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Worksheets

Block 4 Thompson

Total questions: 116

Worksheet time: 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

TCP Port Number for File Transfer Protocol (FTP) data channel

a)

25

b)

23

c)

22

d)

21

e)

20

2.

TCP Port number for File Transfer Protocol (FTP) control channel

a)

21

b)

20

c)

23

d)

24

e)

25

3.

TCP Port number for Secure Shell (SSH)

a)

21

b)

22

c)

23

d)

24

e)

20

4.

TCP Port number for Telnet

a)

23

b)

25

c)

22

d)

21

e)

20

5.

TCP Port number for Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)

a)

23

b)

24

c)

25

d)

26

e)

21

6.

TCP Port number for TACACS authentication service

a)

48

b)

46

c)

47

d)

49

e)

50

7.

TCP Port number for Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

a)

80

b)

81

c)

85

d)

79

e)

83

8.

TCP Port for Post Office Protocol version 3 (POP3)

a)

110

b)

111

c)

123

d)

109

e)

101

9.

TCP Port for Network Basic Input/Output System (NetBIOS) session service

a)

140

b)

135

c)

138

d)

139

e)

141

10.

TCP Port for Internet Message Access Protocol version 4 (IMAPv4)

a)

143

b)

144

c)

145

d)

140

e)

139

11.

TCP Port for Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

a)

389

b)

388

c)

398

d)

397

e)

386

12.

TCP Port for HTTP-Secure (HTTPS)

a)

433

b)

443

c)

423

d)

432

e)

434

13.

TCP Port for Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)

a)

3381

b)

3389

c)

3390

d)

3398

e)

3397

14.

UDP Port Number for Domain Name Service (DNS)

a)

53

b)

44

c)

43

d)

54

e)

55

15.

UDP Port number for Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)

a)

698

b)

64

c)

96

d)

68

e)

69

16.

UDP Port number for NetBIOS name service

a)

138

b)

135

c)

137

d)

139

17.

UDP Port number for NetBIOS datagram service

a)

138

b)

137

c)

135

d)

140

e)

134

18.

UDP Port number for Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

a)

64 / 65

b)

161 / 162

c)

61 / 62

d)

160 / 161

e)

164 / 165

19.

In regards to IPv4, what is the First Octet Range for a class B Address?

a)

1-127

b)

128-190

c)

128-181

d)

128-191

e)

191-223

20.

In regards to IPv4, what is the First Octet Range for a class C Address?

a)

192-223

b)

191-224

c)

190-220

d)

192-233

21.

In regards to IPv4, what is the First Octet Range for a class A Address?

a)

1-129

b)

0-127

c)

1-126

d)

1-127

e)

1-129

22.

What are the two resolutions that must be in operation for a network to function properly?

a)

Name, Network

b)

Name, Data

c)

Data, Network

d)

Name, Address

e)

Network, Address

23.

What Institute established the specifications for any kind of communication device?

a)

(IEEE) Insitute of Electrons and Electronical Economist

b)

(IIEE) Institution of Innovation and Electronics Engineers

c)

(IEEE) Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers

d)

(PWW) Prestige World Wide

24.

What are the three advantages of Wireless?

a)

Innovation, Portfolios, and Economics`

b)

Portfolios

c)

Mobility, Ease of Installation and Lower Cost, and Scalability

d)

Scalability, Portfolios, Mobility

25.

What is Scalability?

a)

Configuring Wireless LANS to form topologies to best achieve the needs of a specific application and installations.

b)

Configuring Hardware to form ports

c)

Configuring portfolios for innovation

d)

Configuring Hardware to perform a TCP

26.

What is the 3rd layer of the OSI model?

a)

Network

b)

Data Link

c)

Physical

d)

Session

27.

What are the two disadvantages of using wireless?

a)

Security, Rage

b)

System, Oats

c)

Security, Range

d)

System, Range

28.

What are the four key phases of designing a wireless network

a)

Innovation, Portfolios, Economics, Real Estate

b)

Location, Size, Parition, System

c)

Planning, Data, Securing and Managment/support

d)

Planning, Deployment, Securing, and Managment/support

e)

Planning, Deployment, Security, and Portfolios

29.

Data representation and code formatting are at this layer of the OSI Model

a)

Layer 6, Presentation

b)

Layer 5, Session

c)

Layer 2, Data Link

d)

Layer 1, Physical

30.

