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Vet Science 1st Semester Test

Total questions: 127

Worksheet time: 4hrs 14mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What type of animals make up the largest % of private practice patients

a)

Exotic

b)

Service

c)

Companion

d)

Food

2.

How many vets are in private practice in United States

a)

31,00

b)

61,000

c)

71,000

d)

100,000

3.

Who is one of the first people to have contact with patient at vet clinic?

a)

Veterinarian

b)

Owner

c)

Vet Assistant

d)

All of the above

4.

Veterinarians in ____ hold positions as university professors and extension specialists teaching students studying veterinary medicine and delivering information to veterinarians and animal owners.

a)

Education positions

b)

Regulatory positions

c)

Service postions

d)

Research positions

5.

2 principal factors affecting shelf life are __ and __

a)

Temperature, container used

b)

Age, humidity

c)

Temperature, humidity

d)

Temperature, age

6.

An animal with an infectious disease may need to be separated or ___ from other animals to prevent the transmission of the infectious disease to other animals.

a)

Observed

b)

Isolated

c)

Disinfected

d)

Shielded

7.

Animal food that has an average moisture content of 68% to 78% is known as ____ and is very perishable because of the high moisture content.

a)

Wet food

b)

Dry food

c)

Semi-moist food

d)

Bulk food

8.

In controlling the spread of disease, __ is an important precaution which can include either hand washing or hand sanitizer.

a)

Clinical hygiene

b)

Personal quarantine

c)

Isolation

d)

Hand hygiene

9.

Animal food that has an average moisture content of 6% to 10% is known as ___ and is generally bulk packaged and is able to provide multiple servings with extended shelf life under optimal storage conditions.

a)

Dry food

b)

Semi-moist

c)

Wet food

d)

Canned food

10.

Once the patient visit is complete, the __ should be filed promptly so that the office area is kept neat and allow for quick easy access to records should the client call or return with additional questions.

a)

Prescriptions

b)

Payments

c)

Patient records

d)

Invoices

11.

A veterinarian employed by an animal feed company to evaluate the nutritional value and safety of animal feeds would be considered a(n) ___ veterinarian

a)

Education

b)

Public

c)

Industry

d)

Private

12.

Which of the following is NOT considered a food animal?

a)

Cattle

b)

Horses

c)

Poultry

d)

Swine

13.

Animal food that has an average moisture content of 23% to 38% is known as ___ and is generally individually packaged for single serving with a short shelf life once the primary package has been opened?

a)

Wet food

b)

Canned food

c)

Dry food

d)

Semi-moist food

14.

Brucellosis, tuberculosis and equine infectious anemia control are just a few of the programs in which ___ veterinarians participate.

a)

Service

b)

Regulatory

c)

Education

d)

Industry

15.

An example of a disease agent in dogs is __.

a)

Parvo virus

b)

Pasteurella bacteria

c)

Salmonella bacteria

16.

In terms of sanitation, the term ___ is a broader term referring to cleaning, disinfection, antisepsis and sterilization

a)

Quarantine

b)

Regulation

c)

Determination

d)

Decontamination

17.

How old should files be before they are moved

a)

6 months

b)

1 year

c)

2 years

d)

5 years

18.

A veterinarian can learn several important things such as attitude, character, general appearance, respiratory rate and any lameness from which of the following?

a)

Restraint of animal

b)

Taking pulse on the animal

c)

Observation of the animal

d)

Inspecting the animal's prior record

19.

Physiologically, pain is divided into two classifications: _________ and _________.

a)

Somatic; cellular

b)

Nurological; muscular

c)

Nociceptive; neuropathic

d)

Skeletal; muscular

20.

Temperature, humidity and sunlight are three examples of _________ that affect the agent and the host in veterinary practice.

a)

Chemical factors

b)

Physical conditions

c)

Environmental factors

d)

Biological hazards

21.

In veterinary practice, the __________ is the individual or population at risk of acquiring a disease

a)

Host

b)

Agent

c)

Factor

d)

Vector

22.

There are three levels of sanitation that can be achieved with equipment and facilities. Which of the following is NOT one of the levels of sanitation?

a)

Disinfection

b)

Quarantine

c)

Sterilization

d)

Decontamination

23.

