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OPS -progress 1

Total questions: 45

Worksheet time: 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The planning minima for a destination alternate aerodrome with a CAT II approach must be the..

a)

CAT I or CAT II minima, depending on the Decision Height/Minimum Descent Height (DH/MDH).

b)

CAT II RVR.

c)

CAT I minima + 200 ft/400 m visibility.

d)

CAT I RVR.

2.

In an aeroplane, each crew member shall be properly secured by all safety belts and harnesses provided


1 – during taxiing

2 – during take-off

3 – during landing

4 – whenever deemed necessary by the commander in the interest of safety

5 – during other phases of the flight while at his station


The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a)

1, 2, 3, 4

b)

2, 3, 4, 5

c)

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

d)

2, 3, 4.

3.

Who is responsible for providing an Operation Manual in accordance with OPS regulations for the use and guidance of the operations personnel?

a)

The owner of the aircraft.

b)

The aircraft operator.

c)

The aircraft manufacturer.

d)

The state of operator.

4.

Who must finally determine that the load and its distribution is such that the mass and balance limits of the aircraft are not exceeded and confirm their acceptance by countersigning the mass and balance document ?

a)

The pilot in command

b)

The flight engineer.

c)

The airline`s dispatcher.

d)

The station manager

5.

For two-engined aeroplanes not approved for ETOPS, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within:

a)

two hours flight time at cruising speed with all engines operating.

b)

one hour flight time at holding speed with one engine inoperative

c)

two hours flight time at one engine inoperative cruising speed.

d)

one hour flight time at one engine inoperative cruising speed.

6.

In accordance with OPS regulations, refuelling with non-wide cut fuel performed while passengers are embarking or disembarking the aircraft is acceptable provided, among other conditions :

a)

the ground area beneath the exits intended for emergency evacuation and slide deployment areas must be kept clear.

b)

all flight crew remain at their station.

c)

the fire brigade truck is close to the aircraft, ready for fire fighting.

d)

all the aircraft doors are completely open.

7.

A category I precision approach (CAT I) has:

a)

a decision height not less than 200 ft.

b)

a decision height between 100 and 200 ft.

c)

no decision height.

d)

a decision height between 100 and 300 ft.

8.

An aeroplane which has a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, shall be equipped with a cockpit voice recorder capable of retaining information recorded during at least the last:

a)

30 minutes or 1 hour of its operation, depending upon the date of the first issue of its individual Certificate of Airworthiness.

b)

30 minutes or 2 hours of its operation, depending upon the date of the first issue of its individual Certificate of Airworthiness.

c)

25 hours of its operation.

d)

10 hours of its operation.

9.

An aeroplane is intended to be operated at FL370. In accordance with OPS regulations, the number of cabin oxygen masks (dispensing units) required is at least:

a)

110% of the number of seats

b)

100% of the number of seats plus one additional mask per seat block.

c)

105% of the number of seats

d)

110% of the number of seats plus one additional mask per seat row.

10.

For a pressurised aircraft, the first-aid oxygen is designed to:

a)

provide undiluted oxygen to passengers who might require oxygen following a cabin depressurisation.

b)

provide oxygen to passengers who would suffer the effects of low pressure decrease due to long flights at high altitude.

c)

protect the flight crew and cabin attendants against fumes and noxious gases.

d)

provide oxygen to 10% of passengers at a cabin altitude exceeding 13000 ft after 30 minutes.

11.

An aeroplane is intended to be operated at FL 390. Given that:


Maximum approved passenger seating configuration = 230

No. of seats on board = 200

Scheduled number of passengers on board = 180

According to OPS regulations, the minimum required number of cabin oxygen masks (dispensing units) shall be:

a)

200

b)

230

c)

180

d)

220

12.

According to OPS regulations, oxygen masks for use by flight crew members shall be a quick-donning type of mask, in pressurised aeroplanes operating at pressure altitudes above:

a)

39000 ft.

b)

10000 ft.

c)

25000 ft.

d)

41000 ft.

13.

According to OPS regulations, an operator shall not operate an aeroplane authorized to carry more than 19 passengers for which individual Certificate of Airworthiness was first issued before 01 July 2008, unless it is equipped with, at least :

a)

one automatic ELT and one ELT of any type

b)

one automatic ELT or two ELT of any type

c)

one ELT of any type transmitting on 406 MHz

d)

one survival ELT and life saving equipment

14.

