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Anatomy - Semester 1 Final Review

Total questions: 180

Worksheet time: 2hrs 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Anatomy is the study of ___ while physiology is the study if ____
a)
functions, cells
b)
cells, functions
c)
function, structure
d)
structure, function 
2.
What is the correct order of organization
a)
cells->tissue->organs->organ systems-> organism
b)
tissue->cells->organs->organ systems-> organism
c)
organs->organ systems-> organism->cells->tissue
d)
cells->tissue->organs->organism->organ system
3.
Which cavity is labeled C
a)
Cranial
b)
Spinal
c)
Thoracic
d)
Abdominal
4.
Inferior
a)
Above
b)
Below
c)
Toward Surface
d)
Toward Core
5.
What is the name of the dome shaped muscle located inferior to  the thoracic cavity?
a)
Abdominals
b)
Diaphragm
c)
Bicep
Pectrorals
d)
Hamstrings
6.
Which of the following correctly describes the mental region?
a)
chin
b)
mouth
c)
eye
d)
knee
7.
The head is ______ to the chest.
a)
superior
b)
dorsal
c)
inferior
d)
ventral
8.
Which of the following correctly describes the pedal region?
a)
foot
b)
inferior side of the foot
c)
instep of foot
d)
back of knee
9.
Which of the following correctly describes the antebrachial region?
a)
forearm
b)
leg
c)
back
d)
reproductive organs
10.
Which of the following correctly describes the carpal region?
a)
elbow
b)
wrist
c)
abdomen
d)
neck
11.
Which of the following correctly describes the cephalic region?
a)
armpit
b)
upper arm
c)
cheek
d)
head
12.
The right shoulder is ______ to the sternum.
a)
medial
b)
proximal
c)
distal
d)
lateral
13.
The cranial cavity and the spinal (vertebral) cavity are both contained within the _______ cavity.
a)
dorsal
b)
ventral
c)
abdominal
d)
throacic
14.
Which of the following correctly describes the acromial region?
a)
forehead
b)
inferior, posterior region of the skull
c)
point of shoulder
d)
front of the elbow
15.
Away from the origin or trunk
a)
Deep
b)
Distal
c)
Proximal
d)
Posterior
16.
A plane that divides the body into superior and inferior halves. 
a)
sagittal
b)
midsagittal
c)
transverse
d)
frontal
17.
A plane that divides the body into anterior and posterior portions. 
a)
sagittal
b)
midsagittal
c)
transverse
d)
frontal / coronal
18.
What is this plane?
a)
sagittal
b)
transverse
c)
coronal / frontal
19.
What is the term used to refer to the front of the body?
a)
cranial
b)
anterior/ventral
c)
posterior/dorsal
d)
proximal
20.
Away from midline
a)
Lateral
b)
Distal
c)
Superior
d)
Transverse
21.
Which body cavity contains organs including the stomach, spleen, liver, gallbladder, and pancreas?
a)
abdominal
b)
pelvic
c)
thoracic
22.
In the anatomical position, the palms are facing-
a)
forward
b)
backward
23.
Toward the back; opposite of Anterior
a)
Superior
b)
Posterior
c)
Inferior
d)
Lateral
24.
Towards the Front. 
[The eyes are _______ to the brain].
a)
Inferior
b)
Deep
c)
Lateral
d)
Anterior
25.
Body is standing straight, facing forward, upper limbs at side and palms facing forward. 
*right and left refer to "right" and "left" of the body in position.
a)
Sagittal
b)
Anatomical Position
c)
Anterior Position
d)
Anatomical Plane
26.
The bone is _____ to the skin.
a)
inferior
b)
superficial
c)
deep
d)
posterior
27.
Which body cavity is located above the diaphragm and is surrounded by the rib cage?
a)
abdominal
b)
pelvic
c)
thoracic
28.
The 5 components of the feedback loop, in order are:
a)
stimulus, effector, control center, response
b)
stimulus, receptor, control center, response
c)
stimulus, receptor, control center, effector, response
d)
stimulus, receptor, effector, response, control center
29.
Blood puts pressure on the artery wall and the receptors scream, "ahhhhh we gotta fix this!" This is an example of
a)
response
b)
control center
c)
stimulus
30.
The brain receives a message from the receptors and decides what to do next, the brain is a/an
a)
stimulus
b)
receptor
c)
effector
d)
control center
31.
The "effect" of a given stimulus is the...
a)
response
b)
stimulus
c)
cause
d)
result
32.
Homeostasis in the human body is often maintained by a: 
a)
neutral feedback loop 
b)
solar feedback loop
c)
positive feedback loop
d)
negative feedback loop
33.
Positive feedback is when the change caused by the stimulus is
a)
decreased
b)
non existant
c)
increased
d)
changes constantly
34.
Muscle found in the walls of hollow organs, such as the stomach and in the walls of blood vessels.
a)
Cardiac
b)
Skeletal
c)
Smooth
d)
None of the above
35.
Single layer of flattened cells.
a)
Simple cubodial
b)
Simple squamous
c)
Adipose
d)
Stratified squamous
36.
Which best describes cardiac muscle?
a)
involuntary
b)
displays intercalated disc
c)
single nucleated
d)
all of the above
37.

