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Exam 1 Quizizz Challenge

Total questions: 257

Worksheet time: 2hrs 9mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Who was the person that coined the term "tabula rasa"?
a)
Jean-Jacques Rousseau
b)
John Locke
c)
Alfred Binet
d)
G. Stanley Hall
2.
Which philosopher argued that children are inherently good?
a)
Alfred Binet
b)
Jean-Jacques Rousseau
c)
G. Stanley Hall
d)
Sigmund Freud
3.
What does the term "tabula rasa" mean?
a)
blank slate
b)
intelligent creature
c)
biologically determined
d)
none of these
4.
Which individual developed the first standardized intelligence test?
a)
G. Stanley Hall
b)
Erik Erikson
c)
Alfred Binet
d)
Jean Piaget
5.
Which person is credited with founding child development as an academic discipline?
a)
G. Stanley Hall
b)
Alfred Binet
c)
Lev Semenovich Vygotsky
d)
Albert Bandura
6.
What is the field of psychology that studies the physical, cognitive, social, and emotional development of humans?
a)
developmental psychology
b)
biological psychology
c)
clinical psychology
d)
forensic psychology
7.
Which of the following terms refers to the fact that development is rigid, yet flexible?
a)
plasticity
b)
continuity
c)
discontinuity
d)
none of these
8.
The tenant of the lifespan perspective that states that many fields of study should be considered is the idea that developmental science is _____.
a)
multidirectional
b)
multidisciplinary
c)
plastic
d)
contextual
9.
Normative age-graded influences are tied to a person's:
a)
chronological age
b)
cohort
c)
historical context
d)
none of these
10.
Normative history-graded influences are tied to a person's
a)
cohort
b)
chronological age
c)
social age
d)
none of these
11.
Changes in an individual's physical nature are referred to as:
a)
biological processes
b)
cognitive processes
c)
socioemotional processes
d)
none of these
12.
Changes in thought, language, and intelligence are referred to as:
a)
biological processes
b)
cognitive processes
c)
socioemotional processes
d)
none of these
13.
Changes in a person's interpersonal relationships, emotions, and personality are referred to as:
a)
socioemotional processes
b)
biological processes
c)
cognitive processes
d)
none of these
14.
A time frame in a person's life that is characterized by certain features is a(n):
a)
context-dependent time
b)
cohort
c)
developmental period
d)
none of these
15.
The most widely used classification system involves ____ developmental periods.
a)
4
b)
8
c)
10
d)
none of these
16.
Growing up during the Great Depression is an example of a(n)
a)
normative age-graded influence
b)
normative history-graded influence
c)
genetic influence
d)
none of these
17.
Getting a driver's license at 16 is an example of a(n):
a)
normative age-graded influence
b)
normative history-graded influence
c)
plasticity
d)
none of these
18.
The time period from conception to birth is known as the ____ period.
a)
prenatal
b)
perinatal
c)
postpartum
d)
none of these
19.
During which developmental period does language develop?
a)
infancy
b)
early childhood
c)
middle and late childhood
d)
none of these
20.
During which developmental period are the fundamental skills of reading, writing, and arithmetic mastered?
a)
infancy
b)
early childhood
c)
middle and late childhood
d)
none of these
21.
During which developmental period is there a search for identity?
a)
middle and late childhood
b)
adolescence
c)
early childhood
d)
early adulthood
22.
Which developmental period focuses on economic and personal independence?
a)
adolescence
b)
early adulthood
c)
middle adulthood
d)
none of these
23.
Which developmental period focuses on assisting the next generation?
a)
early adulthood
b)
middle adulthood
c)
late adulthood
d)
none of these
24.
Which developmental period focuses on life review and adjustment to new social roles?
a)
early adulthood
b)
adolescence
c)
middle adulthood
d)
none of these
25.
The number of years that have elapsed since birth are referred to as _____ age.
a)
chronological
b)
psychological
c)
social
d)
none of these
26.
An individual's adaptive capacities compared with those of other individuals is referred to as ____ age.
a)
chronological
b)
psychological
c)
social
d)
none of these
27.
Social roles and expectations related to a certain age are referred to as ____ age.
