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AP US Government and Politics Review

Total questions: 135

Worksheet time: 1hrs 27mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

State governments have the most judgment in creating policy when funding is derived from:

a)

Categorical Grants

b)

Block Grants

c)

Matching Grants

d)

Grant-in-Aid

2.

Which of the following is true under the system of checks and balances?

a)

The Supreme Court can overrule the President’s policy proposals.

b)

The Supreme Court can remove members of Congress.

c)

The Senate must ratify treaties before they become law.

d)

The House appoints justices to the Supreme Court.

3.

The most important effect of replacing the Articles of Confederation with the Constitution of 1787 was:

a)

The Protection of Free Speech

b)

The Establishment of Judicial Review

c)

The Guarantee of States’ Rights

d)

The creation of a Strong National Government

4.

All of the following are examples of checks and balances except:

a)

Declaration of War by Congress

b)

Appointment of Supreme Court Justices

c)

Presidential Veto

d)

Impeachment of the President

5.

The Supreme Court's decision in Marbury v. Madison (1803):

a)

Expanded the Powers of Congress

b)

Supported the Concept of National Supremacy

c)

Strengthened the Powers of the States

d)

Established the Principle of Judicial Review

6.

Which compromise describes how the Founders resolved the issues of slavery and taxes?

a)

The Great Compromise

b)

The 3/5's Compromise

c)

The Connecticut Compromise

d)

The New Jersey Plan

7.

Which of the following was not a weakness of government under the Articles of Confederation?

a)

Only the President Could Initiate Foreign Treaties

b)

Unanimous Decisions were Necessary to Amend the Articles

c)

Congress Lacked the Power to Tax and Create Common Currency

d)

The National Government Lacked a Judicial Branch

8.

Of the following, American federalism is most greatly exemplified by the:

a)

Process by which International Treaties are Completed

b)

President’s Power to Grant Reprieves and Pardons

c)

Special Constitutional Status of Washington, D.C.

d)

The Selection of Senators by the State Legislatures

9.

Which of the following most accurately describes The Federalist Papers?

a)

A Popular Anti-British Booklet of the Pre-Revolutionary Era

b)

Essays Arguing for the Adoption of the U.S. Constitution

c)

The Federalist Platform under President Adams

d)

Congressional acts that defines relations between the states

10.

Which of the following would argue for a strong national government?

a)

Brutus

b)

Julius

c)

Cato

d)

Publius

11.

Which level of government found its power strengthened after McCulloch v. Maryland (1819)?

a)

Local

b)

State

c)

National

d)

International

12.

Cooperative federalism can best be described as:

a)

“Marble Cake Federalism”

b)

“Layer Cake Federalism”

c)

An Extension of New Federalism

d)

An Extension of Economic Federalism

13.

The Declaration of Independence was most clearly influenced by the political philosophy of:

a)

Thomas Hobbes

b)

Niccolo Machiavelli

c)

John Calvin

d)

John Locke

14.

Which principle of the Constitution is reflected in the procedures for creating amendments?

a)

Popular Sovereignty

b)

Checks and Balances

c)

Separation of Powers

d)

Federalism

15.

Devolution is a movement that promotes giving more policy-making power to the:

a)

The President

b)

States

c)

Federal Bureaucracy

d)

The National Government

16.

Marxists analyze society primarily through the lens of:

a)

Class

b)

Pluralism

c)

Race

d)

Institutions

17.

In which of the following examples is power the most diluted?

a)

An Oligarchy

b)

A Constitutional Monarchy

c)

A Totalitarian

d)

A Direct Democracy

18.

Individuals voluntarily agree to create a government to secure and protect members of society:

a)

Evolutionary Theory

b)

Divine Right Theory

c)

Social Contract Theory

d)

Pluralist Theory

19.

The framers had a commitment to a republic. Which most represented that commitment?

a)

The US Senate

b)

The Supreme Court

c)

The President

d)

The House of Representatives

20.