Cartilage that makes up intervertebral discs:

a)

Fibrocartilage

b)

Hyaline cartilage

c)

Elastic cartilage

d)

Osseous tissue

38.
What type of tissue is a covering and composes glands?
a)
Epithelial
b)
Connective
c)
Muscular
d)
Neural
39.
Which of the following is not a function of epithelial tissue?
a)
Physical protection
b)
Permeability control
c)
Specialized secretions
d)
Storage of fat
40.

What are the two classes of glandular secretions?

a)

Exocrine and merocrine

b)

Endocrine and holocrine

c)

Holocrine and merocrine

d)

Exocrine and endocrine

41.

Which of the cartilage type is NOT matched to its correct location:

a)

Fibrocartilage - intervertebral disks

b)

Hyaline - ends of long bones, nose

c)

Elastic - attaching ribs to sternum

42.
What muscle tissue is voluntary?
a)
Skeletal
b)
Cardiac
c)
Smooth
43.
The basic shapes of epithelial cells include all but which of the following? 
a)
stratified
b)
squamous
c)
cuboidal 
d)
columnar 
44.

The type of epithelium allows for rapid diffusion/filtration, it is found lining blood vessels and lungs:

a)

simple squamous

b)

stratified columnar

c)

simple columnar

45.

The type of epithelium found where absorption or secretion takes place and is found in the kidney tubules is

a)

simple squamous

b)

simple cubiodal

c)

simple columnar

d)

pseudostratified columnar

46.
A Transitional Epithelium can be found… 
a)
lining kidney tubules
b)
lining ducts for sweat glands
c)
lining the urinary bladder
47.
Functions of connective tissue include 
a)
establishing a structural framework for the body
b)
providing protection for delicate organs 
c)
storing energy reserves
d)
all of the above
48.

cells that store energy in the form of fat are called

a)

chondrocytes

b)

fibroblasts

c)

adipose cells

d)

blood cells

49.

The dominant (strongest) fiber type in dense fibrous connective tissue is:

a)

collagen

b)

reticular

c)

elastin

d)

actin

50.
Chondrocytes are to cartilage as osteocytes are to 
a)
blood
b)
bone
c)
fat
51.
The muscle tissue which shows no striations is 
a)
skeletal
b)
smooth
c)
cardiac
52.

Close examination of an organ reveals a lining of several layers of cells. The layers are avascular and can regenerate well. One surface of the cells is open to the internal cavity of the organ and protection and absorption are its functions. This tissue is probably

a)

epithelium

b)

connective

c)

nervous

d)

muscle

53.
What tissue is pictured?
a)
Areolar
b)
Cardiac
c)
Adipose
d)
stratified squamous
54.
Cells of this tissue stretch or flatten upon circumstances. Example of this is the tissue found in the bladder.
a)
Transitional
b)
Simple squamous
c)
Stratified columnar 
d)
Simple cuboidal
55.
Name the tissue
a)
Simple squamous
b)
Simple columnar
c)
Simple cuboidal
d)
Pseudo stratified columnar
56.
Name the tissue
a)
Simple squamous
b)
Simple cuboidal
c)
Simple columnar
d)
Pseudo stratified columnar
57.
Pseudo stratified cells are actually layered
a)
True
b)
False
58.
Epithelium with more than one layer of cells
a)
Stratified epithelium
b)
Simple epithelium
59.
Epithelium is
a)
Bone, cartilage,dense connective tissue, loose connective tissue, and blood
b)
Highly specialized tissue that contracts or shortens to produce movement
c)
Lining, covering, and glandular tissue of the body
60.

Where is keratinized stratified squamous epithelium found?

a)

epidermis

b)

lining of the mouth

c)

small intestine

d)

respiratory tract

61.
Identify:
a)
Pseudostratified
b)
Smooth Muscle
c)
Transitional
d)
Stratified Squamous
62.
Identify:
a)
Pseudostratified
b)
Simple cuboidal
c)
Transitional
d)
Simple Squamous
63.
Identify:
a)
Pseudostratified
b)
Smooth Muscle
c)
Transitional
d)
Stratified Squamous
64.

Secretes mucus in the respiratory tract, specifically the trachea and bronchi (tubes that carry air to/from the lungs)

a)

Transitional

b)

Pseudostratified Ciliated Columnar

c)

Simple Squamous

d)

Stratified Squamous

65.
Used in places needing protection from scrapes and abrasions such as the skin and esophagus
a)
Cuboidal
b)
Pseudostratified
c)
Simple Squamous
d)
Stratified Squamous
66.