a)
chronological
b)
psychological
c)
social
d)
none of these
28.
Which developmental argument stems from whether our genetics or environment plays more of a role in development?
a)
nature vs. nurture
b)
stability vs. change
c)
continuity vs. discontinuity
d)
active vs. passive
29.
Which developmental argument asks whether we stay mostly the same or change throughout life?
a)
nature vs. nurture
b)
stability vs. change
c)
continuity vs. discontinuity
d)
active vs. passivs
30.
Which developmental argument asks whether we change gradually or go through distinct stages?
a)
nature vs. nurture
b)
stability vs. change
c)
continuity vs. discontinuity
d)
active vs. passive
31.
How were children viewed in the middle ages?
a)
innately evil
b)
morally good
c)
like a "tabula rasa"
d)
little entrepreneurs
32.
Which of the following is a psychoanalytic theorist?
a)
Erik Erikson
b)
Jean Piaget
c)
Urie Bronfenbrenner
d)
Albert Bandura
33.
Which of the following is a psychoanalytic theorist?
a)
Sigmund Freud
b)
Albert Bandura
c)
John B. Watson
d)
none of these
34.
Who inspired Freud's theory of the unconscious?
a)
Mary B.
b)
Sue T.
c)
Alicia M.
d)
Anna O.
35.
Which developmental theory focuses primarily on the unconscious?
a)
psychoanalytic
b)
cognitive
c)
ecological
d)
none of these
36.
Which theorist devised the Theory of Psychosexual Development?
a)
Freud
b)
Erikson
c)
Vygotsky
d)
none of these
37.
Which theorist devised the Theory of Psychosocial Development?
a)
Freud
b)
Erikson
c)
Bandura
d)
none of these
38.
Which part of the psyche is present at birth and focused on pleasure?
a)
id
b)
ego
c)
superego
d)
none of these
39.
Which part of the psyche incorporates the morals and values of society?
a)
id
b)
ego
c)
superego
d)
none of these
40.
Which is the first stage of Freud's theory of psychosexual development?
a)
phallic
b)
anal
c)
oral
d)
latency
41.
Which is the second stage of Freud's Theory of Psychosexual Development?
a)
oral
b)
genital
c)
phallic
d)
anal
42.
Which is the second stage of Freud's Theory of Psychosexual Development?
a)
oral
b)
genital
c)
phallic
d)
anal
43.
Which is the last of Freud's stages of Psychosexual development?
a)
anal
b)
latency
c)
genital
d)
none of these
44.
Which of the following is the first stage of Erikson's Psychosocial Development?
a)
trust vs. mistrust
b)
autonomy vs. shame and doubt
c)
industry vs. inferiority
d)
none of these
45.
_______ vs. Stagnation
a)
Generativity
b)
Industry
c)
Inferiority
d)
Autonomy
46.
______ vs. Isolation
a)
Identity
b)
Inferiority
c)
Generativity
d)
none of these
47.
Schemas are:
a)
mental organizational structures
b)
reflexes
c)
ways of behaving
d)
none of these
48.
Who devised the cognitive theory of development?
a)
Piaget
b)
Vygotsky
c)
Bandura
d)
none of these
49.
Changing your mental structure is known as:
a)
assimilation
b)
accommodation
c)
equilibrium
d)
none of these
50.
Which of the following is the third stage of Piaget's theory of cognitive development?
a)
phallic
b)
industry vs. inferiority
c)
concrete operational
d)
none of these
51.
Which stage of cognitive development occurs in infancy?
a)
snesorimotor
b)
autonomy vs. shame and doubt
c)
oral
d)
none of these
52.
Pavlov's dogs were an example of:
a)
classical conditioning
b)
operant conditioning
c)
observational learning
d)
none of these
53.
Who founded behaviorism?
a)
Albert Bandura
b)
John B. Watson
c)
Jean Piaget
d)
none of these
54.
Which type of learning deals with automatic behaviors?
a)
operant conditioning
b)
classical conditioning
c)
observational learning
d)
none of these
55.
Which of the following is an automatic reaction to a stimulus in the environment?
a)
neutral response
b)
unconditioned response
c)
conditioned response
d)
none of these
56.
Which of the following is a learned response?
a)
neutral response
b)
conditioned response
c)
unconditioned response
d)
none of these
57.
In Pavlov's dogs, what is the neutral stimulus?
a)
bell
b)
food
c)
salivation
d)
none of these
58.
In Pavlov's dogs, what is the conditioned response?
a)
salivation to bell
b)
salivation to food
c)
food
d)
bell
59.
Who conducted the Little Albert experiment?
a)
John B. Watson
b)
Albert Bandura
c)
Ivan Pavlov
d)
none of these
60.
Who conducted the Little Peter study?
a)
John B. Watson
b)
Rosalie Rayner
c)
Anna O.
d)
none of these