This is the layer on which routing takes place on the OSI Model

a)

Layer 3, Network

b)

Layer 1, Physical`

c)

Layer 2, Data Link

d)

Layer 4, Transport

e)

Layer 7, Application

31.

Under deployment of the wireless design, what keyword is defined by "overlapping coverage"

a)

Convergence

b)

Coffee

c)

Copper

d)

Vigiliance

32.

What does Dial-Up use?

a)

(PSTN) Public Switch Teleport Network

b)

(PSTN) Public Swap Technical Number

c)

(PSTN) Public Switch Telephone Network

d)

(PIR) Portfolios, Innovation, Real-Estate

33.

Baseband uses

a)

Tire-Duplex Multitude (TDM)

b)

Time-Division Multiplexing (TDM)

c)

Top-Division Multiplexing (TDM)

d)

Time-Dividing Multiphasing (TDM)

e)

Time-Day Multitude (TDM)

34.

Name resolution translates ___ to ___ addresses via ___

a)

FQDNs, IP, DNS

b)

Yes

c)

FQDNs, MAC, SND

d)

FDQNs, IP, DNS

35.

Address resolution translates logical ___ addresses to physical ___ address via ___.

a)

DNS, IP, ARC

b)

IP, DNS, ARP

c)

IP, MAC, ARP

36.

Speed and frequency for 802.11a

a)

2.4 Ghz; 54 Mbps

b)

5 Ghz; 55 Mbps

c)

6 Ghz; 55 Mbps

d)

5 Ghz; 54 Mbps

37.

Speed and frequency for 802.11b

a)

2.4 GHz; 51 Mbps

b)

2.4 GHz; 11 Mbps

c)

2.4 GHz; 21 Mbps

d)

2.4 GHz; 54 Mbps

38.

Speed and frequency for 802.11g

a)

2.4 GHz; 54 Mbps

b)

2.4 GHz; 55 Mbps

c)

5.4 GHz; 54 Mbps

d)

5 GHz; 54 Mbps

39.

Speed and frequency for 802.11n

a)

5 GHz & 5 GHz; 10 Mbps

b)

2.4 GHz & 5 GHz; 1000 Mbps

c)

5 GHz & 5 GHz; 100 Mbps

d)

2.4 GHz & 5 GHz; 100 Mbps

40.

Speed and frequency for 802.11ac

a)

5 GHz & 5 GHz; 500 Mbps

b)

2.4 GHz & 5 GHz; 500 Mbps

c)

5.4 GHz & 5 GHz; 50 Mbps

d)

5.4 GHz & 5 GHz; 500 Mbps

41.

When developing a wireless solution, you should pay close attention to _____ and ____

a)

Data security and integrity

b)

Data Surety and integrity

c)

Data link and integrity

42.

When installing access points, remember to consider [a] limitations and re-adjust access point locations to allow for [b].

a)

Range & Convergence

b)

Rage & Coffee

c)

Range & Security

d)

Range & Cost

43.

Worked on only one frequency and had a range of 150 feet.

a)

802.11g

b)

802.11a

c)

802.11ac

d)

802.11n

44.

The first standard to become universal.

a)

802.11n

b)

802.11b

c)

802.11g

d)

802.11ac

45.

The first standard to offer backwards compatibility with 802.11b.

a)

802.11a

b)

802.11ac

c)

802.11n

d)

802.11g

46.

The first standard to operate on both frequencies.

a)

802.11a

b)

802.11g

c)

802.11n

d)

802.11ac

47.

The most recent standard developed.

a)

802.11ac

b)

802.11a

c)

802.11n

d)

802.11g

48.

Delivers data frames between devices on a LAN

•Upper Sublayer: Logical Link control

-Provides addressing and control of the data link

•Lower Sublayer: Media Access Control

-Determines what is allowed to access the physical media at any given time.

a)

Layer 1 : Physical

b)

Layer 3 : Network

c)

Layer 6 : Presentation

d)

Layer 2 : Data Link

e)

Layer 7 : Application

49.

•This is the layer on which routing takes place.

•Defines the structure and use of logical addressing, as well as the processes used to route packets

a)

Layer 4 : Transport

b)

Layer 2: Data Link

c)

Layer 3 : Network

d)

Layer 1 : Physical

50.