In 2015, President Obama nominated a justice to the Supreme Court that was not confirmed. Which concept does this demonstrate?

a)

Federalism

b)

Majority Rule

c)

Due Process

d)

Check and Balances

21.

The ____ theory believes that no one group controls because of many competing interests.

a)

Pluralism

b)

Marxism

c)

Power Elite

d)

Social Group

22.

When Madison wrote "Ambition must be made to counteract ambition" he was describing what?

a)

Separation of Powers

b)

Federalism

c)

Power Elite

d)

Popular Sovereignty

23.

Which of the following students is most likely to be politically liberal?

a)

A Junior College Student

b)

A Baptist Preacher

c)

A Professor at a State University

d)

A Rich Businessman

24.

A congressman is opposed to social medicine and high taxes. This congressman is most likely a:

a)

Liberal

b)

Independent

c)

Conservative

d)

Communist

25.

Inactive voters tend to be all of the following except:

a)

Religious

b)

Young

c)

Low Education

d)

Low Income

26.

Explanations for low voter turnout include all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Registration Requirements

b)

Weekday Elections

c)

Laws Protecting Voting Rights for Minorities

d)

Frequency of Elections

27.

Political socialization is the process by which:

a)

The use of private property is regulated by the government

b)

Political values are passed to the next generation

c)

Public attitudes toward government are measured and reported

d)

Children are trained for successful occupations

28.

What is the adequate sample size for a national public opinion poll?

a)

150

b)

1,500

c)

15,000

d)

150,000

29.

The Literary Digest survey that incorrectly predicted the 1936 presidential election...

a)

Was the first national poll ever conducted

b)

Had poorly worded questions

c)

Had a sample size that was too small

d)

Had a sample that was not reflective of the population

30.

Which of the following election years will have the highest voter turnout?

a)

2006

b)

2010

c)

2016

d)

2018

31.

Of the following Americans, whose opinion matters the most?

a)

A Convicted Felon

b)

An 18-Year-Old

c)

A Retired 65-Year-Old

d)

The opinions of all Americans are of equal importance

32.

Which piece of legislation most significantly increased the size of the voting population?

a)

The Voting Rights Act of 1964

b)

The Motor Voter Act

c)

The 19th Amendment

d)

The 26th Amendment

33.

Which of the following states is most likely to see the highest voter participation percentage?

a)

Georgia

b)

Oregon

c)

Texas

d)

California

34.

The Founders saw political parties as:

a)

An important aspect of democracy

b)

A means communicating public opinion to the president

c)

Effective only in raising money for campaigns

d)

Factions motivated by ambition and self-interest

35.

Retrospective voting involves:

a)

Basing your vote on past performance

b)

Voting for the best candidate

c)

Voting consistently for the same party

d)

Voting on the basis of what you think the candidate will do

36.

ABC News declares one candidate the winner in a debate. In this role, ABC News is acting as:

a)

Gatekeeper

b)

Watchdog

c)

Scorekeeper

d)

Investigator

37.

A declaration of the party’s beliefs:

a)

Plank

b)

Platform

c)

Primary

d)

Caucus

38.

The Democratic Party created theis to give more voice to party elites?

a)

Caucuses

b)

The McCain-Feingold Act

c)

Blanket Primary

d)

Super Delegates

39.

What is the most expensive element of a political campaign?

a)

Television Advertisements

b)

Yard Signs and Flyers

c)

Consultants and Pollsters

d)

Transportation

40.

Interest groups that members benefits such as magazines or discounts, are providing:

a)

Purposive Incentives

b)

Informational Incentives

c)

Material Incentives

d)

Solidary Incentives

41.

Which interest group action would most greatly influence policy in the courts?

a)

Rating Senators based on previous voting

b)

Filing an amicus curiae brief

c)

Lobbying members of Congress

d)

Purchasing an ad in a national newspaper

42.

A Democrat who is running against a Republican is in which part of the campaign?

a)

The Primary Election

b)

The Caucus

c)

The Nomination Process

d)

The General Election

43.

The image best represents which political concept:

a)

The Electoral College

b)

An Australian Ballot

c)

An Open Ballot

d)

A Caucus

44.