In terms of sanitation, the term __________ refers to the destruction of pathogenic microorganisms on inanimate objects.

a)

Disinfection

b)

Sterilization

c)

Decontamination

d)

Quarantine

24.

In terms of sanitation, the term __________ refers to the removal or destruction of all living microorganisms.

a)

Disinfection

b)

Sterilization

c)

Decontamination

d)

Quarantine

25.

Disinfection methods can normally be grouped into one of three major categories. Which of the following is NOT one of those categories?

a)

Scientific

b)

Physical

c)

Chemical

d)

Biological

26.

Disinfection methods involving sunlight and high temperature are considered __ methods

a)

Contagious

b)

Physical

c)

Chemical

d)

Biological

27.

Disinfection methods involving solutions and gaseous elements are considered __ methods

a)

Contagious

b)

Physical

c)

Chemical

d)

Biological

28.

Of the 3 types of disinfection, __ methods have the broadest applicability and efficacy overall.

a)

Scientific

b)

Physical

c)

Chemical

d)

Biological

29.

Heat is an effective means of destroying many types of microorganisms. __ heat and __ heat are the 2 major categories used for disinfection.

a)

Wet, steam

b)

Dry, moist

c)

Pure, unpure

d)

Soft, stable

30.

When developing housing systems, the __________ must be considered which encompasses the conditions immediately surrounding the animal inside the cage or stall.

a)

Micro-enviornment

b)

Personal enivornment

c)

Macro-environment

d)

Social enviornment

31.

When developing housing systems, the __________ must be considered which includes those conditions that are ongoing outside the cage or stall

a)

Micro-enviornment

b)

Personal enivornment

c)

Macro-environment

d)

Social enviornment

32.

In animal housing, __________ supplies fresh oxygen in proper amounts, removes heat, and flushes out microbes as air circulates at prescribed flow rates.

a)

Lighting

b)

Bedding

c)

Doors

d)

Ventilation

33.

Veterinarians must be able to recognize __________ in animals, which is defined as an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage.

a)

Fear

b)

Stress

c)

Abuse

d)

Pain

34.

Which of the following is a physiological response to pain?

a)

Dilated pupils

b)

Reluctance to move

c)

Self-mutilation

d)

Vocalization

35.

Which of the following is NOT a cardiopulmonary change that can be a response to pain in an animal?

a)

Shallow breathing

b)

Increased respiratory rate

c)

Increased heart rate

d)

Restlessness

36.

When approaching a dog for the first time, what is the first thing you should do

a)

Stare it in the eyes

b)

Extend your palm down to allow dog to smell it

c)

Gently scratch dog behind the ears

d)

Run you hands on dog's body

37.

In terms of sanitation, the term _________ is a broader term referring to cleaning, disinfection, antisepsis and sterilization.

a)

Quarantine

b)

Regulation

c)

Determination

d)

Decontamination

38.

Disinfection methods involving metabolites of microorganisms are considered __ methods.

a)

Contagious

b)

Physical

c)

Chemcial

d)

Biological

39.

Which of the following is a behavioral sign that indicates pain?

a)

Elevated blood sugar

b)

Increased heart rate

c)

Vocalization

d)

Dilated pupils

40.

The physical exam of an animal should begin with __________ of the animal which allows the vet to learn several important things such as attitude, mental state, character and general appearance.

a)

Restraint

b)

Sedation

c)

Observation

d)

Quarantine

41.

What happens to the lower and upper incisors of a horse as it ages?

a)

They begin to change shape

b)

The angle between them becomes more acute

c)

The angle between them becomes more obtuse

d)

Horses don't have upper incisors

42.

What are the alternative forms of the same gene?

a)

Chromosomes

b)

Ribosomes

c)

Alleles

d)

Antibodies

43.

Which of the following is the correct pairing of the subunits that form the ladder structure of the double helix?

a)

Adenine and guanine

b)

Guanine and Thymine

c)

Cytosine and adenine

d)

Adenine and thymine

44.

What is the function of the cardiovascular system?

a)

Regulate body temperature

b)

Control the production of red blood cells

c)

Distribute hormones of all organs

d)

Filters toxins from the body

45.