A four-engine aeroplane is operated over water at a distance of 340 NM away from land which is suitable for an emergency landing. Normal cruising speed is 180 kt. Cruising speed with the critical power unit inoperative is 155 kt. In accordance with OPS regulations, the aeroplane must be fitted with:

a)

life rafts able to accommodate all occupants of the aeroplane in the event of a loss of one raft of the largest rated capacity

b)

life jackets available for each person on board

c)

life jackets and rafts available for all occupants.

d)

one survival ELT and rafts to accommodate all occupants of the aeroplane

15.

When leaving the MNPS oceanic control area for a domestic controlled area, the pilot has to:

a)

take any Mach number.

b)

take the Mach number provided for this type of flight by his airline.

c)

maintain the Mach number previously assigned up to the last position shown in the oceanic clearance.

d)

take the Mach number specified in his initial flight plan.

16.

MNPS is the abbreviation for:

a)

Modern Navigation Performance System.

b)

Maximum North-Atlantic Precision System.

c)

Minimum Navigation Performance Specification.

d)

Military Network Performance Structure.

17.

In MNPS airspace, the speed reference for turbo-jet aircraft is the:

a)

indicated airspeed.

b)

ground speed.

c)

Mach number.

d)

true airspeed.

18.

In the MNPS airspace, a pilot should, first of all, take the following action in the event of a failure of the last inertial navigation system:

a)

notify Air Traffic Control and wait for instructions within a reasonable period.

b)

request authorisation from Control to track another aircraft.

c)

immediately climb or descend 1 000 ft.

d)

keep same fly level

19.

A flight via the SHANNON-GANDER great circle with no MNPS certification can be planned:

a)

at FL 290.

b)

outside OTS validity hours.

c)

at FL 280 or less.

d)

at a Mach number of 0.70 or less.

20.

Aircraft may operate in MNPS airspace along a number of special routes if the aircraft is equipped with at least:

a)

two Inertial Navigation Systems (INS).

b)

three Inertial Navigation System (INS).

c)

one Long Range Navigation System (LRNS).

d)

two independent Long Range Navigation Systems (LRNS).

21.

The MNPS airspace extends from:

a)

27° North to 70° North

b)

30° North to 70° North

c)

27° North to 90° North

d)

30° North to 90° North

22.

The MNPS airspace extends vertically between flight levels:

a)

285 and 420.

b)

280 and 390.

c)

275 and 400.

d)

280 and 400.

23.

In MNPS airspace, in case of need to establish communication with nearby aircraft, the backup inter-pilot air-to-air VHF frequency is:

a)

128.800 MHz.

b)

131.500 MHz.

c)

118.800 MHz.

d)

123.45 MHz.

24.

In the event of communication failure in an MNPS airspace, the pilot must:

a)

continue the flight in compliance with the last oceanic clearance received and acknowledged.

b)

join one of the so-called “special” routes.

c)

change the flight level in accordance with predetermined instructions.

d)

return to the flight plan route if it is different from the last oceanic clearance received and acknowledged.

25.

The regulatory green navigation light is located on the starboard side with a coverage angle of:

a)

120°

b)

110°

c)

130°

d)

100°

26.

The coverage angle of the regulatory white navigation/position light located at the rear of the aircraft is

a)

110°

b)

130°

c)

140°

d)

150°

27.

In accordance with OPS regulations, if the flight is to be carried out at FL 290, demonstration concerning oxygen equipment must be completed before:

a)

taxiing.

b)

the aircraft reaches FL 140.

c)

take-off.

d)

the aircraft reaches FL 100.

28.

In accordance with OPS regulations, for an aeroplane with a turbine engine, the operator shall have a fuel policy including a final reserve fuel to fly above destination aerodrome elevation in standard conditions:

a)

30 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft

b)

30 minutes at long range speed at holding altitude

c)

45 minutes at cruising speed at holding altitude

d)

45 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft

29.

For three and four-engined aeroplanes, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within:

a)

2 hours flight time at one-engine-inoperative cruising speed.

b)

1 hour flight time at cruising speed with all engines operating.

c)

1 hour flight time at one-engine-inoperative cruising speed.

d)

2 hours flight time at cruising speed with all engines operating.

30.

Without ETOPS Approval, an operator shall not operate a two-engined Class A aeroplane with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of 20 or more, over a route which contains a point further from an adequate aerodrome, at a distance flown, at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed, in:

a)

30 minutes.

b)

60 minutes.

c)

120 minutes.

d)

90 minutes.

31.

Information concerning emergency evacuation procedures shall be found in the:

a)

flight manual.

b)

ops specifications.

c)

operational flight plan.

d)

operations manual.

32.

