b)

VMC and day only, no approval required

c)

Anytime by day

d)

With no PAX, after approval from ATC

122.

Can a crew member NOT have their shoulder harness fastened during take off and landing?

a)

No

b)

Yes, if the crew member station's seat doesn't have one

c)

Yes, if they wouldn't be able to perform their duties with it on

d)

Yes, if the crew member station's seat doesn't have one or if they wouldn't be able to perform their duties with it on

123.

In what situations must PAX fastened their safety belt (with no exceptions)? Choose all that apply.

a)

During aerobatic flight

b)

During take off and landing

c)

Parachuting operations

d)

When the aircraft is operating below 1000ft AGL

e)

In an open cockpit aircraft

124.

Is a 4 year old passenger required to follow the 'adult' safety harness rules?

a)

yes

b)

no

125.

An unpressurised aircraft is operating at 12,000ft for 20mins what are the oxygen requirements?

a)

Each PAX and crew member must use supplemental oxygen

b)

Each PAX and crew member must use therapeutic oxygen

c)

Each PAX must use supplemental oxygen and each crew member must use therapeutic oxygen

d)

No requirement

126.

A pressurised aircraft is operating at 12,000ft for 20mins what are the oxygen requirements?

a)

Each PAX and crew member must use supplemental oxygen

b)

Each crew member must use supplemental oxygen

c)

Each PAX must use supplemental oxygen

d)

No requirement

127.

A pressurised aircraft has a cabin pressure altitude of 10,000ft what are the oxygen requirements?

a)

Each PAX and crew member must use supplemental oxygen

b)

Each crew member must use supplemental oxygen

c)

Each PAX must use supplemental oxygen

d)

No requirement

128.

A pressurised aircraft has a cabin pressure altitude of 15,000ft what are the oxygen requirements?

a)

Each PAX and crew member must use supplemental oxygen

b)

Each crew member must use supplemental oxygen

c)

Each PAX must use supplemental oxygen

d)

No requirement

129.

An unpressurised aircraft is operating at 13,000ft what are the oxygen requirements?

a)

Each PAX and crew member must use supplemental oxygen

b)

If operating for more than 30mins, each PAX and crew member must use supplemental oxygen

c)

Each crew member must use supplemental oxygen

d)

No requirement

130.

When is a passenger brief not required?

a)

When the PAX have been given a printed card with relevant information

b)

When the PIC determines all PAX are familiar with the briefing

c)

When flight manual states it is not required

d)

When the PAX have flown at least once before on the same day

131.

What flying equipment/information is the PIC required to ensure is accessible to every flight crew member?

a)

charts and means of indicating time

b)

first aid kit and a torch

c)

mean of indicating time and a torch

d)

fire extinguisher and first aid kit

132.

If an aircraft has a seating capacity of 11, is every flight crew member required to use a checklist?

a)

Yes, 5 or more is the limit

b)

Yes, 10 or more is the limit

c)

No, 12 or more is the limit

d)

No, 15 or more is the limit

133.

For night operations how many torches are required on board?

a)

One

b)

One for every seat on board

c)

One for every flight crew member

d)

One for every PAX

134.

When can an aircraft performing an agricultural operation turn in any direction for take off and landing? choose all that apply

a)

no control service at the aerodrome

b)

ground signal is displayed alongside the runway

c)

by day only

d)

no conflict with any other traffic

135.

Can aircraft fly in formation for hire or reward?

a)

No

b)

Yes, only for glider towing operations

c)

Yes, only for parachuting operations

d)

Yes, as long as the pilot doesn't receive remuneration

136.

Two aircraft are tracking towards each other head-on, what is the collision avoidance method?

a)

Both aircraft should turn right

b)

Both aircraft should turn left

c)

The aircraft tracking north should turn left

d)

The aircraft tracking south should descend and turn right

137.

For two aircraft converging...

a)

Parachutists must give way to airships

b)

Balloons shall give way to microlights

c)

The traffic on the left must give way

d)

The traffic on the right must give way

138.