Which breed of swine is known for its mothering abilities?

a)

Poland china

b)

Berkshire

c)

Chester White

d)

American Landrace

46.

Which of the following is not major dairy cattle breed in the US?

a)

Aryshire

b)

Beefmaster

c)

Guernsey

d)

Jersey

47.

Which is a way to cool off a dog

a)

Drinking ice cold water

b)

Rubbing alcohol on its paws

c)

Giving a cool sponge bath

d)

Placing it in a cool room

48.

What shape does the occlusal surface of horses not change into?

a)

Round

b)

Rectangular

c)

Triangular

d)

Biangular

49.

A veterinarian that specializes in cardiology would primarily work with animals having issues with what body system?

a)

Circulatory sytem

b)

Muscular system

c)

Skeletal system

d)

Reproductive sytem

50.

The study of the structure, or morphology, of the animal body is known as ___.

a)

Macroscopology

b)

Anatomy

c)

Development anatomy

d)

Genetics

51.

Another term for developmental anatomy is ___ , which is the study of the formation of the part of the body.

a)

Embryology

b)

Physiology

c)

macroscopoly

d)

Biochemistry

52.

The ___ system includes the skin and several modified skin structures and provides the first line of defense against harmful agents and also helps regulate body temperatures.

a)

Musculoskeltal

b)

Cardiovascular

c)

Integumentary

d)

Lympatic

53.

The skin consists of 3 layers of tissue, the epidermis, dermis and the ___.

a)

Hypodermis

b)

Paradermis

c)

Hyperdermis

d)

Dermic-layer

54.

All the bones and muscles of the body comprise the ___ system.

a)

Lymphatic

b)

Integumentary

c)

Cardiovascular

d)

Musculoskeletal

55.

In the musculoskeletal system, ___ connect bone to bone.

a)

Bone-support

b)

ligaments

c)

muscle-supports

d)

tendons

56.

In the musculoskeletal system, ___ muscle is also engaged in involuntary movements and is located on the heart wall to form the rhythmical patterns of the heartbeat.

a)

Smooth

b)

Skeletal

c)

Cardiac

d)

Rough

57.

The function of ___ include skeletal support for the body, protective enclosure such as the skull for the brain, calcium regulation through hormones, and hemopoiesis, which is blood cell formation in the body.

a)

Muscles

b)

Bones

c)

Skin

d)

Tendons

58.

The ___ system consists of the heart and blood vessels

a)

Lymphatic

b)

Musculoskeletal

c)

Integumentary

d)

Cardiovascular

59.

In the cardiovascular system, __ are very small blood vessels that permit exchange of nutrients and waste products between blood and tissues

a)

Tendons

b)

Capillaries

c)

Arteries

d)

Ligaments

60.

The ___ system includes all of the organs involved in the prehension, digestion, absorption of food and elimination of solid waste.

a)

Circulatory

b)

Integumentary

c)

Lympatic

d)

Digestion

61.

Horses, dogs, cats, swine and humans are ___, meaning they have single chambered stomachs

a)

Monogastric

b)

Ruminant

c)

Monodigestive

d)

Mono-reticulated

62.

The four chambers to the stomach of a ruminant are the rumen, the ___, the omasum and the abomasum.

a)

Spleen

b)

Pancreas

c)

Reticulum

d)

Palate

63.

The primary function of the organs of the __ system is to provide for the exchange of gases (oxygen and carbon dioxide).

a)

Lymphatic

b)

Cardiovascular

c)

Respiratory

d)

Integumentary

64.

The __ system consists of the organs in both sexes which work together for the purpose of production of offspring.

a)

Musculoskeletal

b)

Reproductive

c)

Integumentary

d)

Respiratory

65.

The ___ system consists of the pituitary gland, thyroid gland, parathyroid glands, adrenal glands and portions of the pancreas, gonads, placenta, and gastrointestinal tract.

a)

Integumentary

b)

Endocrine

c)

Reproductive

d)

Circulatory

66.

The __ system consists of the brain, spinal cord, somatic and automatic nerves and controls the function of movement of organs, muscles and sensory organs

a)

Endocrine

b)

Integumentary

c)

Nervous

d)

Neurotic

67.