If a state has 14 representative in the House, how many electoral votes does it have?

a)

12

b)

14

c)

16

d)

18

45.

Which of the following benefited most from the Supreme Court case Citizens United v. FEC?

a)

An American Farmer

b)

The National Rifle Association (NRA)

c)

Pfizer Pharmaceuticals

d)

School Teachers

46.

Which of the following is an example of a free-rider?

a)

Someone who pays to go to the movies

b)

Someone who breaks in line in front of others

c)

Someone who pays their federal taxes late

d)

Someone who listens to NPR, without donating money

47.

The picture is an example of:

a)

A Negative Fear Ad

b)

A Negative Backfire Ad

c)

A Morning Again Ad

d)

A Real People Testimonial Ad

48.

Which of the following can spend unlimited amounts of money on a political campaign, and accept donations of any size?

a)

A Super PAC

b)

A Political Party

c)

A 527 Organization

d)

An Interest Group

49.

In Federalist 10, James Madison argued that factions in a republic are:

a)

A more serious threat if the republic is large

b)

Prevented by majority rule

c)

Prevented by free elections

d)

Natural but controllable by institutions

50.

This gives Congress the ability to limit the president's authority to commit troops overseas.

a)

Curtis v. United States

b)

The War Powers Resolution

c)

Executive Order

d)

Article III

51.

This determines the terms and conditions of debate when a bill goes to the floor:

a)

House Rules Committee

b)

Senate Rules Committee

c)

Senatorial Courtesy

d)

The Media

52.

Who is most likely to vote for the expansion of Social Security benefits?

a)

Republicans

b)

Voters Aged 18-24

c)

Senior Citizens

d)

White Males

53.

This is the most effective way for Congress to check the bureaucracy:

a)

Passing Laws

b)

Controlling the Budget

c)

Impeaching Cabinet Heads

d)

Publicly Shaming the Bureaucracy

54.

The idea that judges ought to freely strike down laws that are inconsistent with their understanding of the Constitution is known as:

a)

Original Intent

b)

Judicial Activism

c)

Judicial Restraint

d)

Stare Decisis

55.

This proposed a Senate with equal representation for each state and a House of Representatives with membership established according to the population of each state:

a)

The New Jersey Plan

b)

The Virginia Plan

c)

The Great Compromise

d)

The Albany Plan of Union

56.

Generally, when is a president more likely to get congressional approval of proposed policies?

a)

In foreign affairs, rather than in domestic affairs.

b)

In social policy areas, rather than in economic policy areas.

c)

In the second term, rather than in the first.

d)

After midterm congressional elections.

57.

Which of the following actions by a congressional representative is an example of “pork barreling”?

a)

Misusing Campaign Contributions

b)

Accepting Money from a Political Action Committee (PAC)

c)

Directing Federal Funds into the Representative’s District Through Legislation

d)

Voting for a Salary Increase

58.

The primary responsibility for determining monetary policy in the United States rests with the:

a)

International Monetary Fund

b)

World Bank

c)

Treasury Department

d)

The Fed

59.

In the United States judicial system, when a judge decides a case based on decisions rendered in similar cases from the past, the judge is following the principle of:

a)

Amicus Curiae

b)

Stare Decisis

c)

Certiorari

d)

Rule of Four

60.

After a constitutional amendment has been proposed by both houses of Congress, its’ adoption requires:

a)

Official Filing with the Secretary of State

b)

Support by a Majority Vote of the People

c)

Signature by the President

d)

Ratification by three-fourths of the States

61.

Giving state governments greater discretion in deciding how to achieve the specific goals of welfare reform is an example of:

a)

An Unfunded Mandate

b)

Implied Powers

c)

Dual Federalism

d)

Devolution

62.

All of the following are examples of a linkage institution influencing policy process EXCEPT:

a)

The President Delivering the State of the Union Address

b)

The Sierra Club Lobbying the EPA

c)

An expose by the National Media on the Housing Crisis

d)

The Republicans Pursuing a Balanced Budget Amendment

63.

