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Fall Semester Review

Total questions: 78

Worksheet time: 1hrs 24mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Environmental science is the study of the interaction of humans with the environment. Which of these would NOT be included as part of the environment?

a)

What the soil is made of.

b)

Animals and plants in the region and surrounding areas

c)

The average temperature, wind, precipitation, and other climate factors

d)

All of these would be considered part of the environment.

2.

Environmental science is an interdisciplinary field of study. This means that…

a)

It is limited to only one branch of science; ecology

b)

Each environmental issue is specific to only one type of science

c)

Multiple branches of science only (biology, chemistry, etc) are covered

d)

Many science and non-science fields of study, such as economics and politics, are included

3.

Pollution that is ______ will not break down over time. A good example would be __________________.

a)

Biodegradable / A Styrofoam box

b)

Biodegradable / A banana peel

c)

Nonbiodegradable / An aluminum can

d)

Nonbiodegradable / Wood products

4.

Select the most accurate and complete definition of biodiversity

a)

The number of different species within an ecosystem

b)

The total number of animals within an ecosystem

c)

The sum total of every organism in an ecosystem

d)

The amount of a single species of organism within an ecosystem. (e.g. 150 cheetahs)

5.

The Hetch Hetchy dam construction was one of the first debates between the anthropocentrist and ecocentrist environmental philosophies. What decision was eventually made regarding the dam?

a)

A dam was built in another location that was not a National Park.

b)

The dam was built in the Hetch Hetchy valley

c)

A dam was constructed, then later removed

d)

No dam was constructed; San Francisco had to find another source of fresh water

6.

The modern environmentalism movement was sparked in part by the book Silent Spring, which studied the effects of DDT on bird populations. This movement was the first time the public began expressing concerns over which major environmental problem?

a)

Lack of open space.

b)

Loss of biodiversity

c)

Pollution

d)

Unequal distribution of resources between developed and developing countries

7.

Which example best illustrates the point behind the Tragedy of the Commons essay?

a)

Various nations overfishing in international waters, leading to a collapse of fish stocks

b)

A property owner clear-cutting all of the trees on his land to sell for timber

c)

A farmer that overplants his corn one year, leading to a poor harvest

d)

One country declaring war on another

8.

According to the Law of Supply and Demand, if the amount of oil extracted worldwide were to increase and the demand stayed the same, the price of oil should _____________.

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Remain stable

d)

Fluctuate randomly

9.

Which of the following statements is true regarding primary succession?

a)

The soil is already present, so pioneer species grow very quickly

b)

Happens after a disturbance to an ecosystem, such as a forest fire or flood

c)

A climax community can be reached in only 150-200 years

d)

This type of succession starts on new land, so it takes much longer to occur

10.

Which type of forest would you expect to see trees turning changing color from green to red, orange, and yellow during the fall?

a)

Deciduous Forest

b)

Tropical Rain Forest

c)

Boreal Forest

d)

This happens in all these forests

11.

Which layer would have shorter plants with wider leaves (like ferms) to gather the 5-10% of sunlight that hasn’t already been captured?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

12.

Which layer(s) would you expect to see a greater population of decomposers?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

13.

Why are there so few trees in prairies, or temperate grasslands?

a)

There is not as much precipitation as in the forest biomes

b)

The shifts in temperature from winter to summer are greater than in forest biomes

c)

Prairies are subject to periodic fires. Trees cannot regenerate from fires like grasses can.

d)

All of the above

14.

What is the advantage of trees having needle-shaped leaves?

a)

The leaves are more likely to be eaten by herbivores

b)

The leaves lose water at a greater rate

c)

Needle-shaped leaves do not need to be dropped every winter like broad leaves

d)

Needle-shaped leaves have a greater surface or photosynthesis than broad, flat leaves

15.

What type of forests has a majority of trees with leaves that look like this?

a)

Tropical rain forests

b)

Boreal forests. (Taiga)

c)

Deciduous forests

d)

All of the above

16.

Which would be classified as a polar desert?

a)

The Atacama, 25°S, 65°W

b)

The McMurdo Dry Valleys, 78°S, 162°E

c)

The Sahara, 23°N, 12°E

d)

The Great Sandy Desert, 20°S, 125°E

17.