The most common method of obtaining a respiration rate is to ___.

a)

Use a glass thermometer

b)

Visually watch an animal breathe

c)

use an ophthalmoscope

d)

Use an otoscope

68.

Genes carried on threads of living matter called ___. They are used to store information that tells the cell how to build proteins.

a)

Chromosomes

b)

Alleles

c)

Genomes

d)

Chains

69.

In genetics, the two strands of DNA in the double helix are made up of four nucleotide bases called adenine, thymine, ___ and guanine.

a)

Polynine

b)

Polymer

c)

Thamine

d)

Cytosine

70.

The stages of meiosis include: prophase, ___, anaphase and telophase.

a)

Metaphase

b)

Taraphase

c)

Telephase

d)

Megaphase

71.

In dogs, Cocker Spaniels, English Setters, Labrador Retrievers and Golden Retrievers would fit in the __ category

a)

Hounds

b)

Herding dogs

c)

Sporting dogs

d)

Working dogs

72.

In dogs, Boxers, Mastiffs, Siberian Huskeys and Great Pyrenees would fit in the __________ category.

a)

Hounds

b)

Herding dogs

c)

Non-sporting dogs

d)

Working dogs

73.

In dogs, Chihuahuas, Maltese, Pekingese and Pugs would fit in the __________ category.

a)

Working dogs

b)

Toys

c)

Non-sporting dogs

d)

hounds

74.

Which of the following is an example of a shorthaired cat?

a)

Russian blue

b)

Himalayan

c)

Ragdoll

d)

Maine coon

75.

Which of the following is a Dairy breed of cattle?

a)

Charolais

b)

Polled Hereford

c)

Jersey

d)

Chianina

76.

Which of the following is a fine wool breed of sheep?

a)

Rambouillet

b)

Dorset

c)

Hampshire

d)

Southdown

77.

Most of the U.S. swine production is from __________ boars and sows.

a)

Hampshire

b)

Duroc

c)

Landrace

d)

Crossbred

78.

Which of the following is a light horse breed?

a)

Arabian

b)

Shetland

c)

Welsh

d)

Percheron

79.

Which of the following is a draft horse breed?

a)

Belgain

b)

Quarter Horse

c)

Welsh

d)

American Paint

80.

The genetic make-up for a single trait of an individual is called its ___.

a)

Genotype

b)

Phenotype

c)

Dominant trait

d)

Recessive trait

81.

If the pair of genes for a trait are different it is known as

a)

Dominant

b)

Recessive

c)

Homozygous

d)

Heterozygous

82.

Cattle, sheep and goats are ___ and have 4 distinct chambers to their stomachs.

a)

Monogastric

b)

Ruminants

c)

Multidigestive

d)

Multi-reticulated

83.

In the ruminant stomach, the __is the location of true, enzymatic digestion.

a)

Rumen

b)

Reticulum

c)

Omasum

d)

Abomasum

84.

One of the first clinical symptoms of disease or illness is __.

a)

Increased heart rate

b)

Increased activity

c)

Elevated pulse

d)

Elevated body temperature

85.

Which of the following is a beef breed of cattle?

a)

Jersey

b)

Charolais

c)

Holstein

d)

Ayrshire

86.

The study of anatomical structures with the naked eye, often by dissection is known as ___.

a)

Macroscopic anatomy

b)

Genetics

c)

Phenotyping

d)

Physiology

87.

When evaluating teeth in an animal, the eruption date is the time that a tooth normally __.

a)

Falls out

b)

Loosens

c)

Breaks the gum line

d)

Bleeds the gums

88.

In the musculoskeletal system, __ form the junction between 2 or more bones.

a)

Bone supports

b)

Ligaments

c)

Joints

d)

Tendons

89.

The _ system is involved in the production, transport, temporary storage and elimination of urine.

a)

Integumentary

b)

Reproductive

c)

Urinary

d)

Ciculatory

90.

Which of the following is an example of a longhaired cat?

a)

Maine Coon

b)

Siamese

c)

American shorthair

d)

Russian Blue

91.

Meiosis in female animals is known as ___, and produces eggs.

a)

Oogenesis

b)

Zygotogenesis

c)

Meiotosis

d)

Spermatogenesis

92.