How do aircraft overtake?

a)

Alter heading to the left until entirely past

b)

Climb at least 500ft above the aircraft until entirely past

c)

Descend at least 500ft below the aircraft until entirely past

d)

Alter heading to the right until entirely past

139.

Can an aircraft taxi at night without aircraft lights?

a)

No

b)

Yes, if the aircraft is illuminated or the area has obstruction lights

c)

Yes, if at a controlled aerodrome

d)

Yes, if the area has taxi lights

140.

Can an aircraft fly at night without lights?

a)

No

b)

Yes, anytime

c)

Yes, as long as it is in controlled airspace

d)

Yes, as long as it is in uncontrolled airspace

141.

Can objects be dropped from an aircraft?

a)

Yes, but not above a built up area

b)

Yes, but only in uncontrolled airspace

c)

Yes, as long as there’s no danger to persons or property

d)

No never

142.

What is the max speed a VFR aircraft can operate below 10,000ft?

a)

125

b)

350

c)

400

d)

250

143.

An aircraft climbing through 13,000ft should set ____ on the altimeter.

a)

QFE

b)

QNH

c)

QNE

d)

1012.25

144.

An aircraft descending through FL150 should set ____ on the altimeter.

a)

QFE

b)

QNH

c)

QNE

d)

1013.25

145.

What does a steady red light mean when taxiing?

a)

stop

b)

taxi clear of landing area in use

c)

danger be on the alert

d)

return to starting point on aerodrome

146.

What does an alternating red and green light mean when taxiing?

a)

stop

b)

taxi clear of landing area in use

c)

danger be on the alert

d)

return to starting point on aerodrome

147.

What does a series of red flashes mean when in flight?

a)

give way to other aircraft and orbit

b)

orbit twice then leave the CTR

c)

danger be on the alert

d)

aerodrome unsafe do not land

148.

What does a series of green flashes mean when in flight?

a)

return for landing (clearance to land coming soon)

b)

orbit once then land

c)

land at this aerodrome and proceed to apron

d)

cleared to land

149.

What transponder code should an aircraft use in the circuit of a CTR?

a)

1200

b)

1400

c)

2200

d)

7500

150.

An aircraft that has a radio failure should squawk _____.

a)

7500

b)

7600

c)

7700

d)

ident

151.

What transponder code should be used for unlawful interference?

a)

7500

b)

7600

c)

7700

d)

ident

152.

What is the met minima for an uncontrolled aerodrome by day?

a)

1500ft base, 5km vis

b)

1500ft base, 8km vis

c)

600ft base, 5km vis

d)

600ft base, 1500m vis

153.

What is the met minima for an uncontrolled aerodrome by night?

a)

1500ft base, 5km vis

b)

1500ft base, 8km vis

c)

600ft base, 5km vis

d)

600ft base, 1500m vis

154.

What is the met minima for SVFR in uncontrolled airspace?

a)

600ft base, 1500m vis

b)

1500ft base, 1500m vis

c)

600ft base, 5km vis

d)

Not possible

155.

What is the legal minimum fuel required by day?

a)

A to B + 30mins

b)

A to B + 45mins

c)

A to B + 30 mins + 10% contingency

d)

A to B + 45 mins +10% contingency

156.

When must a PIC submit a flight plan?

a)

Whenever they plan leave controlled airspace

b)

When they plan to cross the cook strait

c)

When they plan to fly more than 50nm off shore

d)

When they are completing a cross country extending more than 50nm

157.

What is the minimum height an aircraft can operate above a congested area?

a)

1000ft (above any obstacle within 600m radius)

b)

1000ft (above any obstacle within 150m radius)

c)

500ft (above any obstacle within 600m radius)

d)

500ft (above any obstacle within 150m radius)

158.

Can a pilot practice forced landings below 500ft AGL?

a)

No, never

b)

Yes, only if you're solo

c)

Yes, only if you don't go below 100ft AGL

d)

Yes, if there's no hazard and no PAX

159.

What is the lowest VFR cruising level if an aircraft is maintaining a true track of 095 over Christchurch?

a)

3500ft

b)

2500ft

c)

4500ft

d)

3000ft

160.