The functions defined in this layer provide for the reliable transmission of data segments, as well as the disassembly and assembly of the data before and after transmission.

a)

Layer 4 : Transport

b)

Layer 3 : Network

c)

Layer 2 : Data Link

51.

A connection-oriented protocol

a)

TCP Transmission Control Protocol

b)

UDP

c)

TCP Timing Control Protocol

52.

____ creates data segments with addresses from IP

a)

UDP

b)

TCP

c)

MAC

d)

IP

53.

What helps to reduce congestion by allowing multiple nodes to share a single public IP address

a)

Network Application Translation (NAT)

b)

Network Adding Transport (NAT)

c)

Network Address Transport (NAT)

d)

Network Address Translation (NAT)

54.

Class A Ipv4 private addresses

a)

10.0.0.0 –10.254.254.254

b)

10.0.0.0 –10.255.255.255

c)

10.0.0.2 –10.255.255.255

55.

Class B Ipv4 private addresses

a)

172.16.0.0 –172.31.255.255

b)

172.16.0.0 –172.31.254.254

c)

174.16.0.0 –174.31.255.255

56.

Class c Ipv4 private addresses

a)

192.168.0.0 –192.168.254.254

b)

192.168.0.0 –192.168.255.255

c)

193.168.0.0 –193.168.255.255

57.

________________ is a process of subdividing a network to provide logical distinctions between hosts

a)

scalability

b)

Convergence

c)

Subnetting

d)

MAC

58.

_________________ provides the translation between IP and MAC

a)

Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)

b)

Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDNS)

c)

MAC

d)

Convergence

59.

The simplicity behind baseband signaling is that only three signal states need to be distinguished, __, __, and __.

a)

one, zero and idle.

b)

one, zero and two

c)

one, zero and MAC

60.

All these methods provide bandwidth in excess of 300Kbps; current implementations are two-way services, permitting you to use your telephone while accessing the internet.

a)

Baseband

b)

Broadband

61.

The user's _____ or router uses an attached modem connected to a telephone line to dial into an Internet Service Provider's (ISP) telecom node to establish a _____ -to- ______link.

a)

Computer, peer, peer

b)

Client, peer, modem

c)

Computer, modem, modem

d)

Client, peer, peer

62.

Only one signal can be transmitted at a time through baseband transmission lines.

a)

True

b)

False

63.

How many signals can be simultaneously transmitted over a baseband cable?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

0

64.

To better identify what kind of attack has occurred, the National Security Agency (NSA) Information Assurance Technical Framework (IATF) has identified five distinct classes of network attack, what are they?

a)

Active, Close-Off, Distribution, Insider & Passive

b)

Application, Close-In, Distribution, Insider & Passive

c)

Activity, Close-In, DNS, Inside & Passive

d)

Active, Close-In, Distribution, Insider & Passive

65.

_______ attacks include traffic analysis, monitoring of unprotected communications, decrypting weakly encrypted traffic, and capture of authentication information (e.g., passwords). ______ intercept of network operations can give adversaries indications and warnings of impending actions. ________ attacks can result in disclosure of information or data files to an attacker without the consent or knowledge of the user. Examples include the disclosure of personal information such as credit card numbers and medical files.

a)

Active

b)

Passive

c)

Close-In

d)

Distribution

66.

_____ attacks can result in the disclosure or dissemination of data files, denial of service, or modification of data.

a)

Passive

b)

Active

c)

Distribution

d)

Close-In

67.

______ attacks include attempts to circumvent or break protection features, introduce malicious code, or steal or modify information. These attacks may be mounted against a network backbone, exploit information in transit, electronically penetrate an enclave, or attack an authorized remote user during an attempt to connect to an enclave

a)

Active

b)

Close-In

c)

Passive

d)

Distribution

68.

________ attacks is where an unauthorized individual is in physical close proximity to networks, systems, or facilities for the purpose of modifying, gathering, or denying access to information

a)

Active

b)

Passive

c)

Close-In

d)

Distribution

e)

Insider

69.

_____ attacks can be malicious or non-malicious. Malicious ______ intentionally eavesdrop, steal or damage information, use information in a fraudulent manner, or deny access to other authorized users.

a)

Close-In

b)

Insider

c)

Passive

d)

Distribution

70.

