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Biology: Fall Final Review K

Total questions: 58

Worksheet time: 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is a theory?

a)

A fact proved with concrete evidence

b)

A tested, well-supported highly reliable scientific explanation based on observations

c)

A fact based on an unreliable source

d)

A factual explanation that can never be changed or altered

2.

When would a theory need to be changed?

a)

A theory can never be changed

b)

when evidence is observed that is unreliable

c)

When new scientific data becomes available

3.

Which part of the DNA molecule is responsible for the coding of traits in ALL organisms?

a)

Phosphate Molecule

b)

Deoxyribose Sugar

c)

Ribose Sugar

d)

Nitrogen Bases (A-T; C-G)

4.

List the order in which your body uses biomolecules for energy

a)

Carbs, Lipids, Proteins

b)

Proteins, Lipids, Carbohydrates

c)

Lipids, Carbohydrates, Nucleic acids

d)

Nucleic Acids, Carbohydrates, Lipids

5.

If your body has 25 grams of Carbohydrates, how many calories will you burn before you begin to burn lipids?

a)

225 calories

b)

100 calories

c)

50 calories

d)

75 calories

6.

What is the function of carbohydrates in your body?

a)

store energy

b)

store genetic info

c)

quick energy

d)

build and repair

7.

What is the function of proteins in your body?

a)

Repair, build & transport

b)

quick energy

c)

stored energy

d)

store genetic info

8.

Which answer choice has the wrong elements being paired with the biomolecule?

a)

Carbohydrates: CHO

b)

Protein: CHONP

c)

Lipids: CHO

d)

Nucleic Acids: CHONP

9.

Which monomer is paired up incorrectly with its biomolecule?

a)

Carbohydrate: Monosaccharide

b)

Lipid: Fatty Acid and Glycerol

c)

Nucleic Acid: Amino Acid

d)

Protein: Amino Acid

10.

If there are 30 Adenine’s in a DNA molecule made of 100 base pairs, how many Guanine’s are in this same DNA molecule?

a)

20

b)

25

c)

30

d)

35

11.

Which kingdom is not in the Domain Eukaryota?

a)

Protista

b)

Plantae

c)

Eubacteria

d)

Fungi

12.

What are the 7 characteristics of life?

a)

Metabolism, Rescue, Response to Environment, Organized of cells, Universal Genetic Code, Growth/Development, Homeostasis

b)

Metabolism, Resolve issues, Response to Environment, Organized of cells, Universal Genetic Code, Growth/Development, Homeostasis

c)

Metabolism, Reproduction, Response to Environment, Organized of cells, Universal Genetic Code, Job, Homeostasis

d)

Metabolism, Reproduction, Response to Environment, Organized of cells, Universal Genetic Code, Growth/Development, Homeostasis

13.

What is natural selection?

a)

Changes in the environment

b)

Possession of inherited adaptations that maximize fitness.

c)

Differences in the genetic code

14.

What is fitness?

a)

Surviving in an environment

b)

Reproducing in an environment

c)

Having inherited traits that are not favored in the environment anymore.

d)

Combination of physical traits and behaviors (ability) that leads to survival and reproduction (babies)

15.

List the taxons of classification in order from most general to specific

a)

Domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species

b)

Domain, kingdom, phylum, order, class, family, genus, species

c)

Kingdom, domain, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species

d)

Domain, kingdom, order, phylum, class, family, genus, species

16.

Describe the Endosymbiotic Theory.

a)

Eukaryotes evolved from the symbiosis of several cells. Ribosome and chloroplasts may be descended from small aerobic and photosynthetic prokaryotes.

b)

Eukaryotes evolved from the symbiosis of several cells. Mitochondria and Ribosome may be descended from small aerobic and photosynthetic prokaryotes.

c)

Eukaryotes evolved from the symbiosis of several cells. Mitochondria and chloroplasts may be descended from small aerobic and photosynthetic prokaryotes.

d)

Eukaryotes evolved from the symbiosis of several cells. Mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulum may be descended from small aerobic and photosynthetic prokaryotes.

17.

What is an adaptation?

a)

Inherited characteristic that makes more fit for the environment

b)

Inherited characteristic that is always beneficial to every environment

c)

Inherited characteristic that makes less fit

18.

Name 2 sources of genetic variation

a)

Mutations & Somatic cells to offspring

b)

Mutations & Binary Fission

c)

Binary Fission & Gene Shuffling

d)

Gene shuffling (egg/sperm) and mutations

19.

What is reproductive isolation?

a)

When multiple species breed to increase variation

b)

When 2 species cannot interbreed

c)

When mountains, rivers or barriers help 2 species breed

d)

When 2 organisms mate during the same season

20.

What is a vestigial structure?

a)

An organ that is crucial for an organism to stay alive and mate

b)

An organ with no use (function)

c)

An organ that is failing in the human body due to a mutation

d)

An organ that is only seen in humans

21.

What biomolecule is inside the capsid of a virus?

a)

Protein

b)

Nucleic Acid

c)

Carbohydrate

d)

Lipid

22.

The scientific name of an organism consists of which two taxon?

a)

Domain & Kingdom

b)

Kingdom & Species

c)

Species & Order

d)

Genus & Species

23.

Prokaryotic, asexual reproduction is called ......

a)

Cell Cycle

b)

Meiosis

c)

Cytokinesis

d)

Binary Fission

24.

Eukaryotic, asexual reproduction is called .....

a)

Meiosis

b)

Cell Cycle

c)

Cytokinesis

d)

Crossing over

25.

Describe cell specialization

a)

Cells become efficient in one particular function and depend on other cells with different functions for the necessities of life

b)

Cells become less efficient in one particular function and depend on other cells with the same functions for the necessities of life

c)

Cells change their DNA in one nuclei and depend on other cells with different functions for the rest of the DNA

26.