Based on its geographic coordinates, which of these would be classified as a coastal desert?

a)

The Atacama, 25°S, 68°W

b)

The McMurdo Dry Valleys, 78°S, 162°E

c)

The Sahara, 23°N, 12°E

d)

The Great Sandy Desert, 20°S, 125°

18.

Sustainability is defined as…

a)

Consuming at a rate to satisfy the current generation

b)

Rapidly increasing resource consumption over time

c)

Maintaining a rate of resource consumption that will allow the population to survive indefinitely

d)

Not consuming any resources at all

19.

Which of these statements best describes a hypothesis, compared to a theory?

a)

Broad explanation that covers a lot of ground

b)

Based on many experiments and a high amount of data

c)

A specific prediction that can be tested with a single experiment.

d)

An example would be evolution or plate tectonics

20.

Which of the following is true about scientific theories?

a)

They are permanent. Once established, they are never changed or altered

b)

They are considered unreliable and not accepted by most scientists

c)

They are a specific, testable prediction made before an experiment begins

d)

a. They are broad explanations based on large amounts of data and research

21.

A new explanation, idea, or claim would probably be considered pseudoscience if…

a)

The results or data claimed were not reproducible

b)

The scientific method was followed exactly

c)

Multiple experiments conducted by many scientists produced similar results

d)

The results have been shared and discussed by other scientists

22.

An experiment is conducted. The researchers perform 3 trials, average the data, then write a conclusion based on their results. A second group of scientists repeats this experiment, however, they conduct 10 trials. Which is likely to have more accurate results?

a)

The first group that conducted 3 trials

b)

The second group that conducted 10 trials

c)

Both are equally accurate

23.

What is the primary reason for scientists across the world working as a community rather than individually?

a)

So that each scientist can work on a separate theory

b)

Sharing equipment costs

c)

Experimental results must be repeatable; Peer review checks for bias and accuracy

d)

To ensure different people are not repeating the same experiment

24.

Everything in the universe is composed of energy and matter. Which one of these examples does not represent matter?

a)

An atom of gold

b)

A lake filled with water

c)

The air in the atmosphere

d)

Heat from the sun

25.

The nucleus of the atom contains…

a)

Protons only

b)

Protons and neutrons

c)

Neutrons only

d)

Electrons, protons, and neutrons

26.

Which of these is not an example of a molecule

a)

Oxygen gas (O2)

b)

Water (H2O)

c)

Carbon (C)

d)

Sulfur Dioxide (SO2)

27.

Which of these makes up the greatest part of air?

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Oxygen

c)

Water

d)

Carbon dioxide

28.

Joseph Priestley performed an experiment where a candle was lit and placed under a sealed jar. The candle eventually went out. What did he discover?

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Oxygen

c)

Water

d)

Carbon Dioxide

29.

A rollercoaster full of people stopped at the top of a large hill has a lot of _________________.

a)

Potential Energy

b)

Kinetic Energy

c)

Both kinetic and potential energy

d)

None of the above; it has no energy

30.

Which of these wavelengths of energy is used by plants to perform photosynthesis?

a)

a. Ultraviolet

b)

a. Infrared

c)

a. Visible – Blue

d)

a. Visible – Green

31.

Which of these organisms is capable of the following reaction:

6 H2O + 6 CO2 + solar energy----->C6H12O6 + 6 O2

a)

Decomposing fungi

b)

Humans

c)

Fish

d)

Grass

32.

What is the explanation for the presence of a rainforest in the Northwest, so far away from the equator?

a)

The forest is on the windward side of the Olympic and Rocky Mountains.

b)

The forest is in the leeward side of the Olympic and Rocky Mountains

c)

The forest has coastal effects of being near the Pacific Ocean

d)

Both A and C are correct

33.

Which statement describes the relationship between altitude and temperature?

a)

As altitude increases, temperature increases.

b)

As altitude increases, temperature decreases.

c)

There is no relationship between latitude and altitude

34.

Which statement describes the relationship between latitude and temperature?

a)

As latitude increases, temperature increases

b)

As latitude increases, temperature decreases

c)

There is no relationship between latitude and temperature

35.

