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AGK PROGRESS TEST 2

Total questions: 44

Worksheet time: 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of these statements about structural design principles are correct or incorrect?


1) In structural design, FAIL SAFE implies the structure will never fail.

2) In structural design, SAFE LIFE implies the structure will never fail during a declared time period or number of cycles.

a)

1) is incorrect, 2) is correct.

b)

1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect.

c)

1) is correct, 2) is incorrect.

d)

1) is correct, 2) is correct.

2.

A SAFE LIFE aircraft structural component:

a)

is so strong that it never will fail during a declared time period.

b)

may be used during a declared number of cycles or flight hours.

c)

should have enough strength during the whole lifetime of an aircraft.

d)

has parallel load paths.

3.

In the attached diagram, the type of stress acting on the point indicated by the image number 2 is the:

a)

tension.

b)

shear.

c)

torque.

d)

compression.

4.

Which of these statements about structural design principles are correct or incorrect?


1) The DAMAGE TOLERANCE principle takes cracking of the structure into account.

2) The SAFE LIFE principle is based on the replacement of parts after a given number of cycles or flight hours.

a)

1) is incorrect, 2) is correct.

b)

1) is correct, 2) is incorrect.

c)

1) is correct, 2) is correct.

d)

1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect.

5.

The purpose of stringers, used in fuselage construction, is to:

a)

assist the skin absorb longitudinal compressive loads.

b)

provide attachment for the sound and thermal insulation.

c)

absorb shear stresses.

d)

carry the loads due to pressurisation and convert them into tensile stress.

6.

Refer to the attached annex depicting various types of fuselage cross-sections. Place these cross-sections in order of DECREASING structural suitability for a pressurized cabin.

a)

4, 2, 3, 1

b)

1, 3, 4, 2

c)

2, 3, 4, 1

d)

1, 2, 3, 4

7.

Monocoque fuselages derive their strength from:

a)

longerons and formers.

b)

the skin.

c)

bulkheads and longerons.

d)

metal stringers.

8.

Whilst stationary on the ground in a hangar the most important loads on a cantilever wing are:

a)

compression in the upper surface, tension in the lower surface.

b)

tension in both the upper and the lower surfaces.

c)

tension in the upper surface, compression in the lower surface.

d)

compression in both the upper and the lower surfaces.

9.

To allow for a failure of the normal method of system pressure limiting control, a hydraulic system often incorporates:

a)

an accumulator.

b)

auxiliary hydraulic motors.

c)

a stand-by hydraulic pump.

d)

a high pressure relief valve.

10.

The function of a hydraulic selector valve is to:

a)

discharge some hydraulic fluid if the system pressure is too high.

b)

automatically activate the hydraulic system.

c)

direct system pressure to either side of the piston of an actuator.

d)

Select the system to which the hydraulic pump should supply pressure.

11.

Consider a transport aircraft with dual hydraulic system. How will the loss of hydraulic pressure from one system normally be indicated in the cockpit?

a)

Red or amber light with “loss of system pressure” indication and aural warning

b)

Master caution light, dedicated amber light and loss of pressure reading for the affected system

c)

Red light only

d)

Master caution and dedicated red light for affected system and aural warning

12.

Filters in hydraulic systems often incorporate pop out indicators to:

a)

warn of an impending by-pass situation.

b)

warn of a hydraulic system overheat.

c)

indicate that the filter is due for maintenance.

d)

indicate that the filter is clogged and unfiltered oil is passing around the system.

13.

An automatic cut-out valve is used in a:

a)

fixed volume pressure control hydraulic system.

b)

constant pressure hydraulic system.

c)

neither of these.

d)

both of these.

14.

The systems used for emergency extension of landing systems may comprise of:


1) compressed CO2.

2) compressed nitrogen.

3) compressed oxygen.

4) auxiliary hydraulic system.

5) free-fall (gravity).


The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a)

2, 3, 4

b)

1, 3, 4

c)

2, 4, 5

d)

1, 2, 5

15.

In a typical high pressure hydraulic brake system of a large transport aircraft:

a)

a non-return valve (NRV) is fitted to reduce the pressure of the aircraft hydraulic systems to that of the brake operating pressure.

b)

a pressure relief valve (PRV) is fitted to maintain pressure in the brake system if the aircraft hydraulic system fails.

c)

a separate parking brake system is usually fitted together with its own accumulator and its own system components.

d)

the aircraft main hydraulic system is connected to the brake pistons by operation of a dual brake control valve.