61.
The Little Albert Study was an example of:
a)
classical conditioning
b)
operant conditioning
c)
observational learning
d)
none of these
62.
Which type of learning deals with voluntary behaviors?
a)
classical conditioning
b)
operant conditioning
63.
Which person discovered classical conditioning?
a)
B. F. Skinner
b)
Ivan Pavlov
c)
Albert Bandura
d)
none of these
64.
Which person discovered operant conditioning?
a)
B. F. Skinner
b)
Ivan Pavlov
c)
Jean Piaget
d)
none of these
65.
Which type of response always increases the frequency or likelihood of a behavior?
a)
reinforcement
b)
punishment
c)
extinction
d)
none of these
66.
Negative reinforcement tends to _____ the frequency of a behavior.
a)
increase
b)
decrease
67.
Which type of response increases the likelihood of behavior by removing an aversive stimulus?
a)
positive reinforcement
b)
negative reinforcement
c)
extinction
d)
none of these
68.
If you get a high five when you do something, this is an example of:
a)
positive reinforcement
b)
negative reinforcement
c)
extinction
d)
punishment
69.
Which person conducted the Bo-Bo Doll Study?
a)
Piaget
b)
Bandura
c)
Vygotsky
d)
none of these
70.
Which person discovered imprinting?
a)
Lorenz
b)
Tinbergen
c)
Bandura
d)
none of these
71.
Which theory focuses on critical periods?
a)
ecological
b)
ethological
c)
psychoanalytic
d)
none of these
72.
Who discovered Ecological Theory?
a)
Vygotsky
b)
Paiget
c)
Locke
d)
none of these
73.
Which system of the ecological theory focuses on the dimension of time?
a)
microsystem
b)
macrosystem
c)
exosystem
d)
none of these
74.
A child's teacher would be in their
a)
macrosystem
b)
mesosystem
c)
chronosystem
d)
none of these
75.
Cultural values, beliefs, and customs are included in the
a)
mesosystem
b)
macrosystem
c)
exosystem
d)
none of these
76.
Which theorist is responsible for the sociocultural perspective?
a)
Bandura
b)
Bronfenbrenner
c)
Paiget
d)
none of these
77.
Which of the following pertains to the range of tasks that a child can carry out with the help of someone who is more skilled?
a)
zone of proximal development
b)
zone of practical development
c)
scaffolding
d)
none of these
78.
Which type of stimulus elicits no response?
a)
neutral stimulus
b)
unconditioned stimulus
c)
unconditioned response
d)
none of these
79.
Which stage of cognitive development occurs during the ages of 2-7 years?
a)
sensorimotor
b)
preoperational
c)
concrete operational
d)
formal operational
80.
The balance between assimilation and accommodation is called:
a)
equilibrium
b)
schemas
c)
scaffolding
d)
none of these
81.
If you incorporate new information into a pre-existing schema, it is called
a)
assimilation
b)
accommodation
c)
equilibrium
d)
none of these
82.
Which of the following is Erikson's last stage of psychosocial development?
a)
generativity vs. stagnation
b)
trust vs. mistrust
c)
industry vs. inferiority
d)
none of these
83.
During which of Freud's stages does the Oedipal complex take place?
a)
oral
b)
anal
c)
genital
d)
none of these
84.
Which of the following is a stage from Piaget's theory?
a)
trust vs. mistrust
b)
sensorimotor
c)
phallic
d)
exosystem
85.
Who inspired the ethological theory?
a)
Freud
b)
Anna O.
c)
Tinbergen
d)
none of these
86.
What is the rapid, innate attachment to the first moving object seen?
a)
imprinting
b)
assimilation
c)
sensorimotor reflexes
d)
none of these
87.
Which theory is Vygotsky responsible for?
a)
psychoanalytic
b)
sociocultural
c)
cognitive
d)
behaviorism
88.
Who coined the term, "scheme"?
a)
Piaget
b)
Bandura
c)
John B. Watson
d)
none of these
89.
There is an annoying buzzer that sounds in your car until you put your seatbelt on. This is an example of
a)
positive reinforcement
b)
negative reinforcement
c)
punishment
d)
extinction
90.
Withdrawing all reinforcement in a behavior should result in a gradual elimination of that behavior, which is called:
a)
negative reinforcement
b)
punishment
c)
extinction
d)
none of these
91.
A child's parent and teacher meet to discuss the child's behavior in class. This relationship between the parent and teacher would be in the child's
a)
microsystem
b)
mesosystem
c)
exosystem
d)
chronosystem
92.
How were children viewed in the middle ages?
a)
innately evil
b)
morally good
c)
like a "tabula rasa"
d)
little entrepreneurs
93.

