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RISA knowledge test

Total questions: 73

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are cytokines?

a)

Molecules that act as chemoattractants and that draw monocytes and neutrophils into infected tissue

b)

Proteins that are released by immune system cells and that act as intercellular mediators in an immune response

c)

Monocytes that protect internal surfaces of body against pathogens

d)

Molecules that recognize and kill abnormal cells such as tumors or infected cells

2.

Which of the following statements is TRUE about autoimmunity?

a)

Immune-mediated inflammatory diseases share some common inflammatory pathways as part of their pathogenesis

b)

All immune disorders are considered autoimmune diseases

c)

Autoimmunity is nonspecific and not stimulated by specific antigens

d)

Autoimmunity is the immune system host reacting against nonself antigens

3.

Which of the following is FALSE about the IL-23 cytokine?

a)

It binds its cellular receptor that triggers a signaling pathway to release pro-inflammatory cytokines

b)

It is composed of 2 subunits, p19 and p40

c)

It is released by dendritic cells

d)

It is activated by the JAK-STAT signaling pathway

4.

Which of the following is TRUE about immune systems?

a)

The innate and adaptive immune systems do not interact with each other

b)

The adaptive immune system has a memory component to improve response

c)

The innate immune system responds to specific antigens

d)

All of the above

5.

Which of the following describes a step in phagocytosis?

a)

Plasma membrane surrounds the microbe, forming an extension around it to internalize the microbe

b)

Monocytes migrate into tissues to become macrophages

c)

Antibodies bind to bacterial toxins, neutralizing the toxins

d)

Mast cells trigger of the cAMP and PDE4 signaling pathway

6.

Which of these cells are categorized as lymphocytes?

a)

Eosinophils, basophils, and neutrophils

b)

Macrophages, dendritic cells, and mast cells

c)

T cells, NK cells, and B cells

d)

Dendritic cells, NK cells, and B cells

7.

Which of the following statements is TRUE in regard to chronic inflammation?

a)

Chronic inflammation dissipates once a foreign substance is removed from the tissue

b)

Chronic inflammation involves only the skin

c)

Chronic inflammation is a protective and self-limiting process

d)

Chronic inflammation develops when an inflammatory agent persists in the injured tissue

8.

Which of the following characterizes T cells?

a)

Generate in the thymus

b)

Remain dormant in lymphoid tissue until activated by antigens

c)

Do not undergo clonal deletion

d)

Produce antibodies when activated

9.

Which of the following is TRUE about IL-17?

a)

Produces local and systemic responses to infection through endothelial cells

b)

Is secreted exclusively by TH17 cells

c)

Both IL-17A and IL-17F bind to IL-17 receptors

d)

Is composed of 2 subunits, p19 and p35

10.

TNF-alpha induces which of the following

a)

Increased migration of leukocytes, fluid, and protein

b)

Increased vascular permeability

c)

Increased blood flow

d)

All of the above

11.

What are the risk factors for psoriasis?

a)

Family history of the disease, skin trauma, infection

b)

Emotional stress, hormonal changes, exposure to sunlight

c)

Smoking, certain medications, AIDS

d)

All of the above

12.

True or False: Patients with psoriasis plus comorbidities (associated diseases) have higher mortality rates than those without comorbidities.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

What percentage of body surface area (BSA) must be affected to qualify as severe psoriasis?

a)

<3%

b)

3% to 10%

c)

>10%

d)

30%

14.

What are the two key mechanisms involved in the pathogenesis of psoriasis?

a)

Hyperproliferation of keratinocytes and inflammatory immune response

b)

Innate immunity and adaptive immunity

c)

Hypoproliferation of keratinocytes and inactive immune response

d)

The JAK pathway and cAMP PDE4 pathway

15.

Which of the following are effector cytokines rather than regulatory cytokines?

a)

IL-23 and IL-17

b)

TNF-alpha and IL-17

c)

IL-12 and IL-23

d)

PDE-4 and IL-6

16.