What is the lowest VFR cruising level if an aircraft is maintaining a magnetic track of 270 and flying terrain 5100ft

a)

5500ft

b)

4500ft

c)

7500ft

d)

6500ft

161.

When can a pilot fly at 14,000ft?

a)

When authorised by ATC

b)

Anytime

c)

When QNH is less than 980hPa

d)

When the aircraft is equipped with a supplemental oxygen system

162.

What is the met minima for an aircraft flying 800ft above a mountain with an elevation of 4500ft in uncontrolled airspace?

a)

2km vertically, 1000ft horizontally, 5km vis

b)

2km horizontally, 1000ft vertically, 5km vis

c)

clear of cloud and in sight of surface, 5km vis

d)

2km horizontally, 500ft vertically, 5km vis

163.

What is the met minima for an aircraft flying 2000ft above a mountain with an elevation of 4500ft in uncontrolled airspace?

a)

2km vertically, 1000ft horizontally, 5km vis

b)

2km horizontally, 1000ft vertically, 5km vis

c)

clear of cloud and in sight of surface, 5km vis

d)

2km horizontally, 500ft vertically, 5km vis

164.

Is an instrument indicating flap position on the 'minimum equipment list'?

a)

yes

b)

no

c)

no, unless the aircraft's engine is rated over 250 horsepower

d)

yes, unless it can be determined visually

165.

What are the communication requirements for an aircraft operating under VFR in controlled airspace?

a)

Meets level 1 standards and is capable of two-way coms

b)

Meets level 2 standards

c)

Meets level 1 and 2 standards and is capable of two-way coms

d)

Meets level 3 and 4 standards

166.

When does an aircraft require the following:

Radio equipment that meets controlled airspace radio requirements

Dual Controls

Navigation equipment

Alternate static source

a)

VFR aircraft travelling more than 30mins over water

b)

IFR aircraft more than gliding distance away from shore

c)

Multi engine aircraft more than 100nm from shore

d)

VFR aircraft more than gliding distance from shore

167.

What equipment does a single engine aircraft travelling more than gliding distance from shore require?

Choose all that apply.

a)

life jacket for every PAX

b)

liferaft to hold all PAX

c)

survival kit, pyrotechnic signal, survival light and ELT every raft

d)

additional ELT

168.

What equipment does a multi engine aircraft that cannot maintain 1000ft AMSL on one engine require if it is travelling more than 100nm from shore?

Choose all that apply.

a)

life jacket for every PAX

b)

liferaft to hold all PAX

c)

survival kit, pyrotechnic signal, survival light and ELT every raft

d)

additional ELT

169.

What equipment does a multi engine aircraft require if it is travelling more than 200nm from shore?

Choose all that apply.

a)

life jacket for every PAX

b)

liferaft to hold all PAX

c)

survival kit, pyrotechnic signal, survival light and ELT every raft

d)

additional ELT

170.

What equipment does a single engine aircraft require if it is travelling 67nm from shore?

Choose all that apply.

a)

life jacket for every PAX

b)

liferaft to hold all PAX

c)

survival kit, pyrotechnic signal, survival light and ELT every raft

d)

additional ELT

171.

What equipment does a multi engine aircraft >5700kg MCTOW require if it is travelling more than 200nm from shore?

Choose all that apply.

a)

life jacket for every PAX

b)

liferaft to hold all PAX

c)

survival kit, pyrotechnic signal, survival light and ELT every raft

d)

additional ELT

172.

Is it mandatory to have an automatic ELT on board?

a)

no, never

b)

yes, if your aircraft has a MCTOW of >5700kg

c)

yes, if operating IFR

d)

yes, unless it is being ferried for installation or repair

173.

Can an aircraft operate in TM airspace without a transponder?

a)

Yes

b)

No, must have at least Mode C

c)

No, must have at least Mode A

d)

No, must have at least Mode C and A

174.

A 100 hour inspection must be completed within the preceding _____.

a)

28 days

b)

2 months

c)

6 months

d)

12 months

175.

