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PPL FRTO

Total questions: 68

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is amplitude?

a)

The number of complete waves (cycles) that occur in one second.

b)

The distance between the extremities of a signal’s oscillation

c)

The process of transposing intelligence onto a carrier wave.

d)

The length of one complete wave (or cycle)

2.

What is frequency?

a)

The number of complete waves (cycles) that occur in one second.

b)

The distance between the extremities of a signal’s oscillation

c)

The process of transposing intelligence onto a carrier wave.

d)

The length of one complete wave (or cycle)

3.

What is wavelength?

a)

The number of complete waves (cycles) that occur in one second.

b)

The distance between the extremities of a signal’s oscillation

c)

The process of transposing intelligence onto a carrier wave.

d)

The length of one complete wave (or cycle)

4.

What is frequency modulation?

a)

The audio signal that contains the information intended for transmission.

b)

The intelligence modifies the carrier wave’s amplitude.

c)

The process of transposing intelligence onto a carrier wave.

d)

The intelligence modifies the carrier wave’s frequency

5.

What is the following statement defining:

signals falling between 30MHz and 300MHz

a)

HF

b)

VHF

c)

LF

d)

UHF

6.

What measures frequency?

a)

joules

b)

millibars

c)

amps

d)

hertz

7.

What is the following statement defining:

The audio signal that contains the information intended for transmission.

a)

intelligence

b)

modulation

c)

transceiver

d)

attenuation

8.

What is attenuation?

a)

The distance between the extremities of a signal’s oscillation

b)

The “weakening” of a signal as its amplitude reduces

c)

The process of transposing intelligence onto a carrier wave.

d)

A measurement of frequency

9.

You've had a radio failure in flight and see a flashing red light, what does this mean?

a)

stop

b)

vacate the control zone

c)

give way to other traffic and continue circling

d)

aerodrome unsafe - do not land

10.

You've had a radio failure in flight and see a flashing white light, what does this mean?

a)

notwithstanding previous instructions do not land

b)

land at aerodrome and proceed to apron

c)

return to starting point of aerodrome

d)

return for landing

11.

You've had a radio failure while taxiing and see a flashing green light, what does this mean?

a)

taxi and line up on runway

b)

cleared to take off

c)

return to starting point of aerodrome

d)

cleared to taxi

12.

What light signal means "danger - be on the alert"

a)

red and green lights

b)

flashing red lights

c)

flashing white lights

d)

red pyrotechnic

13.

What airspace must you maintain two way communication?

a)

Class A only

b)

Class A, B, C, and D

c)

Class A, B, C, D and E

d)

Class A, B, C, D and E under IFR

14.

Can you enter controlled airspace without an operable transponder?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

No, unless you have ATC clearance

d)

Yes, as long as you operate below 1500ft

15.

Transponder mandatory airspace is depicted by what on a map?

a)

Blue diamonds

b)

The letter T

c)

Blue circles

d)

The letter TM

16.

What will ON function do when selected on the transponder?

a)

Provide position and altitude to ATC

b)

Warm up the system

c)

Provide position only to ATC

d)

Provide altitude only to ATC

17.

The ALT function on your transponder provides what Mode?

a)

A

b)

C

c)

S

18.

When should you use 7600 on your transponder?

a)

Radio failure

b)

Declaring an emergency

c)

Declaring a PANPAN

d)

Unlawful interference

19.

What transponder code should you use in the event of an engine failure?

a)

7500

b)

7600

c)

7700

d)

7800

20.

ATC tell you to squawk ident, what should you do?

a)

Change the mode to ON

b)

Read back "squawk ident"

c)

Change the transponder code to 1200

d)

Push the ident button only

21.

Which of the following are options to identify your aircraft as a callsign? Choose all that apply

a)

Flight identification + 3 letters

b)

Aircraft model + 3 letters

c)

Aircraft manufacturer + 3 letters

d)

Telephony Designator + Flight identification

22.