Which structure of the neuron is responsible for receiving messages from other neurons?

a)

dendrites

b)

axon

c)

soma

d)

axon terminal buttons

94.

Which structure of the neuron is the cell body?

a)

dendrites

b)

soma

c)

axon hillock

d)

synapse

95.

Which structure of the neuron is responsible for white matter?

a)

soma

b)

myelin sheath

c)

axon hillock

d)

axon terminal buttons

96.

Which structure of the neuron contains packaged neurotransmitters?

a)

soma

b)

dendrites

c)

synaptic vesicles

d)

nodes of ranvier

97.

Which structure of the neuron acts as insulation on the axon?

a)

dendrites

b)

myelin sheath

c)

soma

d)

synaptic vesicles

98.

Which structure of the neuron is responsible for grey matter?

a)

soma

b)

myelin sheath

c)

axon hillock

d)

synaptic vesicles

99.

Which structure is labeled "A" in the diagram?

a)

dendrites

b)

soma

c)

axon terminal buttons

d)

nodes of ranvier

100.

Which structure is labeled B in the neuron below?

a)

dendrites

b)

soma

c)

nodes of ranvier

d)

myelin sheath

101.

Which structure is labeled "C" in the diagram?

a)

axon hillock

b)

myelin sheath

c)

axon terminal buttons

d)

soma

102.

Which structure is labeled "D" in the neuron?

a)

axon hillock

b)

axon

c)

soma

d)

synapse

103.

Which structure is labeled "E" in the neuron?

a)

myelin sheath

b)

soma

c)

synapse

d)

nodes of ranvier

104.

The structure labeled "E" is responsible for

a)

grey matter

b)

white matter

105.

The structure labeled "B" is responsible for

a)

grey matter

b)

white matter

106.

What is the structure labeled "F" in the neuron?

a)

dendrites

b)

soma

c)

myelin sheath

d)

nodes of ranvier

107.

What is the structure labeled "G" in the diagram?

a)

dendrites

b)

nodes of ranvier

c)

soma

d)

axon terminal buttons

108.

What is the structure of the neuron that contains the cell nucleus?

a)

soma

b)

synaptic vesicles

c)

myelin sheath

d)

axon hillock

109.

What is the structure of the neuron that contains packaged neurotransmitters?

a)

soma

b)

dendrites

c)

synaptic vesicles

d)

myelin sheath

110.

What is the structure of the neuron where neurotransmitters bind in a "lock and key" fashion?

a)

receptor sites

b)

nodes of ranvier

c)

axon

d)

synaptic vesicles

111.

The space between neurons is called the:

a)

axon terminals

b)

receptor sites

c)

synapse

d)

neurotransmitters

112.

Receptor sites are located on the

a)

axon

b)

soma

c)

dendrites

d)

synaptic vesicles

113.

Which lobe of the brain contains the prefrontal cortex?

a)

frontal

b)

temporal

c)

parietal

d)

occipital

114.

Which lobe of the brain contains the motor cortex?

a)

frontal

b)

temporal

c)

parietal

d)

occipital

115.

Which lobe of the brain contains the auditory cortex?

a)

frontal

b)

temporal

c)

occipital

d)

parietal

116.

Which lobe of the brain contains the somatosensory cortex?

a)

frontal

b)

temporal

c)

occipital

d)

parietal

117.

What lobe of the brain contains the visual cortex?

a)

frontal

b)

temporal

c)

occipital

d)

parietal

118.

Which lobe is labeled "A"?

a)

frontal

b)

temporal

c)

occipital

d)

parietal

119.

Which lobe is labeled "B"?

a)

frontal

b)

temporal

c)

parietal

d)

occipital

120.

Which lobe is labeled "C"?

a)

frontal

b)

temporal

c)

occipital

d)

parietal

121.

Which lobe is labeled "D"?

a)

frontal

b)

temporal

c)

parietal

d)

occipital

122.

Which lobe receives and coordinates messages from all other lobes of the brain?

a)

frontal

b)

temporal

c)

parietal

d)

occipital

123.

Which lobe of the brain processes information related to touch?

a)

frontal

b)

temporal

c)

parietal

d)

occipital

124.

Which lobe of the brain processes vision?

a)

frontal

b)

temporal

c)

parietal

d)

occipital

125.

Which lobe of the brain processes hearing?

a)

frontal

b)

temporal

c)

occipital

d)

parietal

126.

Which lobe in the diagram is the frontal lobe?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

127.

Which lobe in the diagram is the parietal lobe?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

128.