What is the following is a function of the integumentary system?

a)

Regulate body temperature

b)

Circulate blood through body

c)

Elimination of solid waste

d)

Connect bones to other bones

93.

If a vet does not the exact age of animal, the most widely employed method is to examine the animal’s ___.

a)

Hooves

b)

Condition

c)

Teeth

d)

Hair coat

94.

When measuring an animal’s pulse rate, all pulse/heart rates are based on how many beats per ____.

a)

Second

b)

Half minute

c)

Minute

d)

Hour

95.

After an injury or a surgical procedure, dogs need to be restrained from licking or chewing a wound or bandage using a(n) __________ .

a)

French collar

b)

Elizabethan collar

c)

Muzzle

d)

Gauze muzzle

96.

The best method for carrying a cat a short distance is grasping it by __________ with your left hand.

a)

The front legs

b)

The hind legs and rear

c)

The scruff of the neck

d)

The front legs and head

97.

Horse have __________ vision, which means that each eye can move independently of the other and send the brain different pictures.

a)

Monocular

b)

Binocular

c)

Uniocular

d)

Separated

98.

When working with calves that are smaller than cows and a calf squeeze chute is not available, handlers use a technique of restraint called _________, which allows an average person to restrain calves up to 300 lb.

a)

Squeezing

b)

Dropping

c)

Flanking

d)

Ranking

99.

Using __________ prevents the horse from lifting their hind legs and kicking out.

a)

Hobbles

b)

Harnesses

c)

Twitches

d)

Chains

100.

As a veterinarian, one of the first behavior signals that should be evaluated is ___.

a)

Temperature

b)

Heart rate

c)

Body language

d)

Age

101.

In genetics, the two strands of DNA in the double helix are made up of four nucleotide bases called adenine, thymine, ___ and guanine.

a)

Polynine

b)

Polymer

c)

Thamine

d)

Cytosine

102.

One of the first clinical symptoms of disease or illness is __.

a)

Increased heart rate

b)

Increased activity

c)

Elevated pulse

d)

Elevated body temperature

103.

In the musculoskeletal system, ___ muscle is also engaged in involuntary movements and located on the heart wall to form the rhythmical patterns of the heartbeat.

a)

Smooth

b)

Rough

c)

Skeletal

d)

Cardiac

104.

Some horses need restraint in the form of distraction rather than physical confinement. A(n) __________ is often used to distract the horse while the veterinarian works on them

a)

Hobble

b)

Halter

c)

Twitch

d)

Cast

105.

The nose twitch is a chain or rope loop that is tightened around the horse’s __________, causing some discomfort but also distracting him from more stressful things happening.

a)

Mane

b)

Nostrils

c)

Neck

d)

Top Lip

106.

A thorough physical exam requires an accurate __________ which is important in assessing the body condition of the animal and is also required to determine the proper dose of any prescribed medications.

a)

Weight

b)

Heart rate

c)

Sight test

d)

Hearing test

107.

When examining a small animal, a(n) __________ is useful for evaluating the condition of the ear canal and tympanic membrane (ear drum) which allows clear observation of wax, mites, ticks, or foreign objects.

a)

Orthoscope

b)

Auroscope

c)

Otoscope

d)

Ambioscope

108.

When examining a small animal, a(n) __________ is used to examine the eyes, which is necessary for viewing the internal structures of the eye, such as the iris, lens and optic disc.

a)

Orthoscope

b)

Ophthalmoscope

c)

Auroscope

d)

Ambioscope

109.

Which tool is used by the veterinarian to evaluate the cardiovascular and respiratory systems?

a)

Otoscope

b)

Ophthalmoscope

c)

Cardioscope

d)

Stethoscope

110.

In addition to the cardiovascular and respiratory systems, a stethoscope can be used to evaluate the ___ system as well.

a)

Digestive

b)

Endocrine

c)

Nervous

d)

Skeletal

111.

In handling animals, __ restraint is probably the most common form of restraint which involves manual force and artificial devices such as fencing, ropes, chutes or cages.

a)

Chemical

b)

Physical

c)

Personal

d)

Biological

112.

The type of physical restraint primarily used in cattle is a __

a)

Rope

b)

Cage

c)

Chute

d)

Anesthetic

113.