What are the two most significant abiotic factors that influence what type of biome is found in a geographic area? Choose two.

a)

Wind speed

b)

Humidity level

c)

Average temperature

d)

Average precipitation

36.

What is the carrying capacity of this ecosystem?

a)

0.5 million

b)

0.9 million

c)

1.6 million

d)

2.0 million

37.

What year does this population first begin to experience an overshoot?

a)

1825

b)

1845

c)

1860

d)

1875

38.

Which of these would be a density-dependent growth limiting factor that a population might experience as it approaches the carrying capacity of an ecosystem?

a)

Climate change

b)

A natural disaster, such as a hurricane

c)

Greater rates of disease

d)

Populations don’t usually experience limiting factors like this

39.

Which pattern of population growth exceeds the carrying capacity, eventually causing a population crash?

a)

Logistic growth

b)

Exponential growth

c)

Linear growth

d)

None of the above

40.

Which pattern of population growth takes the shape of an “S”, and slows as it reaches the carrying capacity?

a)

Logistic growth

b)

Exponential growth

c)

Linear growth

d)

None of the above

41.

Given the classification information above, what is the correctly formatted scientific name of the cougar

a)

Puma Concolor

b)

felinae concolor

c)

Puma concolor

d)

Felidae concolor

42.

Only about a fifth of the species on Earth have been identified. Most of the species that have not yet been identified are probably…

a)

Insects

b)

Mammals

c)

Birds

d)

Reptiles or Amphibians

43.

Wolves and dogs are very closely related animals. Wolves have certain behaviors and physical adaptations as a result of ___________________. Dogs have different behaviors and physical features due to _____________________.

a)

Natural selection, artificial selection

b)

Artificial selection, natural selection

c)

Divergent speciation, convergent speciation

d)

Convergent speciation, divergent speciation

44.

Flying squirrels and sugar gliders have similar body designs – they both have flaps of skin under their arms and legs to help them glide slowly between trees. However, they live on different continents and are not that closely related. What is this an example of?

a)

Divergent speciation

b)

Convergent speciation

c)

Competition

d)

None of the above

45.

What area on this graph would have the maximum size population?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

46.

Which area is experiencing a zone of physiologic stress, resulting in a decreased population due to too little of the critical factor?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

47.

Imagine you have a seed. That seed is planted and grows into a huge tree weighing thousands of pounds. Where did most of the mass of that adult tree come from?

a)

Hydrogen and oxygen from water

b)

Carbon and oxygen from air

c)

Sunlight

d)

Potassium, phosphorus, and nitrogen from the soil

48.

Complete the following statement: “Energy _______________, while matter _____________ through the environment.”

a)

Flows, flows.

b)

Flows, cycles

c)

Cycles, flows.

d)

Cycles, cycles

49.

The Earth is a closed system to…

a)

Water

b)

Carbon

c)

Nitrogen

d)

All of the above

50.

Assume that an ecosystem has 5,000 kcal worth of producers growing it in at any given time. Approximately how many calories would be available to a primary consumer, such as a caterpillar?

a)

5,000 kcal

b)

500 kcal

c)

50 kcal

d)

5 kcal

51.

Which type of ecosystem would you expect to have the smallest and simplest web?

a)

A harsh, dry desert

b)

A lush tropical rainforest

c)

A dense broadleaf forest

d)

A coral reef.

52.

Which animal represents a secondary consumer?

a)

Trees

b)

Grasshopper

c)

Bird

d)

Snake

53.

If you did a complete population count of all the animals and plants in this ecosystem, what would you expect to see the least of?

a)

Trees

b)

Birds

c)

Snakes

d)

Grasshoppers

54.

Most cars on the road today are 25-30% efficient. Someone claims to have invented a car that can take the potential energy within gasoline and convert 100% of it into kinetic motion without waste. What law of thermodynamics does this violate?

a)

First Law: Energy cannot be created or destroyed, it only changes form

b)

Second Law: During each transformation, some energy is given off in the form of heat

c)

Both laws are violated

d)

Neither law is violated

55.