Which lobe in the brain is the occipital lobe?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

129.

Which lobe in the brain is the temporal lobe?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

130.

In which lobe is the prefrontal cortex?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

131.

In which lobe is the auditory cortex?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

132.

In which lobe is the somatosensory cortex?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

133.

Which structure in the diagram is the hypothalamus?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

134.

Which structure in the diagram is the amygdala?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

135.

Which structure in the diagram is the basal ganglia?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

136.

Which structure in the diagram is the thalamus?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

137.

Which structure in the diagram is the hippocampus?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

138.

What is the main function of the basal ganglia?

a)

planning voluntary motor movement

b)

encoding memory

c)

fear

d)

filtering senses

139.

Which structure of the brain serves as the "gatekeeper"?

a)

thalamus

b)

hypothalamus

c)

basal ganglia

d)

hippocampus

140.

Which structure of the brain is known as the "little brain"?

a)

cerebellum

b)

cerebrum

c)

thalamus

d)

corpus callous

141.

Which structure of the brain is responsible for forming new memories?

a)

thalamus

b)

hypothalamus

c)

hippocampus

d)

cerebellum

142.

Which structure of the brain is responsible for planning voluntary motor behavior?

a)

thalamus

b)

basal ganglia

c)

amygdala

d)

hypothalamus

143.

Which structure of the brain is responsible for fear and aggression?

a)

hypothalamus

b)

hippocampus

c)

amygdala

d)

corpus callosum

144.

What is the amygdala responsible for?

a)

emotions such as fear and aggression

b)

encoding new memories

c)

acting as the "gatekeeper"

d)

planning motor movement

145.

Humans have ____ hemispheres in their brain.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

146.

There are ____ lobes in the brain.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

147.

Which structure connects the two hemispheres of the brain?

a)

corpus callosum

b)

amygdala

c)

thalamus

d)

cerebellum

148.

Which neurotransmitter acts as the main inhibitory neurotransmitter?

a)

GABA

b)

glutamate

c)

acetylcholine

d)

norepinephrine

149.

Which neurotransmitter acts as the main excitatory neurotransmitter?

a)

GABA

b)

glutamate

c)

norepinephrine

d)

serotonin

150.

Which neurotransmitter is responsible for regulating the fight-or-flight response as well as mood.

a)

norepinephrine

b)

GABA

c)

serotonin

d)

dopamine

151.

Which neurotransmitter is responsible for muscle action, movement, attention, and memory?

a)

acetylcholine

b)

norepinephrine

c)

dopamine

d)

GABA

152.

What neurotransmitter is known as the "pleasure chemical"?

a)

GABA

b)

glutamate

c)

dopamine

d)

norepinephrine

153.

GABA acts to

a)

decrease brain activity

b)

increase brain activity

154.

Glutamate acts to

a)

increase brain activity

b)

decrease brain activity

155.

Which neurotransmitter is known as the "happy chemical" where lowered amounts are associated with depression?

a)

acetylcholine

b)

GABA

c)

glutamate

d)

serotonin

156.

The outer part of the cerebrum is referred to as

a)

the corpus callosum

b)

the cerebellum

c)

the cerebral cortex

d)

the brain stem

157.

Which structure is labeled "A"?

a)

midbrain

b)

pons

c)

cerebellum

d)

medulla oblongata

158.

Which structure is labeled "B"?

a)

midbrain

b)

pons

c)

medulla oblongata

d)

cerebellum

159.

Which structure is labeled "C"?

a)

midbrain

b)

pons

c)

corpus callosum

d)

medulla oblongata

160.

Which structure serves as a sort of "crossroads" or "bridge" to different parts of the brain?

a)

midbrain

b)

pons

c)

medulla oblongata

d)

amygdala

161.

Which part of the brainstem is responsible for tracking of visual stimuli and reflexes triggered by sound?

a)

midbrain

b)

medulla oblongata

c)

pons

d)

cerebellum

162.

Which part of the brain is responsible for the vomiting reflex as well as respiration and heart rate?

a)

midbrain

b)

medulla oblongata

c)

pons

d)

cerebellum

163.

Which structure is the midbrain?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

164.

Which structure is the pons?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

165.

What is the function of the medulla oblongata?

a)

vital functions such as respiration and heart rate

b)

acting as a "bridge" between structures

c)

tracking of visual stimuli

d)

negative emotions such as fear and aggression

166.

Where is the reticular formation located in the brain?

a)

the brainstem

b)

the cerebral cortex

c)

the cerebrum

d)

the cerebellum

167.