16.

The pilot may be prevented from retracting the landing gear whilst the aircraft is on the ground by:

a)

a guard on the selector switch which cannot be moved until the aircraft is airborne.

b)

a pneumatic interlock which disables the hydraulic up selector.

c)

any attempt to select the landing gear up will result in a flashing warning light and a loud horn.

d)

the electrical control system being routed through the weight on wheels switch.

17.

On the diagram shown, the landing gear element indicated by the number 3 is a:

a)

torque link.

b)

shock absorber.

c)

bogie beam.

d)

retraction actuator.

18.

How can wheel brake life be saved?

a)

With steel brakes, use many small brake applications during taxi to prevent temperature build-up.

b)

With steel brakes, use one large brake application during taxi.

c)

With carbon and steel brakes, use differential braking during taxi.

d)

With carbon brakes, use many small brake applications during taxi to prevent temperature build-up.

19.

In its most common design, the trimmable horizontal stabiliser of large transport aeroplanes...

a)

moves in response to lateral control column/stick movements.

b)

is moved by hydraulically actuated jacks.

c)

adjusts its trim by control tabs.

d)

is moved by hydraulically actuated control tabs.

20.

Which statement is correct with regard to the fly-by-wire system?

a)

The PCU converts digital signals into analogue signals.

b)

PCUs are operated by analogue signals.

c)

Control wires feed pilot control movements into the PCUs.

d)

Flight controls are connected to control surfaces by direct wire linkages.

21.

Why is the artificial feel required on some flight control systems and how is the degree of the feel set?

a)

It is fitted to assist the pilot to move the controls and provides decreased assistance as the speed increases.

b)

It is fitted to prevent over-stressing of the aircraft and provides decreased forces as the speed increases.

c)

It is fitted to prevent over-stressing of the aircraft and provides increased forces as the speed increases.

d)

It is fitted to assist the pilot to move the controls and provides increased assistance as the speed increases.

22.

The range of movement of a control surface is limited by:

a)

control cable tension.

b)

primary stops at the control column.

c)

secondary stops at the control column.

d)

primary stops at the surface.

23.

In large transport category aircraft, “artificial feel units” are

a)

Installed in line with the flight control system and are referred to as “A” feel.

b)

Installed in parallel with the flight control system and are referred to as “Q” feel.

c)

Installed in line with the flight control system and are referred to as “Q” feel.

d)

Installed in parallel with the flight control system and are referred to as “A” feel.

24.

Which of these statements about rudder limiting are correct or incorrect?


1) A rudder ratio changer system reduces the rudder deflection for a given rudder pedal deflection as the IAS decreases.

2) A variable stop system limits both rudder and rudder pedal deflection as the IAS increases.

a)

1) is correct, 2) is incorrect.

b)

1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect.

c)

1) is correct, 2) is correct.

d)

1) is incorrect, 2) is correct.

25.

Which of the following statements is UNTRUE?

a)

In a powered flight control system there is no physical link between the pilot and the control surfaces.

b)

Powered flight control systems require an artificial feel system.

c)

In a power assisted flight control system there is a physical link between the pilot and the control surfaces.

d)

Power assisted flight control systems require a Q-feel system.

26.

Consider a piston engined aircraft. Which source is pneumatic air taken from?

a)

Ram air.

b)

Cylinder bleed air.

c)

Inlet air manifold.

d)

Supercharger.

27.

Engine bleed air used for air conditioning and pressurization in turbo-jet aeroplanes is usually taken from the:

a)

by-pass ducting.

b)

fan section.

c)

turbine section.

d)

compressor section.

28.

In flight, the cabin air for large jet transport aeroplanes is usually supplied by:

a)

ram air intakes.

b)

piston compressors.

c)

engine compressors.

d)

single radial compressors.

29.

Which of the following statements is UNTRUE?

a)

Bleed air may be taken from the HP compressor of a gas turbine engine.

b)

Use of engine bleed air reduces engine thrust.

c)

Bleed air may be supplied by an APU.

d)

Engine bleed air is considered to be high pressure.

30.

From the options given below, select the three systems that could be provided with air from the pneumatic system of a (1)piston engine.