If you were going to set up an aquarium to grow the greatest amount of plankton and algae possible, which of these conditions would be a good idea?

a)

Keeping the water as cold as possible (without freezing it)

b)

Covering the aquarium so sunlight cannot get in.

c)

Providing extra nutrients like nitrogen and phosphorous in the water.

d)

You would want to do all of these to achieve maximum plankton growth.

56.

Which ecosystem has no photosynthesis, with organisms relying instead on decomposing matter called “marine snow”?

a)

Coastal Zone

b)

Benthic Zone

c)

Open Ocean

d)

Tidal Zone

57.

Which ecosystem is sometimes referred to as a “marine desert,” due to its lack of life?

a)

Coastal Zone

b)

Benthic Zone

c)

Open Ocean

d)

Tidal Zone

58.

This is the most productive ecosystem in the ocean.  It is formed as the result of a tiny animal and algae living in a mutualistic relationship.

a)

Mudflat

b)

Sandy Shore

c)

Rocky Shore

d)

Coral Reef

59.

The change in sea level from high to low tide is the result of…

a)

The gravitational effects of the sun.

b)

The gravitational effects of both the moon and the sun.

c)

Wind

d)

Small earthquakes on the ocean floor.

60.

Benefits of wetlands include…

a)

Increased levels of biodiversity.

b)

Flood control; absorbing excess water.

c)

Naturally removing sediment and pollution.

d)

All of the above

61.

What are the two most important abiotic factors in determining the productivity, or amount of life in different areas of the ocean?  Choose two.

a)

Amount of sunlight

b)

Wind and wave speed

c)

Nutrient levels in the water

d)

Amount of dissolved oxygen in the water

62.

Of the three types of inland freshwater wetlands, which one would you expect to find no trees, and a normal pH level?

a)

Swamp

b)

Marsh

c)

Bog

d)

All of the above

63.

If you wanted to sample for phytoplankton and zooplankton, which section of the river would you expect to find the most?

a)

Source

b)

Transition Zone

c)

Mouth/Delta

d)

Course

64.

Which sample came from the source of the river? 

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

65.

Which sample came from the mouth or the delta

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

66.

Driving home, you pass through a warmer area with a lot of farm land.  You notice a pond near the road that is thick with coating of green algae.  This is a ______________ pond.

a)

Oligotrophic

b)

Eutrophic

c)

Mesotrophic

67.

Of the three zones in the pond shown, which would you expect to see little or no photosynthesis, and a greater population of decomposers? 

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

68.

Which zone in the pond would you expect the greatest amount of biological diversity

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

69.

Classify each of the following organisms as: plankton (A), nekton (B), benthos (C), or decomposers (D).

Diatoms, a type of green algae. 

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

70.

Classify each of the following organisms as: plankton (A), nekton (B), benthos (C), or decomposers (D).

Bacteria

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

71.

Classify each of the following organisms as: plankton (A), nekton (B), benthos (C), or decomposers (D).

Clams

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

72.

Classify each of the following organisms as: plankton (A), nekton (B), benthos (C), or decomposers (D).

Blue Fin Tuna

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

73.

What University is Coach Savoy's favorite?

a)

University of Texas

b)

Texas A&M University

c)

University of North Carolina

d)

Sam Houston State University

74.

Match the abiotic factors in ecosystems with the correct definition:

Tends to be higher in cold waters near the source of a river.

a)

Dissolved Oxygen

b)

Salinity

c)

Turbidity

d)

Nutrients

75.

Match the definition in ecosystems with the correct abiotic factor:

Cloudiness of the water.

a)

Dissolved Oxygen

b)

Salinity

c)

Turbidity

d)

Nutrient Levels

76.

Match the definition in ecosystems with the correct abiotic factor:

Dissolve in water from land.  Examples are nitrates and phosphates.

a)

Dissolved Oxygen

b)

Salinity

c)

Turbidity

d)

Nutrients

77.

Match the definition in ecosystems with the correct abiotic factor:

Dissolved salt in the water.

a)

Dissolved Oxygen

b)

Salinity

c)

Turbidity

d)

Nutrients

78.

Match the definition in ecosystems with the correct abiotic factor:

Amount of heat energy in the water. 

a)

Dissolved Oxygen

b)

Turbidity

c)

Salinity

d)

Temperature