Which of these are NOT types of psoriasis?

a)

Dermatitis, eczema

b)

Inverse, pustular

c)

Erythrodermic, guttate

d)

None of the above

17.

Which of these is NOT considered an associated comorbidity of psoriasis?

a)

Cardiovascular disease

b)

Diabetes

c)

Weight loss

d)

Depression

18.

Nail changes occur in approximately what percentage of people with psoriasis?

a)

12%

b)

30%

c)

50%

d)

75%

19.

Which of the following is true about psoriatic arthritis?

a)

The first signs of psoriatic arthritis typically occur at the same time as symptoms of psoriasis

b)

Approximately 30% of patients with psoriasis develop psoriatic arthritis

c)

Psoriatic arthritis often occurs in patients who are between 18 and 25 years old

d)

Nail changes are not a common symptom of psoriatic arthritis

20.

True or False: Severity of psoriatic arthritis in patients does NOT correlate with the severity of psoriasis.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

Which of the following are clinical presentations of plaque psoriasis? [select all that apply]

a)

Intense burning, itching, and pain

b)

Plaques that crack and bleed

c)

Plaques of varying sizes, from pinpoints to large plaques

d)

Symmetrical distribution

22.

Which of the following is TRUE about psoriasis epidemiology?

a)

It is less common in women than in men

b)

It is more common in eastern Asian populations

c)

Its prevalence in different countries varies between 0.09% and 11.4%

d)

The average age of onset for psoriasis is 15 years

23.

What percentage of patients with psoriasis has at least 1 comorbidity?

a)

35%

b)

40%

c)

45%

d)

50%

24.

Which of the following identifies the correct order of the 3 layers of the skin from outermost to innermost layers?

a)

Dermis, basal layer, epidermis

b)

Epidermis, dermis, hypodermis

c)

Basal layer, granular layer, horny layer

d)

Hypodermis, epidermis, dermis

25.

Select the response that correctly fills in the blanks in this statement: In normal skin, it takes _____ for new keratinocytes to reach the surface layer of the skin, whereas in skin with psoriasis, it takes ____.

a)

3 to 5 days; 3 to 5 hours

b)

10 to 15 days; 5 to 7 days

c)

30 to 60 days; 3 to 5 days

d)

30 to 60 days; 15 to 20 days

26.

Select the response that correctly fills in the blanks in this statement: In patients with psoriasis, keratinocyte proliferation in the basal layer ____ dramatically. When proliferation is ______ the shedding of cells from the surface, keratinocytes accumulate and form scaly plaque on the surface of the skin.

a)

Increases; lower than

b)

Increases; faster than

c)

Decreases; faster than

d)

Decreases; slower than

27.

Risankizumab selectively binds with high affinity

to the ___ subunit of human ___ cytokine and inhibits its

interaction with the ___ receptor complex.

a)

p40; IL-12; IL-12/23

b)

p19; IL-23; IL-23

c)

p40; IL-12; IL-12

d)

p19; IL-12/23; IL-23

28.

The proposed indication of risankizumab is for

the treatment of ________________________ in adults who are

candidates for ______________________.

a)

Mild to severe plaque psoriasis; systemic therapy

b)

Moderate to severe plaque psoriasis; systemic therapy

c)

Severe plaque psoriasis; phototherapy

d)

Moderate pustular psoriasis; biologic therapy

29.

The recommended dose of risankizumab is ___ administered by

___ subcutaneous injection(s) at ___, ___, and every ___ thereafter

a)

100 mg; 1; Week 0; Week 8; 16 weeks

b)

100 mg; 2; Week 2; Week 4; 8 weeks

c)

150 mg; 2; Week 0; Week 4; 12 weeks

d)

150 mg; 1; Week 4; Week 8; 16 wee

30.

What was the most frequently reported adverse reaction in

risankizumab clinical studies?

a)

Injection-site reactions

b)

Headaches

c)

Nausea

d)

Upper respiratory infections

31.