________ attacks focus on the malicious modification of hardware or software at the factory or during distribution. These attacks can introduce malicious code into a product, such as a back door to gain unauthorized access to information or a system function at a later date.

a)

Insider

b)

Distribution

c)

Close-In

d)

Active

71.

Group inside a group, basically adding a group inside another group

a)

Group Domain

b)

Group Nesting

c)

Group Inception

d)

Group Network

72.

_____________ of a hard drive is the information that tells a machine how to turn on and load an operating system. A virus that infects this _________ can replace the legitimate boot-up instructions with viral code. Because the virus will load into memory ahead of any operating system instructions, no system-level antivirus software can remove it.

a)

Macro Viruses

b)

Worm

c)

Boot Sector Virus

d)

File-Fector-Viruses

73.

A ______ is a set of user-generated list of computer instructions which can be executed at any time by the user

a)

Macro Viruses

b)

Boot Sector Virus

c)

Worm

d)

File-Infector Virus

74.

______ viruses attach themselves to executable files (.exe, .com, .sys, etc.) and copy themselves into memory whenever the host file is run. From memory, the virus attaches itself to other executable files. This process continues on and on, and can wind up infecting thousands of files on users’ hard drives. As if the rampant copying of viral code wasn’t enough, these viruses often contain instructions to permanently erase or overwrite data.

a)

File-Infector Viruses

b)

Worms

c)

Boot Sector Virus

d)

Macro Virus

75.

The destruction caused by worms is usually dealt in two methods: _______, and _________

a)

denial of service, and viral security

b)

denial of service, and viral application

c)

denial of service, and viral payloads

d)

denial of service, and data integrity

76.

__________are not technically viruses; rather, they are programs that run independently of users and travel between computers and across networks.

a)

Worms

b)

Malware

c)

File-Infector Virus

d)

Macro Virus

77.

Like a worm, a _____________ is also not technically a virus; instead, it is a program that disguises itself as something useful but actually harms your system.

a)

Boot Sector Virus

b)

File-Infector Virus

c)

Malware

d)

Trojan horse

78.

To close off avenues of attack is to eliminate vulnerabilities and reduce your overall risk. This concept is known as “_________” a system

a)

Shielding

b)

Hardening

c)

Defending

d)

Protecting

79.

______________ software is essential for all computer hosts; the software must remain updated and current in its virus definitions. With the rise of mobile computing, a strong MDM anti-virus policy is also vital to ensuring mobile availability

a)

BroadBand-Frequency Division Multiplexing

b)

Anti-Spyware/Anti-Malware

c)

Firewall

d)

Anti-Virus/Anti-Malware

80.

Both hardware- and software-based _________ are critical to filtering incoming and outgoing network traffic.

a)

Anti-Virus

b)

Firewalls

c)

Encryption

d)

Account Lockout Policy

81.

A type of hardening - Keeping an unnecessary service enabled on a computer is like keeping your back door open because you think no burglar will ever look there. Guess what? The burglar will find your open door, and hackers will find your open network ports. It’s only a matter of time. Remove any software that isn’t mission-oriented, and disable any services that aren’t needed.

a)

Disabling firewalls

b)

Disabling unnecessary software/services

c)

Enycrption

d)

Disabiling necessary protocols

82.

Enforce WPA2- Enterprise on your corporate wireless networks. Enforce mandatory HTTPS through modern Transport Layer Security (TLS) on all internal web servers. Enforce data-at-rest and data-inmotion encryption for all sensitive files.

a)

Firewall -An example of hardening

b)

Enycrption -An example of hardening

c)

Anti-virus/anti-malware -An example of hardening

d)

Disabling unnecessary software/services: -An example of hardening

e)

Password policy -An example of hardening

83.

To prevent brute force password attacks against user accounts, force a lockout status after a pre-set number of invalid login attempts.

a)

Account lockout policy- An example of hardening

b)

Disabling unused accounts -An example of hardening

c)

Disabling guest accounts -An example of hardening

d)

Encryption: -An example of hardening

e)

Disabling unnecessary software/services: -An example of hardening

84.

Unused accounts have no place on a network. They could be taken over by attackers with malicious intent. Disable network accounts that have not been accessed for 30 days, and plan to delete them soon thereafter.

a)

Enycrption - - An example of hardening

b)

Firewall - - An example of hardening

c)

Disabling unused accounts: - An example of hardening

d)

Disabling unnecessary software/services - An example of hardening

e)

Anti-virus/anti-malware - An example of hardening

85.