Where must all revenue bills originate?

a)

The President

b)

The House of Representatives

c)

The Senate

d)

The Congressional Budget Office

64.

Who must confirm nominees to the Supreme Court of the United States?

a)

The House Judiciary Committee

b)

The House of Representatives

c)

A Simple Majority of the Senate

d)

Four Out of Nine Sitting Justices

65.

Which of the following is true of most federal judges appointed by the president?

a)

They serve a ten year term.

b)

They serve as long as the appointing president stays in power.

c)

The serve for life on good behavior unless impeached and convicted by Congress.

d)

They serve for life and are not subject to congressional impeachment.

66.

An example of a discretionary item in the federal budget is

a)

Interest on the Public Debt

b)

Spending on National Parks

c)

Social Security Payments

d)

Veterans’ Pensions

67.

The three points of an iron triangle include:

a)

An Independent Agency, A State, and A Member of Congress.

b)

An Administrative Agency, An Interest Group, and A Congressional Committee.

c)

A Cabinet Department, An Interest Group, and The House Majority Leader.

d)

The Executive Office of the President, An Interest Group, and A Senate Committee.

68.

Interest groups engage in all of the following activities EXCEPT:

a)

Sponsoring Issue Advocacy Ads.

b)

Lobbying Federal Agencies.

c)

Filing Federal Lawsuits.

d)

Using the Franking Privilege.

69.

Which of the following options represents the majority opinion in US v Lopez?

a)

Individuals have the right to own and carry guns.

b)

The power of the federal government in relation to state governments is limited in this case.

c)

The Commerce Clause gives Congress broad powers to determine the constitutionality of laws.

d)

Even small, local events ultimately have an effect on interstate commerce.

70.

In the McCulloch v. Maryland (1819) decision, which two provisions in the Constitution were upheld and strengthened?

a)

Congress's power to regulate commerce and to levy taxes.

b)

The Necessary and Proper Clause and the Supremacy Clause.

c)

The 1st and 10th Amendments.

d)

The Full Faith and Credit Clause and the Extradition Clause.

71.

What was the effect of the opinion in Schenck v. United States?

a)

People can say or express anything as long as the nation is not at war.

b)

During wartime, no person can criticize the US government.

c)

Free speech was expanded in the US.

d)

As long as speech does not present a clear and present danger, it is allowed.

72.

In what way do the decisions in Engel v. Vitale and Wisconsin v. Yoder differ?

a)

One suggests a public policy creates an establishment of religion, while the other suggests a public policy denies a free exercise of religion.

b)

One was decided on free speech grounds, and one was decided on free press grounds.

c)

One preserved the governmental policy, and the other struck down a governmental policy.

d)

One was during wartime, and one was during peacetime.

73.

Which of the following is a result of the Gideon v. Wainwright decision?

a)

Evidence acquired without a warrant will be excluded from the defendant's trial.

b)

No state can prevent a woman from having an abortion.

c)

Police must tell arrested suspects that they have a right against self-incrimination.

d)

States must provide poor defendants with public defense attorneys.

74.

In Brown v Board of Education (1954), the Supreme Court based its decision on which provision of the 14th Amendment?

a)

Jus Sanguinis clause.

b)

The Equal Protection clause.

c)

The Due Process clause.

d)

The Civil Rights Act.

75.

Which of the following did the Supreme Court permit in New York Times v. United States?

a)

Printing Military Strategies During the Vietnam War

b)

Publishing Papers Regarding Government Decisions During the Vietnam War

c)

Nixon’s Invocation of Executive Privilege

d)

Investigations into Presidential Corruption

76.

Which of the following statements identifies the Supreme Court’s decision in Tinker v. Des Moines?

a)

Schools can suspend students whose actions stimulate class discussions.

b)

The First Amendment protects non-disruptive expression within schools.

c)

Students can express their opinions in any way they choose in school.

d)

Clothing cannot be categorized as a form of speech.

77.