What is the term for the bumps or ridges in the brain?

a)

gyri

b)

sulci

168.

What is the single cell that is created at fertilization.

a)

zygote

b)

morula

c)

sperm

d)

egg

169.

How many chromosomes does the typical human have?

a)

23

b)

46

c)

52

d)

83

170.

How many PAIRS of chromosomes does the typical human have?

a)

10

b)

23

c)

46

d)

52

171.

What is the name of the complex molecule with a double helix shape?

a)

DNA

b)

chromosome

c)

gene

d)

zygote

172.

A short segment of DNA is called a(n)

a)

gene

b)

zygote

c)

morula

d)

none of these

173.

Which form of cell division results in duplicate cells?

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

c)

fertilization

d)

none of these

174.

Which type of cell division occurs with gametes?

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

c)

none of these

175.

The sperm and egg cells are called

a)

autosomes

b)

sex chromosomes

c)

gametes

d)

none of these

176.

When the sperm and egg combine to form a single cell, they each are supposed to donate ____ chromosomes.

a)

10

b)

20

c)

23

d)

46

177.

A person's actual genetic makeup is referred to as

a)

genotype

b)

phenotype

c)

none of these

178.

Having brown hair or blue eyes are examples of

a)

genotype

b)

phenotype

c)

mitosis

d)

fertilization

179.

A picture of the number and visual appearance of a person's chromosomes is called a(n)

a)

phenotype

b)

karyotype

c)

mitotic type

d)

none of these

180.

A typical biological male is ____ on the 23rd pair of chromosomes.

a)

XX

b)

XY

c)

XXY

d)

XYY

181.

A typical biological female is ____ on the 23rd pair of chromosomes.

a)

XX

b)

XY

c)

X0

d)

XYY

182.

In typical cases, a mother donates an ___ chromosome on the 23rd pair to her offspring.

a)

X

b)

Y

c)

none of these

183.

True or False: A father can donate an X or Y on the 23rd pair to his offspring.

a)

True

b)

False

184.

True or False: It is the mother's egg that determines biological sex of the offspring.

a)

True

b)

False

185.

True or False: It is the father's sperm that determines the biological sex of the offspring.

a)

True

b)

False

186.

Which condition is also known as Trisomy 21?

a)

Fragile X Syndrome

b)

Klinefelter Syndrome

c)

Turner Syndrome

d)

Down Syndrome

187.

Down Syndrome results from having three copies of chromosome ____.

a)

10

b)

5

c)

21

d)

23

188.

True or False: Maternal age is the number one risk factor for having a child with Down Syndrome.

a)

True

b)

False

189.

At age 35, the rates of a mother having a child with Down Syndrome are

a)

1 in 700

b)

1 in 350

c)

1 in 100

d)

1 in 30

190.

Which disorder includes facial features such as flattened facial profile and small, upward slanting eyes?

a)

Down Syndrome

b)

Klinefelter Syndrome

c)

Turner Syndrome

d)

Cystic Fibrosis

191.

X-linked chromosome disorders are more common among

a)

males

b)

females

192.

A person who is XXY on the 23rd pair would have which disorder?

a)

Turner Syndrome

b)

Down Syndrome

c)

Klinefelter Syndrome

d)

none of these

193.

Klinefelter Syndrome affects

a)

biological males

b)

biological females

c)

both males and females

194.

Turner Syndrome affects

a)

biological males

b)

biological females

c)

both males and females

195.

True or False: Individuals with Klinefelter Syndrome tend to be shorter than their peers.

a)

True

b)

False

196.

A person with lowered testosterone, wide hips, reduced facial hair, and delayed puberty would most likely be diagnosed with

a)

Klinefelter Syndrome

b)

Turner Syndrome

c)

Fragile X Syndrome

d)

Hemophilia

197.

True or False: Individuals with Klinefelter Syndrome are more likely to experience learning disabilities.

a)

True

b)

False

198.

A person who is X0 on the 23rd pair would be diagnosed with

a)

Klinefelter Syndrome

b)

Turner Syndrome

c)

Fragile X Syndrome

d)

Red-Green Color Blindness

199.

Short stature, a webbed neck, swollen hands and feet, and infertility are typical symptoms of

a)

Turner Syndrome

b)

Fragile X Syndrome

c)

Down Syndrome

d)

Huntington's Disease

200.

True or False: Heart problems are common among individuals with Turner Syndrome.

a)

True

b)

False

201.

Fragile X Syndrome is more common among

a)

males

b)

females

202.