How often does the static pressure system have to be tested and inspected?

a)

28 days

b)

3 months

c)

12 months

d)

24 months

176.

The ELT must be tested and inspected every 100 hours or ____ whichever comes first.

a)

28 days

b)

3 months

c)

12 months

d)

24 months

177.

How long can can the inspection intervals be extended for?

a)

1%

b)

3%

c)

10%

d)

30%

178.

What are the requirements for an operational flight check?

Choose all that apply.

a)

PIC has current licence and is type rated

b)

No PAX, no exceptions

c)

Only essential PAX on board

d)

PIC requires current licence only

179.

How often is an annual review of airworthiness due?

a)

90 days

b)

365 days

c)

18 months

d)

48 months

180.

Aerobatic flight may not be conducted less than _____ of an assembly of persons or congested area.

a)

100m

b)

150m

c)

500m

d)

600m

181.

Aerobatic flight may not be conducted at a height of less than _____ for a pilot without an aerobatic rating.

a)

1000ft AGL

b)

1500ft AGL

c)

3000ft AGL

d)

5000ft AGL

182.

Can a pilot do aerobatics with PAX on board without an aerobatics rating?

a)

no

b)

yes, as long as they stay above 1500ft

c)

yes, as long as they stay above 3000ft

d)

yes, no height restrictions

183.

How often does a pilot need to have their aerobatics rating checked for competency?

a)

90 days

b)

1 year

c)

2 years

d)

3 years

184.

An aviation event plan must be submitted to the director at least ____ prior to the aviation event date.

a)

30 days

b)

60 days

c)

90 days

d)

120 days

185.

Can anyone perform parachute-drop operations?

a)

yes, no restrictions

b)

yes, as long as the PAX have parachute-drop ratings

c)

yes, as long as the door is approved to be removed as per the flight manual

d)

no

186.

Who can tow objects other than a glider?

a)

A holder of PPL + tow rating, or CPL, or ATPL

b)

A holder of PPL, CPL, or ATPL but they must have a tow rating

c)

A holder of PPL + tow rating, or CPL + tow rating, or ATPL

d)

A holder of CPL, or ATPL but they must have a tow rating

187.

What are the tow line requirements for multiple glider towing?

a)

at least 30m between tow aircraft and glider, and 50m between each glider

b)

at least 50m between tow aircraft and glider, and 30m between each glider

c)

at least 30m between tow aircraft and glider, and 30m between each glider

d)

at least 50m between tow aircraft and glider, and 50m between each glider

188.

Can you carry PAX when towing objects other than glider?

a)

No, never

b)

Yes, anytime

c)

Yes, as long as flight is less than 30 mins long

d)

Yes, as long as they are essential for the flight

189.

The dangerous goods training programme must be completed at intervals not exceeding ______

a)

6 months

b)

1 year

c)

2 years

d)

5 years

190.

When must pilots maintain a listening watch and transmit position on an aerodromes stated frequency or 119.1 if no stated?

a)

When below 3000ft and within 10nm of an unattended aerodrome

b)

When below 5000ft and within 5nm of an unattended aerodrome

c)

When below 5000ft and within 10nm of an unattended aerodrome

d)

When below 3000ft and within 10nm of a controlled aerodrome

191.

Describe REIL

a)

low intensity uni-directional light, 45 flashes per minute

b)

high intensity uni-directional light, 60 flashes per minute

c)

low intensity omni-directional light, 10hz

d)

high intensity omni-directional light, 1hz

192.

Describe RTHL

a)

uni-directional green

b)

uni-directional white

c)

omni-directional green

d)

omni-directional white

193.

Describe ABN

a)

green or alternating white and green, 20 flashes per second

b)

orange or alternating white and orange, 60 flashes per minute

c)

white or alternating white and green, 20 flashes per minute

d)

white or alternating white and blue, 60 flashes per second

194.

How do you activate PAL?

a)

3 rapid and short transmissions within 5 seconds

b)

3 rapid and short transmissions within 3 seconds

c)

5 rapid and short transmissions within 2 seconds

d)

5 rapid and short transmissions within 3 seconds