The efficacy and safety of risankizumab was

assessed in ___ subjects included in ____ multicentre,

randomized, double-blind studies.

a)

450; 3

b)

1003; 4

c)

2109; 4

d)

4240; 5

32.

Across all risankizumab studies, ___ of patients

had received prior biologic therapy for the treatment of

psoriasis.

a)

7.6%

b)

21.6%

c)

42.1%

d)

78.1%

33.

In pooled data from risankizumab clinical trials, serious adverse events occurred in ___ of patients for the risankizumab group compared to 4.0% and 5.0% for the placebo and ustekinumab groups, respectively.

a)

1.1%

b)

2.4%

c)

12.6%

d)

19.1%

34.

Which 52-week risankizumab Phase 3 clinical trial(s) was/were designed to assess the efficacy and safety of risankizumab compared with placebo and ustekinumab in patients with moderate to severe plaque psoriasis?

a)

UltIMMa-1 and UltIMMa-2

b)

IMMvent

c)

IMMhance

d)

IMMskin

35.

Which 104-week risankizumab Phase 3 clinical trial(s) was/were designed to assess the efficacy and safety of risankizumab compared with placebo in patients with moderate to severe plaque psoriasis, as well as randomized withdrawal and retreatment?

a)

UltIMMa-1 and UltIMMa-2

b)

IMMvent

c)

IMMhance

d)

IMMskin

36.

Which 44-week risankizumab Phase 3 clinical trial(s) was/were designed to assess the efficacy and safety of risankizumab compared with adalimumab in patients with moderate to severe plaque psoriasis?

a)

UltIMMa-1 and UltIMMa-2

b)

IMMvent

c)

IMMhance

d)

IMMskin

37.

TRUE or FALSE: Risankizumab is contraindicated only in patients with hypersensitivity to its active substance or to any of its excipients, or in patients with clinically important active infections (eg, tuberculosis).

a)

True

b)

False

38.

In an integrated analysis of patients receiving

risankizumab in UltIMMa-1 and UltIMMa-2, for PASI 90 responders at Week 16, ___ of patients who continued on risankizumab maintained the response at Week 52.

a)

46.2%

b)

88.4%

c)

60.1%

d)

26.9%

39.

No dose adjustment of risankizumab is required among patients who are elderly (aged 65 years and over), or who have renal or hepatic impairment

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Examination of age, gender, race, body weight,

baseline PASI score, concurrent psoriatic arthritis, previous nonbiologic systemic treatment, previous biologic treatment, and previous failure of a biologic did not identify differences in response to risankizumab among these subgroups.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

Which of the following is NOT among key inclusion criteria for UltIMMa-1 and UltIMMa-2?

a)

Adult patients (>=18 years)

b)

Chronic plaque psoriasis for >=6 months

c)

Non-plaque psoriasis (incl. guttate, erythrodermic, or

pustular) for >=6 months

d)

Candidate for treatment with ustekinumab

42.

In UltIMMa-1, what percent of the risankizumab and placebo groups achieved PASI 90 at Week 16?

a)

26.5% vs. 8.7%

b)

45.9% vs. 9.1%

c)

75.3% vs. 4.9%

d)

94.6% vs. 10.9%

43.

In UltIMMa-1, what percent of the risankizumab and placebo groups achieved sPGA 0/1 at Week 16?

a)

33.3% vs. 5.8%

b)

73.6% vs. 9.0%

c)

68.4% vs. 4.8%

d)

87.8% vs. 7.8%

44.

Which of the following ranked secondary endpoints of UltIMMa-1were significantly improved with risankizumab compared to ustekinumab at Week 52?

a)

sPGA 0, PASI 90, and PASI 100, but not DLQI 0/1

b)

DLQI 0/1 and PASI 90, but not sPGA 0 and PASI 100

c)

PASI 90 only

d)

sPGA 0, PASI 90, PASI 100, and DLQI 0/1

45.

In UltIMMa-1, ___ of the risankizumab group and ___ of the ustekinumab group achieved PASI 100 at Week 52.

a)

42.0%; 54.6%

b)

56.3%; 21.0%

c)

35.9%; 12.0%

d)

76.5%; 75.9%

46.