The X chromosome becomes constricted and breaks in

a)

Down Syndrome

b)

Klinefelter Syndrome

c)

Turner Syndrome

d)

none of these

203.

Which condition is caused by mutations of the FMR1 gene?

a)

Fragile X Syndrome

b)

Klinefelter Syndrome

c)

Cystic Fibrosis

d)

Huntington's Disease

204.

Severe intellectual disabilities along with a long, narrow face, prominent jaw and forehead, and flat feet are typical symptoms of

a)

Fragile X Syndrome

b)

Turner Syndrome

c)

Cystic Fibrosis

d)

Tay-Sachs Disease

205.

True or False: Seizures are a possible symptom of Fragile X Syndrome.

a)

True

b)

False

206.

Red-Green Color Blindness affects more

a)

males

b)

females

207.

The mutation for Fragile X Syndrome occurs on which chromosome?

a)

10

b)

12

c)

4

d)

23

208.

The mutation for red-green color blindness occurs on which chromosome?

a)

1

b)

10

c)

17

d)

23

209.

Mutations on genes that make proteins (called OPSIN) in the retina of the eye are responsible for

a)

red-green color blindness

b)

Cystic Fibrosis

c)

Tay-Sachs Disease

d)

none of these

210.

True or False: Individuals with red-green color blindness can only see in black, white, and shades of grey.

a)

True

b)

False

211.

True or False: Cystic Fibrosis is more common among African Americans.

a)

True

b)

False

212.

Mutations on the CFTR gene that are responsible for making a protein that produces sweat, saliva, tears, mucus, and digestive enzymes causes

a)

Cystic Fibrosis

b)

Huntington's Disease

c)

Tay Sachs Disease

d)

Sickle Cell Anemia

213.

Cystic Fibrosis is caused by a mutation on chromosome

a)

3

b)

7

c)

23

d)

11

214.

Which of the following is caused by a mutation on chromosome 7?

a)

Fragile X

b)

Tay Sachs Disease

c)

Huntington's Disease

d)

none of these

215.

Which of the following is caused by a mutation on chromosome 7?

a)

Fragile X

b)

Tay Sachs Disease

c)

Huntington's Disease

d)

none of these

216.

Lung transplants are often needed in cases of

a)

Cystic Fibrosis

b)

Huntington's Disease

c)

Down Syndrome

d)

Sickle Cell Anemia

217.

Lung complication are the most common cause of death in cases of

a)

Huntington's Disease

b)

Sickle Cell Anemia

c)

Tay Sachs Disease

d)

Cystic Fibrosis

218.

Insulin production is affected in

a)

Diabetes

b)

Cystic Fibrosis

c)

Tay Sachs Disease

d)

none of these

219.

True or False: Rates of diabetes in childhood has risen in recent years.

a)

True

b)

False

220.

True or False: Diabetes risk involves multiple genes on multiple chromosomes.

a)

True

b)

False

221.

Hemophilia is caused by a mutation on which chromosome pair?

a)

1

b)

7

c)

11

d)

23

222.

Hemophilia is more common among

a)

males

b)

females

223.

Which disorder involves the build-up of a thick sticky mucus in the digestive tract and lungs?

a)

Cystic Fibrosis

b)

Tay Sachs Disease

c)

Diabetes

d)

none of these

224.

Which disorder involves mutations in genes that provide instructions for making proteins called coagulation factors?

a)

Hemophilia

b)

Huntington's Disease

c)

Phenylketonuria

d)

Sickle-Cell Anemia

225.

In individuals with this disorder, bleeding is a serious concern as the blood does not properly clot.

a)

Hemophilia

b)

Fragile X Syndrome

c)

Sickle-Cell Anemia

d)

PKU

226.

Treatment of this disorder involves replacing the missing clotting factors of the blood through an injection.

a)

Huntington's Disease

b)

Diabetes

c)

Tay Sachs Disease

d)

Hemophilia

227.

This disorder is caused by mutations in the HTT gene located on chromosome 4.

a)

Huntington's Disease

b)

Sickle-Cell Anemia

c)

Phenylketonuria

d)

Tay Sachs Disease

228.

Average age of onset of this disorder is typically the 30s or 40s.

a)

Tay Sachs Disease

b)

Sickle Cell Anemia

c)

Huntington's Disease

d)

Cystic Fibrosis

229.

One of the major brain areas that is affected by Huntington's Disease is the

a)

amygdala

b)

basal ganglia

c)

cerebellum

d)

none of these

230.

Typical symptoms of this disorder include depression, irritability, problems with decision making, and motor movements including involuntary movements and poor coordination.

a)

Fragile X Syndrome

b)

Turner Syndrome

c)

Huntington's Disease

d)

Sickle-Cell Anemia

231.