What are the 3 phases of Interphase in order

a)

S, G1, G2

b)

G2, G1, S

c)

G1, S, G2

d)

G1, G2, S

27.

Which phase in Mitosis does chromatin condensing into chromosomes?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

28.

Which phase in Mitosis does chromosomes line up in the middle?

a)

Anaphase

b)

Telophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Prophase

29.

Which phase in Mitosis does chromosomes get pulled apart?

a)

Telophase

b)

Cytokinesis

c)

Prophase

d)

Anaphase

30.

Which phase in NOT in Mitosis

a)

Metaphase

b)

Cytokinesis

c)

Prophase

d)

Telophase

31.

In which phase of Interphase does the DNA replicate?

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

G2

d)

Cytokinesis

32.

What is the role of spindle fibers in the cell cycle?

a)

Assist with DNA replication

b)

Pull apart sister chromatids

c)

Break the cell into two cells

d)

Help form the cell plate

33.

What is the end result of DNA replication?

a)

A copy of DNA is made: One new strand & one original strand

b)

A copy of RNA is made: One new strand & one original strand

c)

A copy of DNA is made: Both are original strands

d)

A copy of DNA is made: Both are new strands

34.

What is binary fission?

a)

Replicates DNA and becomes a diploid cell

b)

Where DNA makes a copy of itself and it mutates

c)

When DNA replicates and the cell divides in half

d)

When the cell divides and then replicates its DNA

35.

What are sister chromatids held together by?

a)

Prophase

b)

Vacuoles

c)

Centrioles

d)

Centromere

36.

What is the DNA complementary strand of GATCCA that would be created during DNA replication?

a)

CTAGGU

b)

CUAGGU

c)

CTTGGT

d)

CTAGGT

37.

When DNA replicates, where does the DNA molecule separate?

a)

Between the bases after the hydrogen bond breaks

b)

Between the sugars after the hydrogen bond breaks

c)

Between the phosphates after the hydrogen bond breaks

d)

Between the RNA molecules

38.

If a somatic cell contains 20 chromosomes, how many chromosomes are in nuclei of each daughter after Cell cycle/ mitosis?

a)

10

b)

40

c)

20

d)

80

39.

If a somatic cell contains 20 chromosomes, how many chromosomes are in nuclei of each cell after meiosis?

a)

20

b)

40

c)

25

d)

10

40.

When does crossing over occur?

a)

prophase I

b)

prophase II

c)

metaphase

d)

telophase

41.

What does a punnett square show?

a)

The genotypes that each of the four offspring will all have no matter what

b)

Number of offspring produced

c)

All the alleles that contribute to a population

d)

Genes any offspring can inherit (probability)

42.

Which genotype is an example of an individual that is heterozygous?

a)

AA

b)

aa

c)

Aa

d)

OO

43.

Which genotype is an example of an individual that is homozygous dominant?

a)

Aa

b)

aa

c)

AA

d)

BA

44.

What are the building blocks (monomers) of proteins?

a)

monosaccharides

b)

amino acids

c)

nucleotides

d)

fatty acid + glycerol

45.

Which process in protein synthesis is described as a gene’s DNA sequence is copied into a mRNA sequence in the nucleus?

a)

translation

b)

transcription

c)

replication

d)

binary fission

46.

Which process in protein synthesis is described as mRNA binding to the ribosome, tRNA molecules match the correct anticodon to the mRNA strand and bring the appropriate amino acid with it. The amino acids are bonded together until a stop codon is reached. The protein is released.

a)

translation

b)

transcription

c)

replication

d)

binary fission

47.

What is a codon?

a)

3 nitrogenous bases of tRNA

b)

3 nitrogenous bases of rRNA

c)

3 nitrogenous bases of mRNA

d)

3 nitrogenous bases of DNA

48.

What is a anticodon?

a)

3 nitrogenous bases of tRNA

b)

3 nitrogenous bases of rRNA

c)

3 nitrogenous bases of mRNA

d)

3 nitrogenous bases of DNA

49.

What type of cell, somatic or gametes, passes on mutations to their offspring?

a)

somatic

b)

gamete

50.

Who will be affected by a liver cancer cell mutation? (Individual OR the offspring)?

a)

individual

b)

offspring

51.

DNA: AATCCGATTAAA

What is the mRNA that would pair up with this DNA strand?

a)

UUAAGGCAAUUU

b)

UUAGGGCUAUUU

c)

UUUAGGCAAUUU

d)

UUAGGCUAAUUU

52.

What mutation occured to the original DNA strand?

DNA: AATCCGATTAAA

Mutated DNA: AAATCCGATTAAA

a)

substitution

b)

insertion

c)

deletion

d)

translocation

53.

Fill in the blanks (in order) that lead to the expression of a trait (How are genes expressed?)

DNA- ____________- Amino Acids- ______________- Trait

a)

Protein-RNA

b)

Replication-protein

c)

Protein-monosaccharide

d)

RNA-Protein

54.

If you have 10 amino acids, how many codons were needed?

a)

5

b)

20

c)

30

d)

10

55.

Which of the following mutation is NOT a point mutation

a)

translocation

b)

insertion

c)

deletion

d)

substitution

56.

Which portion of the mRNA strand is cut out and discarded? (NOT part of the final mRNA strand)

a)

intron

b)

exon

57.

What is the name of the diagram that maps out all of an individual's chromosomes in order from 1-23?

a)

pedigree

b)

karyotype

58.

Which mutation is NOT a chromosomal mutation?

a)

inversion

b)

translocation

c)

duplication

d)

substitution