Baker v. Carr (1961)

a)

Prohibited Redistricting in Southern States

b)

Enabled Courts to Intervene in Congressional Redistricting

c)

“One person, one vote”

d)

Ruled that Redistricting Based Solely on Race was Unconstitutional

78.

On which constitutional principle did the Supreme Court base it’s ruling in Citizens United?

a)

Freedom of Speech.

b)

The 5th Amendment's Freedom to Remain Silent.

c)

Freedom of Expression.

d)

The Equal Protection Clause.

79.

Established supremacy of the U.S. Constitution and federal laws over state laws:

a)

Marbury v. Madison (1803)

b)

McCulloch v. Maryland (1819)

c)

New York Times Co. v. United States (1971)

d)

Roe v. Wade (1973)

80.

Decided that Congress could not use the commerce clause to make possession of a gun in a school zone a federal crime:

a)

Marbury v. Madison (1803)

b)

McDonald v. Chicago (2010)

c)

Brown v. Board of Education (1954)

d)

U.S. v. Lopez (1995)

81.

School sponsorship of religious activities (like prayer) violates the establishment clause:

a)

Wisconsin v. Yoder (1972)

b)

Engel v. Vitale (1962)

c)

Tinker v. Des Moines (1969)

d)

Gideon v. Wainwright (1963)

82.

Compelling Amish students to attend school past the 8th grade violates the free exercise clause:

a)

Tinker v. Des Moines (1969)

b)

Roe v. Wade (1973)

c)

Wisconsin v. Yoder (1972)

d)

Citizens United v. Federal Election Commission (2010)

83.

Public school students have the right to wear black armbands in school to protest Vietnam War:

a)

Tinker v. Des Moines (1969)

b)

New York Times Co. v. United States (1971)

c)

Baker v. Carr (1961)

d)

Schenck v. United States (1919)

84.

FREE PRESS v. NATIONAL SECURITY- This case supported free press arguments at the expense of prior restraint claims:

a)

Schenck v. United States (1919)

b)

Baker v. Carr (1961)

c)

Gideon v. Wainwright (1963)

d)

New York Times Co. v. United States (1971)

85.

Speech creating a “clear and present danger” is not protected by the First Amendment:

a)

Gideon v. Wainwright (1963)

b)

New York Times Co. v. United States (1971)

c)

Schenck v. United States (1919)

d)

Tinker v. Des Moines (1969)

86.

Guaranteed the right to an attorney for the poor:

a)

Gideon v. Wainwright (1963)

b)

Shaw v. Reno (1993)

c)

Engel v. Vitale (1962)

d)

Citizens United v. Federal Election Commission (2010)

87.

Extended the right of privacy to a woman’s decision to have an abortion:

a)

Wisconsin v. Yoder (1972)

b)

Roe v. Wade (1973)

c)

New York Times Co. v. United States (1971)

d)

Marbury v. Madison (1803)

88.

The Second Amendment right to keep and bear arms for self-defense is applicable to the states:

a)

Shaw v. Reno (1993)

b)

U.S. v. Lopez (1995)

c)

Citizens United v. Federal Election Commission (2010)

d)

McDonald v. Chicago (2010)

89.

Race-based school segregation violates the equal protection clause:

a)

Brown v. Board of Education (1954)

b)

Engel v. Vitale (1962)

c)

Baker v. Carr (1961)

d)

Tinker v. Des Moines (1969)

90.

Political spending by corporations, associations., and labor unions is speech protected by the First Amendment:

a)

Schenck v. United States (1919)

b)

Shaw v. Reno (1993)

c)

Citizens United v. Federal Election Commission (2010)

d)

McDonald v. Chicago (2010)

91.

Supported “one man, one vote”; thus requiring congressional districts to be roughly equal in population in a given state:

a)

Baker v. Carr (1961)

b)

Gideon v. Wainwright (1963)

c)

Shaw v. Reno (1993)

d)

Citizens United v. Federal Election Commission (2010)

92.

Our nation's first attempt at a written constitution was:

a)

The Articles of Confederation

b)

The Declaration of Independence

c)

The US Constitution

d)

Brutus #1

93.