If you want to operate in controlled airspace which requirements must your radio meet? Choose all that apply

a)

Level 1 or 2 standards met

b)

Can maintain 2 way communication

c)

Must meet level 1 standards only

d)

Must have radio registration sticker in the flight manual

23.

When must your radio meet level 1 or 2 standards and be able to maintain two way coms? Choose all that apply

a)

When in Class A, B, C, D or E airspace at night

b)

When in Class G airspace and wanting to communicate with ATC

c)

When tracking more than 30nm off shore

d)

When tracking more than 30 minutes off shore

24.

When can you operate an aircraft without an automatic ELT? Choose all that apply

a)

Never

b)

Only when carrying essential PAX to a place where it can be repaired

c)

When ferrying with no PAX to a place where it can be installed

d)

For up to 7 days as long as an ELT(S) or PLB is carried by everyone on board

25.

An aircraft is operating from Rangiora airfield to a destination 9nm away do they require an automatic ELT?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

No, as long as they only have 1 seat

d)

No, as long as they have 2 seats or less

26.

Does a manned balloon require an automatic ELT?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

No, as long as they only have 1 POB

d)

No, as long as they have 5 or less POB

27.

What is a UNICOM?

a)

A ground/air coms facility that is run by certified Airways controllers

b)

A ground/air coms facility that is NOT run by certified Airways controllers

c)

An automatic broadcast of the aerodrome weather and relevant information

d)

A response unit that replies after each transmission to confirm you are on the correct frequency

28.

What is an AFIS?

a)

A ground/air coms facility that is run by certified Airways controllers

b)

A ground/air coms facility that is NOT run by certified Airways controllers

c)

An automatic broadcast of the aerodrome weather and relevant information

d)

A response unit that replies after each transmission to confirm you are on the correct frequency

29.

What is an ATIS?

a)

A ground/air coms facility that is run by certified Airways controllers

b)

An automatic broadcast of aerodrome weather and relevant information provided by ATS

c)

An automatic broadcast of the aerodrome weather and relevant information NOT certified by ATS

d)

A response unit that replies after each transmission to confirm you are on the correct frequency

30.

What is the range and clarity like of HF compared to VHF?

a)

HF has greater range and better clarity

b)

HF has greater range but worse clarity

c)

HF has smaller range and worse clarity

d)

HF has smaller range but better clarity

31.

Do sound and radio waves require a medium to be effective?

a)

Yes for both

b)

No for both

c)

Radio waves don't but sound waves do

d)

Radio waves do but sound waves don't

32.

Speed of sound is affected by ....

a)

temperature

b)

pressure

c)

temperature and pressure

d)

neither

33.

1MHz =

a)

1,000 cycles per seconds

b)

1 cycle per second

c)

1,000,000 cycles per second

d)

100 cycles per second

34.

Radio waves travel at the speed of ___ and travel ___ distance compared to sound waves

a)

light, less

b)

light, greater

c)

sound, less

d)

sound, greater

35.

HF is frequencies between:

a)

3-30MHz

b)

30-300MHz

c)

3-30KHz

d)

30-300KHz

36.

To talk to your co pilot with a headset/boom microphone system ...

a)

Push down the transmitter button, talk then release

b)

Ask MCL he knows everything

c)

Push the circuit breaker in, talk, then release

d)

Just talk, and if required switch on the intercom

37.

Choose all the correct statement(s)

a)

Boom-mike is attached to a headset and is activated by a button on control column

b)

Hand-held microphone is is activated by pushing in a button on the microphone

c)

A boom-mike extends down from the cockpit to the pilots mouth

d)

A hand-held microphone is activated by a button on control column

38.

Which has clearer signals and greater availability of channels?

a)

AM

b)

FM

39.

Can two people transmit on one frequency at one time/once?

a)

No

b)

Yes

c)

No unless they are in the same aircraft pushing their own transmitters

d)

Yes if its a frequency in the HF band

40.