True or False: Blood testing at birth can determine the presence of Phenylketonuria.

a)

True

b)

False

232.

True or False: "Diet for life" is the common treatment for Sickle-Cell Anemia.

a)

True

b)

False

233.

Which disorder is caused by a mutation on chromosome 4?

a)

Phenylketonuria

b)

Sickle-Cell Anemia

c)

Cystic Fibrosis

d)

Huntington's Disease

234.

The inability to process the amino acid phenylalanine is central to

a)

phenylketonuria

b)

sickle-cell anemia

c)

huntington's disease

d)

none of these

235.

Which disorder is caused by a mutation on chromosome 12?

a)

Phenylketonuria

b)

Huntington's Disease

c)

Sickle-Cell Anemia

d)

Cystic Fibrosis

236.

True or False: It is very important for individuals with PKU to avoid protein-based foods.

a)

True

b)

False

237.

What is the typical treatment for an individual with PKU?

a)

a special diet

b)

injections of clotting factors

c)

palliative care

d)

insulin

238.

True or False: If a special diet is not strictly followed for individuals with PKU, severe mental impairment can occur.

a)

True

b)

False

239.

Which disorder is caused by a mutation on chromosome 11?

a)

Huntington's Disease

b)

Tay Sachs Disease

c)

PKU

d)

Sickle-Cell Anemia

240.

Which disorder is caused my mutations in the HBB gene located on chromosome 11?

a)

Sickle-Cell Anemia

b)

Tay Sachs Disease

c)

Cystic Fibrosis

d)

none of these

241.

This disorder results in misshapen red blood cells that die off quicker than normal.

a)

Huntington's Disease

b)

Sickle-Cell Anemia

c)

Tay Sachs Disease

d)

none of these

242.

Delayed growth, vision problems, jaundice, pain, hypertension, heart disease, and stroke are just a few of the possible symptoms with

a)

Fragile X Syndrome

b)

Sickle-Cell Anemia

c)

Turner Syndrome

d)

Klinefelter Syndrome

243.

Which disorder is more common in individuals from easter and central european Jewish descent?

a)

Tay Sachs Disease

b)

Sickle Cell Anemia

c)

Huntington's Disease

d)

none of these

244.

This disorder is caused by mutations in the HEXA gene which is responsible for making an enzyme that acts as a garbage disposal in the nervous system.

a)

Huntington's Disease

b)

Down Syndrome

c)

Sicks-Cell Anemia

d)

none of these

245.

Which disorder affects chromosome 15?

a)

Sickle Cell Anemia

b)

Huntington's Disease

c)

Cystic Fibrosis

d)

Tay Sachs Disease

246.

Symptoms of this disorder include fairly normal development for the first 3-6 months of age and then regression.

a)

Tay Sachs Disease

b)

Huntington's Disease

c)

Klinefelter's Syndrome

d)

Down Syndrome

247.

Typically, death from this disorder occurs early, with an average life expectancy of 5 years old.

a)

Huntington's Disease

b)

Cystic Fibrosis

c)

Tay Sachs Disease

d)

none of these

248.

True or False: There is a cure for Tay Sachs Disease.

a)

True

b)

False

249.

True or False: There is a cure for Huntington's Disease.

a)

True

b)

False

250.

True or False: A lung transplant will cure Cystic Fibrosis.

a)

True

b)

False

251.

Which prenatal testing procedure uses high frequency sound waves to generate a picture of the offspring?

a)

ultrasound

b)

amniocentesis

c)

chorionic villus sampling

d)

noninvasive prenatal testing

252.

True or False: Most pregnant women un the United States will undergo at least one prenatal ultrasound.

a)

True

b)

False

253.

This prenatal testing procedure can be conducted between 15 and 18 weeks gestation and samples the amniotic fluid.

a)

ultrasound

b)

amniocentesis

c)

chorionic villus sampling

d)

none of these

254.

This prenatal testing procedure can be conducted between 9 and 12 weeks gestation and samples the membrane that surrounds the fetus.

a)

ultrasound

b)

amniocentesis

c)

chorionic villus sampling

d)

noninvasive prenatal testing

255.

True or False: It is considered safe to perform the chorionic villus sampling at 4 weeks gestation.

a)

True

b)

False

256.

True or False: There are no risks associated with amniocentesis.

a)

True

b)

False

257.

True or False: Noninvasive prenatal testing is considered to be just as accurate as amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling.

a)

True

b)

False