John Locke contributed ideologically to the Declaration of Independence with his idea of:

a)

The State of Nature

b)

Separation of Powers

c)

Checks and Balances

d)

Natural Rights

94.

The Federalist Papers were a collection of essays arguing...

a)

Against Independence from Britain

b)

For Independence from Britain

c)

For the Ratification of the US Constitution

d)

Against the Ratification of the US Constitution

95.

Which of the following was NOT an author of the Federalist Papers?

a)

John Jay

b)

James Madison

c)

Thomas Jefferson

d)

Alexander Hamilton

96.

The vast majority of the Declaration of Independence was:

a)

A List of Signers

b)

Wrongs that the Colonists had Endured

c)

Ways the Colonists had been Good Colonists

d)

Ways Britain Could Change to Repair the Relationship

97.

The social contract theory is central to the argument of:

a)

The Declaration of Independence

b)

Federalist 10

c)

Brutus 1

d)

Federalist 70

98.

"If men were angels, no government would be necessary!" comes from:

a)

Federalist 10

b)

Federalist 51

c)

Federalist 70

d)

Federalist 78

99.

Which of the following makes a case for republicanism overcoming the ills of faction?

a)

Brutus 1

b)

Federalist 10

c)

Federalist 51

d)

Federalist 78

100.

Which of the following argues that popular sovereignty only exists in a direct democracy?

a)

Federalist 10

b)

Federalist 51

c)

Federalist 78

d)

Brutus 1

101.

The idea that checks and balances limits the government from becoming too powerful appears in:

a)

Federalist 51

b)

Federalist 70

c)

Federalist 78

d)

Brutus 1

102.

All of the following are weaknesses of the Articles of Confederation, except:

a)

The Articles Limited State Sovereignty

b)

No Executive or Judicial Branches

c)

No Method for Taxation

d)

Required Unanimous Consent of the States for an Amendment to Pass

103.

Federalist #70 argues that

a)

Multiple Executives are Best

b)

A Unitary Executive is Ideal

c)

An Executive Will Never Become a Tyrant

d)

An Executive is Unnecessary when a Strong Legislature is in Place

104.

Which document is a social contract outlining our natural rights?

a)

US Constitution

b)

Articles of Confederation

c)

Declaration of Independence

d)

Brutus 1

105.

The Articles of Confederation was based on:

a)

Federalism

b)

State Sovereignty

c)

Racial Equality

d)

Proportional Representation

106.

Which document questioned the powers given to Congress in the US Constitution?

a)

Federalist 10

b)

Federalist 78

c)

Brutus 1

d)

Federalist 51

107.

Which document stated that factions are inevitable and need to be controlled?

a)

Federalist 10

b)

Federalist 51

c)

Federalist 70

d)

Federalist 78

108.

Which document defended separation of power and checks and balances?

a)

Federalist 10

b)

Federalist 51

c)

Federalist 70

d)

Federalist 78

109.

Which foundational document is used to justify social movements?

a)

The Declaration of Independence

b)

The Articles of Confederation

c)

The Bill of Rights

d)

Letter From a Birmingham Jail

110.

"We hold these truths to be self-evident, that all men are created equal" can be found in:

a)

The Declaration of Independence

b)

The Articles of Confederation

c)

The Bill of Rights

d)

Letter From a Birmingham Jail

111.

This is the number of representatives in Congress.

a)

100

b)

435

c)

500

d)

535

112.

A newly elected official will be in office for the next six years. Which office do they hold?

a)

The President

b)

A Representative

c)

A Senator

d)

A Supreme Court Justice

113.

The number of members in the Senate is:

a)

Based Upon Population

b)

Equal for all States

c)

Decided Upon by the Voters

d)

Depends on the Ruling Party

114.

The majority party in power in the House of Representatives appoints a leader called:

a)

President pro Tempore

b)

Chief Justice

c)

Senator

d)

Speaker of the House

115.