Which of the following statements about UltIMMa-1 is TRUE?

a)

Risankizumab was consistently superior to placebo

b)

Risankizumab was consistently superior to ustekinumab

c)

There were no unexpected safety findings

d)

All the statements are true

47.

In UltIMMa-1 and UltIMMa-2, patients were stratified at randomization by what 2 baseline characteristics?

a)

Age and sPG

b)

Weight and prior TNF inhibitor exposure

c)

Sex and PASI

d)

BMI and prior biologic therapy exposure

48.

In UltIMMa-2, ___ of the risankizumab group achieved PASI 90 and ___ achieved sPGA 0/1 at Week 16.

a)

74.8%; 83.7%

b)

83.5%; 60.0%

c)

57.8%; 81.4%

d)

55.3%; 50.4%

49.

Which of the following statements about UltIMMa-2 is TRUE?

a)

Risankizumab was consistently superior to placebo, but not

ustekinumab

b)

The placebo group (who had switched to risankizumab at

Week 16) had similar efficacy endpoints compared to the

risankizumab group at Week 52

c)

PASI 90 responses for risankizumab were not maintained

through Week 5

d)

No non-treatment-emergent deaths occurred in the

risankizumab group

50.

In UltIMMa-2, approximately what portion of the risankizumab group achieved clear skin (PASI 100, sPGA 0) at Week 16?

a)

One-tenth (PASI 100 = 10.4%; sPGA 0 = 11.1%)

b)

One-third (PASI 100 = 34.3%; sPGA 0 = 29.8%)

c)

One-half (PASI 100 = 50.7%; sPGA 0 = 51.0%)

d)

Three-quarters (PASI 100 = 74.7%; sPGA 0 = 75.6%)

51.

In UltIMMa-2, approximately ___ of patients in the risankizumab group achieved PASI 100 at Week 52 compared to ___ for ustekinumab.

a)

60%; 30%

b)

40%; 20%

c)

20%; 10%

d)

10%; 5%

52.

Which of the following statements about UltIMMa-2 safety findings is TRUE?

a)

The proportions of patients with treatment-emergent

adverse events were similar across treatment groups

throughout the study duration

b)

No malignancies occurred among each of the

risankizumab, ustekinumab, and placebo groups

c)

No serious infections were reported in the risankizumab

group

d)

No non-treatment-related major adverse cardiovascular

events were reported in the risankizumab group

53.

In UltIMMa-1 and UltIMMa-2, respectively, approximately ___ and ___ of the risankizumab group achieved PASI 90 at Week 52, compared with approximately 44% and 51%

of the ustekinumab group.

a)

98%; 91%

b)

82%; 81%

c)

60%; 45%

d)

24%; 23%

54.

Which of the following statements about the IMMhance study design are TRUE?

a)

Patients were randomized to risankizumab 150 mg

or placebo

b)

Patients originally randomized to risankizumab

who achieved sPGA 0/1 at Week 28 were rerandomized

to risankizumab (maintenance) or

placebo (withdrawal) at Weeks 28 to 104

c)

It was designed as a 104-week study with 3 periods

d)

All the statements are true

55.

In IMMhance, what percent of the risankizumab and

placebo groups achieved PASI 90 at Week 16?

a)

24.5% vs. 10.6%

b)

57.7% vs. 5.5%

c)

73.2% vs. 2.0%

d)

91.5% vs. 8.8%

56.

In IMMhance, what percent of the risankizumab and

placebo groups achieved sPGA 0/1 at Week 16?

a)

40.0% vs. 5.7%

b)

26.2% vs. 5.8%

c)

83.5% vs. 7.0%

d)

90.2% vs. 7.5%

57.

What percent of patients in both treatment groups

remained in the IMMhance study by Week 16?

a)

>=78%

b)

>=89%

c)

>=91%

d)

>=97%

58.