What does the squelch function do?

a)

Adjust the volume of the intercom

b)

Adjust the amount of static that the receiver picks up

c)

Adjust the microphone receiver from the pilot seat to the co-pilots seat

d)

Adjust the volume of the radio

41.

To operate in TM airspace without a transponder means you must add "_____" to the end of your request to ATC.

a)

NEGATIVE TRANSPONDER

b)

TRANSPONDER INOPERABLE

c)

TRANSPONDER DEAD

d)

WITHOUT TRANSPONDER

42.

Which statement(s) is correct? Choose all that apply

a)

The length of the a/c aerial should be inversely proportional to the wavelength of the signal

b)

The length of the a/c aerial should be proportional to the wavelength of the signal

c)

Flying lower will improve VHF reception

d)

HF aerials should be longer than VHF

43.

What is the correct word for the letter J

a)

Jolly

b)

Juliet

c)

Java

d)

Jalapeno

44.

What is the word U?

a)

Uniform

b)

Unicorn

c)

Umbrella

d)

Uncle

45.

What is the word A?

a)

Alpha

b)

Abba

c)

Apple

d)

Alfa

46.

ELT transmits on what frequency(ies)?

a)

125.1MHz every 50 seconds and 406MHz

b)

only 125.1MHz

c)

121.5MHz and 406MHz every 50 seconds

d)

only 121.5MHz every 50 seconds

47.

When are you not required to broadcast in a TIBA situation?

a)

When crossing an ATS route

b)

When reaching new altitude

c)

5 mins before changing altitude

d)

10 mins prior to changing heading

48.

Choose the correct response:

"ECHO ROMEO SIERRA CLEARED TO TAKE OFF SEAL RUNWAY 24, CAUTION WAKE TURBULENCE"

a)

Line up and take off seal runway 24, understood, echo romeo sierra

b)

cleared to take off seal runway 24 caution wake turbulence, echo romeo sierra

c)

cleared to take off runway 24, echo romeo sierra

d)

cleared to take off seal runway 24, echo romeo sierra

49.

Choose the correct response:

"GOLF BRAVO VICTOR, CHCH INFORMATION, ROGER, CANTERBURY QNH 1016"

a)

christchurch information, golf bravo victor, QNH 1016

b)

christchurch information, 1016, golf bravo victor

c)

1016, golf bravo victor

d)

golf bravo victor, QNH 1016

50.

During speechless technique how would a pilot let the tower know that they couldnt understand their last call?

a)

push the transmitter 4 times

b)

push the transmitter 3 times

c)

push the ident button and transmit 3 times

d)

use the phrase "SAY AGAIN"

51.

What questions will tower ask after confirming speechless technique is required? Choose all that apply

a)

can the flight continue visually

b)

is everyone on board safe

c)

has the flight reached the nominated position

d)

can you understand my calls clearly

52.

A FISCOM chart will provide a pilot with what information?

a)

The tower frequencies for each controlled aerodrome

b)

The frequencies for all the MBZ and CFZ in NZ

c)

The frequencies to contact to get long range communication

d)

The frequencies to use in an emergency including transponder codes

53.

What order should the following details be said?

1.Delta Hotel Bravo

2.Tracking South along coast

3.1500ft

4.Banks Traffic

5.4nm S of Lincoln

a)

4, 1, 5, 3, 2

b)

4, 1, 2, 5, 3

c)

1, 4, 2, 5, 3

d)

1, 4, 5, 3, 2

54.

If you are contacting Information but only providing a position report what can you say after your transmission?

a)

"TRANSMITTING BLIND"

b)

"OPERATIONS NORMAL"

c)

"NO CHANGE"

d)

"NORMAL OPERATIONS"

55.

Action is required for safety reasons straight away, what call would be made?

a)

EXPEDITE

b)

INSTANT

c)

QUICKLY

d)

IMMEDIATE

56.

When should you contact AFIS approaching the aerodrome?

a)

Overhead the circuit

b)

2-5nm prior to the aerodrome

c)

5nm prior to the aerodrome

d)

10nm prior to the aerodrome

57.