Who is the presiding officer of the Senate, and can be brought in to cast a tie-breaking vote if needed?

a)

The Chief Justice

b)

The Vice President

c)

Chairman of the Joint Chiefs

d)

Secretary of State

116.
Senators or Representatives who are already holding office are
a)
Constituents 
b)
Lobbyist 
c)
Incumbents
d)
Independents
117.

These committees include members from both the Senate and the House. They are formed occasionally for certain issues:

a)

Standing

b)

Joint

c)

Select

d)

Optional

118.

Who has the most "real" power in the Senate?

a)

Speaker of the Senate

b)

Majority Leader

c)

Vice President

d)

President

119.

A filibuster can be ended by a _____ Resolution, requiring sixty votes.

a)

Cloture

b)

Capture

c)

Ending

d)

Censure

120.

What is probably the most powerful committee in the House, because it sets rules for debate and procedure on all bills?

a)

Gun Safety Committee

b)

Conference Committee

c)

Ways and Means Committee

d)

Rules Committee

121.
A law passed in 1973 that requires the presidents to consult with Congress whenever possible prior to using military force and to withdraw forces after 60 days unless Congress declares war or grants an extension.
a)
War Powers Resolution
b)
United Nations
c)
Hatch Act
d)
Pendleton Civil Service Act
122.

Legislation that permits the Vice President to become acting president if he and the cabinet determine that the President is disabled:

a)

25th Amendment

b)

22nd Amendment

c)

16th Amendment

d)

26th Amendment

123.

A type of veto occurring when Congress adjourns within 10 days of submitting a bill to the President, and the President simply lets the bill die by neither signing nor vetoing it:

a)

Pocket Veto

b)

Veto

c)

Legislative Veto

d)

Line-Item Veto

124.

The principal leader of the minority party in the House of Representatives or in the Senate.

a)

Minority Leader

b)

Majority Leader

c)

Speaker of the House

d)

President Pro Tempore

125.

The foreign policy course the U.S. followed throughout most of its history whereby it tried to stay out of other nations’ conflicts:

a)

Isolationism

b)

Arms Race

c)

Detente

d)

Containment Doctrine

126.

The political equivalent of an indictment in criminal law, prescribed by the Constitution:

a)

Impeachment

b)

Writ of Mandamus

c)

Merit Principle

d)

Cloture

127.

A strategy unique to the Senate whereby opponents of a piece of legislation use their right to unlimited debate to prevent the Senate from ever voting on a bill:

a)

Filibuster

b)

Resolution

c)

Incumbent

d)

Cloture

128.

Congressional committees formed when the Senate and the House pass a particular bill in different forms:

a)

Conference Committee

b)

Senate Finance Committee

c)

House Ways and Means Committee

d)

Joint Committee

129.

A group of presidential advisers not mentioned in the Constitution, composed of 14 secretaries, the attorney general, and others.

a)

Cabinet

b)

Office of Management and Budget

c)

Senior Executive Service

d)

Street-Level Bureaucrats

130.

All the money borrowed by the federal government over the years that is still outstanding:

a)

National Debt

b)

Deficit

c)

Regulation

d)

Revenues

131.

An excess of federal expenditures over federal revenues.

a)

Deficit

b)

Budget

c)

National Debt

d)

Balance of Trade

132.

Government programs providing benefits to qualified individuals, regardless of need:

a)

Entitlements

b)

Expenditures

c)

Tariffs

d)

Regulations

133.

Passed in 1883, legislation that created a federal civil service so that hiring and promotion would be based on merit, rather than patronage.

a)

Pendleton Civil Service Act

b)

Hatch Act

c)

Spoils Act

d)

Warren Act

134.

The idea that hiring should be based on entrance exams and promotion ratings to produce administration by people with talent and skill.

a)

Merit Principle

b)

Civil Service

c)

Pendleton Civil Service Act

d)

Bureaucracy

135.

A federal law prohibiting government employees from active participation in partisan politics while on duty, or for employees in sensitive positions at any time.

a)

Hatch Act

b)

Pendleton Civil Service Act

c)

Merit Principle

d)

War Powers Resolution