The best angle to approach a horse is at __ degrees so they can see you clearly.

a)

30

b)

45

c)

60

d)

90

114.

When restraining hogs, the ___ is often used to catch and hold older, heavier hogs which is made up of a cable or rope noose that runs through a rigid pipe.

a)

Hog trap

b)

Hog snare

c)

Hog rope

d)

Hog hobbles

115.

A veterinarian will examine the oral cavity of an animal to determine the condition of the teeth. The gums will be checked for color and gingivitis. What color should the gums be on a normal animal?

a)

Pale blue

b)

Pink

c)

Dark red

d)

White

116.

What is only a requirement for cats?

a)

Small amounts of a wide variety of minerals in their diets

b)

The essential fatty acids, linoleic and gamma linoleic acids, in their diet

c)

A continuous high protein diet

d)

A source of vitamin C in their diet

117.

In nutrition, animal digestion breaks down protein to form __ for use by animals for normal body functions.

a)

Genomes

b)

Minerals

c)

Vitamins

d)

Amino acids

118.

Cattle and horses can usually get enough __ from roughages, such as pasture grasses and hay, if they are of good quality.

a)

Salt

b)

Calcium

c)

Water

d)

Energy

119.

Cats require the amino acid ___ in their diets and can develop a deficiency if they only eat dog food for extended periods causing blindness and a weakening of the heart muscle.

a)

Taurine

b)

Guanine

c)

Cytosine

d)

Tyrosine

120.

The two classes of vitamins are __ soluble and __ soluble.

a)

Plant, animal

b)

Liquid, solid

c)

Bone, tissue

d)

Fat, water

121.

“Flash” is a 14-year-old standardbred gelding. He shares a pasture with three other horses. He is the largest of the horses, measuring 16 hands. His registered name is “Flash of Lightning,” and he did harness race under that name in his younger days. He is now a pleasure horse for his current owner, Frank Wells. He was vaccinated two months ago for tetanus, West Nile virus, eastern equine encephalitis, and western equine encephalitis. He was also dewormed at that time. His signalment would include all of the following information except which one?

a)

Age: 14 years

b)

Name: Flash of Lightning- Nickname: "Flash"

c)

Equine: Standardbred

d)

Size: 16 hands

122.

“Tess,” a female barn cat, is pregnant with her fifth litter. She is a calico cat and produces the cutest kittens. She stopped eating three days ago and has just been lying in a pile of straw in the corner of the barn. Today, there seems to be a Post-test V.1.1: Post-test discharge from her back end, and it has an odor to it. She seemed to deliver her previous kittens with no problems. All of the following would be critical information to be obtained in the history except which of the following?

a)

No appetite

b)

Normally produces very cute kittens

c)

Inactive

d)

Discharge from her back end

123.

Mrs. Doolittle likes to spoil her pets. She has a beagle named Suzy, who has been on the receiving end of Mrs. Doolittle's generosity. Most of the extra attention that Suzy has received has been in the form of extra food and treats. The body condition score of Suzy would most likely be?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

5

d)

1

124.

A complete respiratory cycle includes which of the following?

a)

Auscultation and exhalation

b)

Inhalation and exhalation

c)

Inhalation and distribution

d)

Pulse rate and respiratory rate

125.

You are called out to Lazy-B Ranch to examine a Hereford bull. As you gaze over the fence at the bull, you note he is very lame on his front right leg. In which section of your problem oriented medical record would you record this information?

a)

Subjective

b)

Objective

c)

Assessment

d)

Plan

126.

After moving the bull into a confined pen, you still find that he is highly resistant to a thorough examination. A decision is made to give him an injection of tranquilizer. In which section of your problem-oriented medical record would you record the dose and drug given to this bull?

a)

Subjective

b)

Objective

c)

Assessment

d)

Plan

127.

After the tranquilizer takes effect, the examination goes much more smoothly. As you work your way in examination down the right front leg of the bull, you note some marked swelling of the coronary band above the medial claw of that leg. You palpate the swelling and find it is fluctuant and warm to the touch. In which section of your problem-oriented medical record would you record this information?

a)

Subjective

b)

Objective

c)

Assessment

d)

Plan