In IMMhance, a significant portion of the risankizumab group had clear (PASI 100, sPGA 0) or almost clear skin (PASI 90, sPGA 0/1) as early as ___, compared to placebo.

a)

Week 4

b)

Week 6

c)

Week 8

d)

Week 12

59.

Which of the following statements about IMMhance at

Week 16 is TRUE?

a)

The proportions of patients with treatmentemergent

adverse events were similar across

treatment groups throughout the study duration

b)

No serious infections were reported in the

risankizumab group

c)

No major adverse cardiovascular events were

reported in the risankizumab group

d)

All the statements are true

60.

In IMMhance, patients in the risankizumab arm were

rerandomized at Week 28 to risankizumab or placebo if

they met what criteria?

a)

Patients who were initially randomized to placebo

and achieved PASI 90

b)

Patients who were initially randomized to

risankizumab and achieved sPGA of 0/1

c)

Patients who were initially randomized to placebo

and achieved sPGA of 0/1

d)

Patients who were initially randomized to

risankizumab and did not achieve PASI 90

61.

In IMMhance, ___ of the risankizumab

group achieved PASI 90 and ___ achieved sPGA 0/1 at Week 52.

a)

65.8%; 68.4%

b)

81.5%; 82.1%

c)

61.3%; 52.4%

d)

87.4%; 85.6%

62.

In IMMhance, when was the last dose distributed?

a)

Week 104

b)

Week 100

c)

Week 88

d)

Week 94

63.

In IMMhance, of the 31patients with

latent tuberculosis who did not receive prophylaxis during the study, ____ developed active TB during the mean follow-up of 55 weeks on risankizumab.

a)

None

b)

20

c)

15

d)

31

64.

Which of the following statements about IMMhance is

TRUE?

a)

The last dose of risankizumab was given at Week

100

b)

67% of risankizumab patients achieved PASI 100 at

Week 100

c)

Continuous risankizumab treatment was superior

to randomized withdrawal

d)

sPGA 0/1 at Week 94 is a secondary endpoint

65.

In IMMhance, approximately what portion of the

risankizumab group achieved clear skin (PASI 100) at

Week 94?

a)

83%

b)

72%

c)

53%

d)

68%

66.

What percent of patients in the risankizumab group

achieved PASI 100 by Week 52?

a)

53%

b)

30%

c)

75%

d)

64%

67.

Which of the following are TRUE about the study design of

IMMvent?

a)

44-week study consisting of 2 parts

b)

Patients originally randomized to adalimumab were

switched to risankizumab or continued adalimumab

at Week 16 if they achieved PASI 50 to <PASI 90

c)

Enrolled adult patients with chronic plaque psoriasis

for >=6 months

d)

All the statements are true

68.

What percent of patients in the risankizumab group

remained in IMMvent by Week 16?

a)

Over 96%

b)

Over 85%

c)

Over 80%

d)

Over 74%

69.

In IMMvent, ___ of the risankizumab group and ___ of the adalimumab group achieved PASI 90 at Week 16.

a)

55.7%; 45.1%

b)

46.7%; 60.2%

c)

81.9%; 80.7%

d)

72.4%; 47.4%

70.

In IMMvent, what percent of the risankizumab and

adalimumab groups achieved sPGA 0/1 at Week 16?

a)

39.1% vs. 40.0%

b)

66.6% vs. 19.1%

c)

83.7% vs. 60.2%

d)

93.5% vs. 89.1%

71.

In IMMvent, ___ of the risankizumab group and ___ of the adalimumab group achieved clear skin, ie,

PASI 100, at Week 16.

a)

11.2%; 15.0%

b)

21.5%; 20.0%

c)

39.9%; 23.0%

d)

67.5%; 55.7%

72.

TRUE or FALSE: In IMMvent, the treatment-emergent

adverse event rates were similar across treatment groups

and in the 2 study phases.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

What was the most frequently reported treatment-emergentadverse event in IMMvent?

a)

Headache

b)

Diarrhea

c)

Dyspnea

d)

Viral upper respiratory tract infecti