(1)Gyroscopic instruments

(2)Pitot/static instruments

(3)Cabin heating

(4)Anti-ice

(5)Electrical generation

(6)Hydraulic pump

a)

2, 5, 6

b)

1, 3, 4

c)

1, 2, 3

d)

4, 5, 6

31.

The engine air intakes of large transport aircraft are usually protected against ice by:

a)

hot engine oil.

b)

hot bleed air.

c)

pressurised fluid.

d)

inflatable boots.

32.

The heating facility for the windshield of an aircraft is:

a)

used on a continual basis as it reduces the thermal gradients which adversely affect the useful life of the components.

b)

used only at low altitudes where there is a risk of ice formation.

c)

only used when hot air demisting is insufficient.

d)

harmful to the integrity of the windows in the event of a bird strike.

33.

On most transport aircraft, flight deck windows are protected against icing by:

a)

rain repellent system.

b)

electric heating.

c)

anti-icing fluid.

d)

vinyl coating.

34.

How does the primary automatic ice detection system operate?

a)

The ice detector automatically activates ice protection systems at the optimal moment.

b)

The flight crew activates ice protection systems based on the standard flight manual criteria of a total temperature reading and the sighting of moisture. The ice detector signals serve as a back-up indicator.

c)

All ice detection systems are only used to alert the cockpit crew and ice protection systems are always activated by the flight crew manually.

d)

The flight crew activates ice protection systems based on ice detector signals.

35.

Fuel system ice traps:

a)

are replaced by water traps at the bottom of the fuel tanks on helicopters.

b)

are not required on helicopters due to the inability of the aircraft to fly at high altitude.

c)

may be fitted in the fuel delivery line between the fuel tank and the engine.

d)

are devices fitted to the engine and heated using engine oil or hot air tapped from the compressor.

36.

Given the following information, which statement is the most correct?

While in cruise flight, a circuit breaker corresponding to one of the fuel boost pumps, trips. The circuit breaker cannot be reset.

a)

The DC circuit breakers should be pulled to prevent the control relay from melting.

b)

The output of the pump will still be satisfactory for normal requirements.

c)

The pump remains inoperative.

d)

The pump motor will fail unless the remaining circuit breakers are pulled immediately.

37.

The functions of a LP booster pump in a gas turbine fuel system are to:

a)

pressurise the fuel dump system and increase the pressure during refuelling.

b)

avoid vapour locking and prevent cavitation of the HP fuel pump.

c)

avoid vapour locking and increase the pressure during refuelling.

d)

increase the pressure during refuelling and prevent cavitation of the HP fuel pump.

38.

Magnetic drip stick fuel system measurement can be done:

a)

with the indication from the indicator and OAT consideration.

b)

directly by reading from the indicator.

c)

with the indication from the indicator and using the documentation.

d)

with the indication from the indicator and consideration of the fuel gravity specification.

39.

Have a look at the current situation depicted by the attached figure. Which of the following statements are correct or incorrect?

1) The DC fuel pump can feed any engine if the other pumps are not working.

2) The DC fuel pump can only feed the APU.

a)

1) correct; 2) correct

b)

1) correct; 2) incorrect

c)

1) incorrect; 2) incorrect

d)

1) incorrect; 2) correct

40.

The most appropriate statement concerning multi-engine jet aeroplane fuel systems, is:

a)

There are no provisions for cross-feed, because each engine has its own tank(s).

b)

A mechanically operated and activated fuel valve is called a solenoid valve.

c)

Fuel pumps have no provisions for by-pass of fuel.

d)

The fuel system may have provisions for heating the fuel before it enters the fuel filter.

41.

Smoke detectors fitted on transport aircraft are of the following type:

a)

chemical

b)

magnetic

c)

electrical

d)

optical or ionization

42.

Regarding detection systems, ion detectors are used to detect:

a)

overtemperature.

b)

fire.

c)

smoke.

d)

overtemperature and fire.

43.

Smoke detector systems are installed in the:

a)

fuel tanks.

b)

wheel wells.

c)

engine nacelles.

d)

upper cargo compartments (class E).

44.

How do smoke detectors operate?

a)

A light attenuation optical detector - light reflects towards the photosensitive cell and the labyrinth has a shielding function.

b)

A labyrinth optical detector - light reflects towards the photosensitive cell and the labyrinth has a shielding function.

c)

A light attenuation optical detector - light reflects away from the photosensitive cell.

d)

A labyrinth optical detector - the photosensitive cell is blocked from the light source by smoke.