An AFIS aerodrome is described as a ____

a)

uncontrolled, unattended aerdrome

b)

controlled, unattended aerodrome

c)

uncontrolled, attended aerodrome

d)

controlled, attended aerodrome

58.

What code should be used for an aircraft in the circuit at a controlled aerodrome and whats the code for VFR aeroplanes?

a)

1200, 2200

b)

2200, 1200

c)

1400, 2200

d)

2200, 1400

59.

What does the following radio call mean?

"STOP SQUAWK CHARLIE WRONG INDICATION'

a)

Turn transponder to mode C, currently on mode A

b)

Turn transponder to mode A, currently on mode C

c)

Turn transponder to OFF, currently on mode C

d)

Turn transponder to mode C, currently OFF

60.

What would be the correct reponse to the following?

"CHECK ALTIMETER SETTING AND CONFIRM"

a)

CONFIRMING ALTIMETER CORRECT

b)

CONFIRMING ALTIMETER 1013

c)

ALTIMETER 1013, LEVEL 2,500FT

d)

ALTIMETER SETTING CORRECT, MAINTAINING 2,500FT

61.

What should you do if you are told "SQUAWK MAYDAY"

a)

Change transponder code to 7700

b)

Make a MAYDAY call on behalf of someone else

c)

Change transponder code to 7700 and make a MAYDAY call

d)

Make a MAYDAY call and turn ELT on

62.

If you think you have inadvertently activated the ELT and see the light flashing what should you do?

a)

Change to 121.5MHz and listen out, turn the ELT ON then in less than 5 seconds back to ARM

b)

Turn the ON then in less than 5 seconds back to ARM

c)

Change to 121.5MHz and listen out for ATC instruction

d)

Change to 121.5MHz and listen out, turn the ELT ON listen for 3 sweeps then back to ARM

63.

If you are asked to help in locating a transmitting ELT what should you do?

a)

Change frequency to 406MHz and turn volume up

b)

Change to 121.5MHz and turn squelch up

c)

Change to 121.5MHz and turn squelch down

d)

Change to 406MHz and turn squelch up

64.

What would be the correct response?

"FOXTROT XRAY ZULU NELSON CONTACT WELLINGTON CONTROL 122.3"

a)

CONTACT WELLINGTON CONTROL, 122.3, FOXTROT XRAY ZULU

b)

FOXTROT XRAY ZULU, 122.3

c)

122.3, FOXTROT XRAY ZULU

d)

FOXTROT XRAY ZULU, CONTACT WELLINGTON CONTROL, 122.3

65.

Which of the following are approved by CAA?

(i)AWIB

(ii) ATIS

(iii)BWR

(iv)AFIS

(v)UNICOM

a)

i, ii, iv

b)

ii, iii, iv

c)

ii, iv

d)

ii, iv, v

66.

Fill in the blanks:

AFRU will transmit ____ when there's been no transmissions normally in the last ____. If there has been a transmission in this time lasting more than _____ the AFRU will respond with _____

a)

aerodrome callsign and frequency, 5 mins, 3 seconds, a single beep

b)

a single beep, 5 mins, 3 seconds, aerodrome callsign

c)

aerodrome callsign and frequency, 3 mins, 5 seconds, a single beep

d)

a single beep, 3 minutes, 5 seconds, aerodrome frequency

67.

Which is the correct equation?

a)

1.5 x square root TX + 1.5 x square root RX

b)

1.25 x square root TX + 1.5 x square root RX

c)

1.25 x square root TX - 1.25 x square root RX

d)

1.25 x square root TX + 1.25 x square root RX

68.

What is the correct response and action if you are told to "BNL SQUAWK IDENT"

a)

Push the ident button then say "SQUAWK IDENT BNL"

b)

Push the ident button only

c)

Change transponder code to 2200 and say "SQUAWK IDENT BNL"

d)

Say "SQUAWK IDENT BNL" only