You should disable _____ accounts, they have no place on a enterprise network. There's no way to trace who is on a ____ account, and it's hard to hold them accountable. Never ever have ____ accounts enable. This is a type of hardening by disabling ____ accounts.

a)

User (Disabling Unused Accounts)

b)

Guest (Disabling Guest Accounts)

86.

A type of hardening- _________ is an OS which has been thoroughly evaluated, vetted, and ranked into one of seven Evaluation Assurance Levels (EALs) according to the Common Criteria for Information Technology Security Evaluation defined in ISO 15408.

a)

Trusted Operating Systems (TOSs)

b)

Only download

c)

TOS

d)

For hardening

87.

The first wireless networks were based off of Packet Radio transmissions between ___ and __ radio base stations, and were not protected at all

a)

VHF, HF

b)

VHS, HF

c)

MAC, IP

d)

DNS, IP

88.

The ____ is the broadcasted name of a wireless network

a)

(SSID) - Service Set Identifier

b)

(SSID) - Service Setup Identify

c)

(SSID) - Startup Setup

d)

MAC

89.

A WAP is a loudspeaker, constantly shouting to anyone who can listen. Increase security by decreasing your WAP’s _______, in effect, by reducing the volume on your loudspeaker. There’s no reason to broadcast at maximum power when all wireless clients are within 20 feet.

a)

Power Level - A type of WIRELESS NETWORKS SECURITY

b)

MAC Address Filtering - A type of WIRELESS NETWORKS SECURITY

c)

Captive Portals - A type of WIRELESS NETWORKS SECURITY

d)

Antenna Placement - A type of WIRELESS NETWORKS SECURITY

90.

Public WLANs often use a _____ ______ technology to force all incoming users to a one-time “landing page” or Portal to assure that users are aware of terms and conditions of use. Users will acknowledge the rules, and then have access to the network. This is an administrator’s way of saying, “Hey, I’m watching you!” and forcing all users to register their consent.

a)

Antenna Placement- A type of WIRELESS NETWORKS SECURITY

b)

Captive Portal - A type of WIRELESS NETWORKS SECURITY

c)

VPN over open WiFi- A type of WIRELESS NETWORKS SECURITY

d)

MAC Address Filtering- A type of WIRELESS NETWORKS SECURITY

91.

Keep your WAP antennas centralized to prevent eavesdropping. Additionally, be aware of common sources of interference. WAPs that utilize the 2.4GHz spectrum (802.11b/g) are especially vulnerable to interference from such appliances as microwave ovens, generators, and baby monitors.

a)

Service Set Identifier (SSID) - A type of WIRELESS NETWORKS SECURITY

b)

Antenna Placement - A type of WIRELESS NETWORKS SECURITY

c)

MAC Address Filtering- A type of WIRELESS NETWORKS SECURITY

d)

Captive Portals- A type of WIRELESS NETWORKS SECURITY

92.

WAPs that utilize the 2.4GHz spectrum ____ and _____ are especially vulnerable to interference from such appliances as microwave ovens, generators, and baby monitors.

a)

802.11b and 802.11g

b)

802.11a and 802.11b

c)

802.11g and 802.11n

d)

802.11ac and 802.11n

93.

If a wireless network must remain unencrypted for matters of user convenience or connectivity, consider enforcing a VPN policy. Virtual Private Networks create encrypted “tunnels” through the internet from endpoint to endpoint, preventing even determined sniffers from reading data or metadata. T

a)

A type of WIRELESS NETWORKS SECURITY

b)

VPN over open WiFi

94.

___ encrypts all data packets using a stream cipher called RC4, which relies on a 40-bit key plus a 24-bit Initialization Vector (IV).

a)

WEP

b)

WPA

c)

EAP

95.

___ is not considered strong enough for modern use, and has been entirely superceded by newer security methods.

a)

WPA - Wi-Fi Protected Access

b)

WEP - Wired Equivalent Privacy

c)

EAP - Extensible Authentication Protocol

96.

Rather than a specific protocol in its own right, ___ is an authentication framework that defines methods and mechanisms to verify the identity of users connecting to wired or wireless networks.

a)

Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)

b)

Extensible Application Protocol (EAP)

c)

Extensible Authentication Physical (EAP)

d)

Exponent Authentication Protocol (EAP)

97.

Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) defines three specific functions for user verification.

  1. ___
  2. ___
  3. ____

(Protecting a Wireless Network through Encryption)

a)

Supplicant (the user requesting access)

Authenticator (the WAP or switch to which the user’s device is connecting)Authentication Server (Usually RADIUS, Diameter, or something similar)

b)

Supplicant (the user requesting access)

Application (the WAP or switch to which the user’s device is connecting)Authentication System (Usually RADIUS, Diameter, or something similar)

c)

Systemt (the user requesting access)

Application (the WAP or switch to which the user’s device is connecting)Authentication Server (Usually RADIUS, Diameter, or something similar)

98.

Because ___ was originally designed for physical, wired networks (Wi-Fi hadn’t been invented yet), there is no requirement for packet encryption.

a)

Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)

b)

Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)

99.

__________ is a standard that defines how EAP should be applied across all IEEE 802 networks.

a)

Lightweight EAP (LEAP)

b)

Protected EAP (PEAP)

c)

IEEE 802.1X

100.

_______________ is a Cisco-proprietary method of EAP implementation that was designed to address the authentication flaws of WEP. As such, _______ is not a fullyformed security method.

a)

IEEE 802.1X

b)

Lightweight EAP (LEAP)

c)

Protected EAP (PEAP)

101.

________ is a method of encapsulating specific EAP methods within a securely encrypted TLS end-to-end tunnel. It does not define the use of SW E3AQR3D131 01AA 26 the authentication mechanisms, but rather provides the encrypted tunnel within which to send them. _____ is a strongly recommended, more modern alternative to LEAP.

a)

Lightweight EAP (LEAP)

b)

Protected EAP (PEAP)

c)

IEEE 802.1X

102.

WPA implements _________ to further scramble the root key and IV before being handled by RC4 during the data encryption process

a)

Temporary Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP)

b)

Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP)

c)

Temporal Key Integrity Physical(TKIP)

d)

Temporary Key Input Protocol (TKIP)

103.

___ is not secure, and has been replaced by the current standard, WPA2

a)

WPA

b)

WAZ

104.

A user is able to listen into weakly encrypted traffic.

a)

Active

b)

Passive

c)

Close-In

d)

Insider

105.

A user is able to penetrate a firewall in order to force into the network through a denial of service attack.

a)

Active

b)

Passive

c)

Close-In

d)

Insider

106.

A user captures wireless signal broadcasting outside the building and is able to gather information.

a)

Active

b)

Passive

c)

Close-In

d)

Insider

107.

Replaces the legitimate boot-up instructions with viral code.

a)

Macro Virus

b)

Trojan Horse

c)

Boot Sector Virus

d)

Worms

108.

Replaces a set of user-generated list of computer instructions with viral code.

a)

Boot Sector Virus

b)

File-Infector Virus

c)

Macro Virus

d)

Trojan Horse

109.

Attached to .exe, .com, .sys, or other executable files and can replicate very quickly.

a)

Macro Virus

b)

File-Infector Virus

c)

Boot Sector Virus

d)

Worms

110.

Doesn't require activation by the user. Main goal is denial of service rather than data destruction.

a)

Boot Sector Virus

b)

Macro Virus

c)

File-Infector Virus

d)

Worms

111.

This is the Air Force’s primary web-basedtool for CST administration of an Active Directory domain

a)

Directory and Resource Administrator (DRA)

b)

Active Directory Users and Computers (ADUC

112.

CSTs primarily use two tools to manage Active Directory

a)

(EAP)

b)

Directory and Resource Administrator (DRA)

Active Directory Users and Computers (ADUC)

113.

Only one object is manipulated at a time

a)

Active Directory Users and Computers (ADUC)

b)

Directory and Resource Administrator (DRA)

c)

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

114.

There are many directory systems in use for internetworking, and the original is the International Telecommunication Union’s ____ directory standard

a)

DRA

b)

LDAP

c)

X.500

115.

What is the name for Microsoft’s implementation of a directory service?

a)

Active Directory

b)

Directory and Resource Administrator

c)

X.500

d)

LDAP

116.

What is the central authentication service implemented within MS Active Directory?

a)

TACACS

b)

Kerberos

c)

DIAMETER

d)

RADIUS