A category II operation (CAT II) is an instrument precision approach and landing using ILS or MLS with:

a)

a DH below 50 ft and a RVR of less than 200 m but not less than 75 m

b)

a DH below 100 ft but not lower than 50 ft and a RVR of not less than 250 m.

c)

a DH below 100 ft but not lower than 50 ft and a RVR of not less than 200 m.

d)

a DH below 200 ft but not lower than 100 ft and a RVR of not less than 300 m.

33.

A Category I approach operation is a precision instrument approach and landing with a decision height not lower than 200 ft and with an RVR not less than:

a)

550 m.

b)

500 m.

c)

350 m.

d)

800 m.

34.

A Category III A operation is a precision instrument approach and landing using ILS or MLS with a RVR not less than:

a)

150 m.

b)

250 m.

c)

100 m.

d)

200 m.

35.

A Category III B operation is a precision instrument approach and landing using ILS or MLS with a RVR not less than:

a)

200 m.

b)

75 m.

c)

250 m.

d)

150 m.

36.

In accordance with OPS regulations, regarding the first aid oxygen, the quantity of undiluted oxygen carried on board a pressurised aeroplane with 8 passengers operated at pressure altitude 27000 ft, shall be sufficient for at least:

a)

2 passengers for the remainder of the flight after cabin depressurisation when the cabin altitude exceeds 8000 ft.

b)

2 passengers for the remainder of the flight after cabin depressurisation when the cabin altitude only exceeds 14000 ft.

c)

1 passenger for the remainder of the flight after cabin depressurisation when the cabin altitude exceeds 8000 ft

d)

1 passenger for the remainder of the flight after cabin depressurisation when the cabin altitude only exceeds 14000 ft.

37.

According to OPS regulations, a life jacket is mandatory for each person on board a land aeroplane, when flying over water at a distance from the shore of more than:

a)

400 NM

b)

100 NM

c)

200 NM

d)

50 NM

38.

On overwater flights, for aeroplanes capable of continuing the flight to an aerodrome with the critical power unit(s) becoming inoperative at any point along the route or planned diversions, sufficient life-rafts to carry all persons on board are to be carried, to operate an aeroplane at a distance away from land, which is suitable for making an emergency landing, greater than that corresponding to … : (i) … minutes at cruising speed or ... (ii) … nautical miles, whichever is the lesser The required values are:

a)

(i) 120 min (ii) 400 NM

b)

(i) 45 min (ii) 200 NM

c)

(i) 30 min (ii) 100 NM

d)

(i) 90 min (ii) 300 NM

39.

The number of hand fire extinguishers which have to be installed in the passenger cabin according to OPS regulations depends on the approved number of:

a)

seat rows in the cabin.

b)

passengers seats.

c)

passengers on board.

d)

emergency exits in the cabin.

40.

According to OPS regulations, for turbine-engined aeroplanes with a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, flight data recorders shall be capable of retaining the data recorded during at least the last:

a)

25 hours of operation.

b)

25 flights.

c)

30 hours of operation.

d)

10 flights.

41.

In accordance with OPS regulations, the amount of oxygen on-board a non-pressurised aircraft must be enough to fed the cabin crew members and all the passengers for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above:

a)

15 000 ft

b)

10 000 ft

c)

13 000 ft

d)

14 000 ft

42.

In accordance with OPS regulations, on board a non-pressurised aircraft, the amount of oxygen on-board a non-pressurised aircraft must be enough to fed 10% of the passengers for the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than:

a)

10 000 ft but not exceeding 14 000 ft

b)

10 000 ft but not exceeding 13 000 ft

c)

11 000 ft but not exceeding 15 000 ft

d)

13 000 ft but not exceeding 15 000 ft

43.

In accordance with OPS regulations, oxygen masks for use by flight crew members in pressurised aeroplanes shall be a quick donning type of mask for operations above:

a)

25 000 ft

b)

13000 ft

c)

29 000 ft

d)

10 000 ft

44.

According to OPS regulations, a pilot is not assigned to operate an aeroplane as part of the minimum certificated crew, either as pilot flying or pilot non-flying unless he/she has carried out:

a)

6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot flying on the same type of aeroplane or approved simulator, of the aeroplane type to be used.

b)

3 take-offs and 3 landings in the previous 90 days, as pilot flying in an aeroplane or in a flight simulator of the same type/class.

c)

3 take-offs and 3 landings on this type of aeroplane during the previous 6 months.

d)

6 take-offs and 6 landings during the previous 6 months.

45.

In accordance with OPS regulations, an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 7 to 30 seats must be equipped with hand fire-extinguisher(s) conveniently located in the passenger compartment, minimum number being:

a)

2

b)

1

c)

3

d)

4