This type of tissue makes up glands like your salivary glands.

a)

Epithelial

b)

Nervous

c)

Connective

d)

Muscle

67.

Most of your respiratory tract is lined with ___ tissue.

a)

hyaline cartilage

b)

ciliated pseudostratied columnar epithelium

c)

stratified squamous epithelium

d)

transitional epithelium

68.

Where in the body would you most likely find this type of cell layer?

a)

lungs

b)

heart

c)

small intestine

d)

pancreas

69.

Name the type of secretion

a)

merocrine

b)

apocrine

c)

holocrine

d)

berocrine

70.

Name the type of secretion

a)

merocrine

b)

apocrine

c)

holocrine

d)

berocrine

71.

Name the type of secretion

a)

merocrine

b)

apocrine

c)

holocrine

d)

berocrine

72.

What type of epithelial tissue is this and where might you find it?

a)

stratified cuboidal ; small intestine

b)

simple squamous ; lung

c)

pseudostratified columnar ; trachea

d)

transitional ; bladder

73.

All of the following are common locations of simple squamous epithlium EXCEPT

a)

lungs

b)

lining blood vessels

c)

trachea

d)

kidney tubules

74.

What type of epithelium is this and where might you find it?

a)

stratified squamous ; skin

b)

pseudostratified columnar ; trachea

c)

simple squamous ; lung

d)

simple cuboidal ; kidney tubules

75.

Name the type of epithelium surrounding the lumen (opening)

a)

simple squamous

b)

simple cuboidal

c)

stratified cuboidal

d)

stratified columnar

76.

What is the space between connective tissue cells filled with fibers, molecules, and fluid?

a)

tight cell junction

b)

intracellular matrix

c)

extracurricular space

d)

extraceullular matrix

77.

This type of connective tissue cell is the most common type; it produces the collagen, elastic, and reticular fibers that make up the extracellular matrix:

a)

adipose

b)

fibroblast

c)

macrophage

d)

mast cell

78.

Select all that apply - which fibers are the main fibers found in connective tissue?

a)

collagen

b)

elastic

c)

reticular

d)

triglycerides

79.

Which of the following are types of loose connective tissue (select all that appy):

a)

Areolar Tissue

b)

osteoblasts

c)

adipose tissue

d)

Reticular Tissue

80.
Name this tissue
a)
Bone
b)
Cartilage
c)
Blood
d)
Adipose
81.
Name this tissue
a)
Bone
b)
Cartilage
c)
Blood
d)
Adipose
82.
What tissue is this
a)
Transitional epithelium
b)
Cartilage
c)
Dense Fibrous
d)
Areolar
83.
This type of tissue is described as "cobwebby" and functions to cushion and protect the body organs it wraps
a)
Areolar
b)
Adipose
c)
Blood
d)
Cartilage 
84.
This tissue carries nutrients, waste, respiratory gases, and many other substances throughout the body.
a)
Bone
b)
Cartilage
c)
Blood
d)
Adipose
85.
Which of the following represents the reason that cartilage repairs itself so slowly?
a)
it is never damaged
b)
it is vascular
c)
it is avascular
d)
hormones are present
86.

This tissue type conducts impulses and cells have dendrites and axons.

a)

Cardiac muscle

b)

Skeletal muscle

c)

Nervous tissue

d)

Smooth muscle

87.
What is the purpose / function of the skin?
a)
protection
b)
temperature maintenance
c)
excretion and sensory reception
d)
all of the choices
88.
Which is the thin, most superficial layer of skin?
a)
Epidermis
b)
Dermis
c)
Hypodermis
89.
The epidermis is composed of _____.
a)
stratified squamous epithelium
b)
simple columnar epithelium
c)
adipose tissue
d)
connective tissue
90.

Which layer of the epidermis is mitotic and produces new skin cells?

a)

stratum basale

b)

stratum granulosum

c)

stratum corneum

d)

stratum lucidum

91.
Which layer of the epidermis do dead skin cells flake off of?
a)
stratum germinativum
b)
stratum granulosum
c)
stratum corneum
d)
stratum lucidum
92.

What layer of the of the skin is found only in the palms of yours hands and the soles of your feet?

a)

stratum granulosum

b)

stratum spinosum

c)

stratum lucidum

d)

stratum basale

93.
Deepest layer of the integument that is made of elastic connective tissue and adipose tissue.
a)
epidermis
b)
dermis
c)
hypodermis
d)
hyperdermis
94.
Which layer contains accessory structures such as sweat glands, sebaceous glands, and hair follicles?
a)
epidermis
b)
dermis
c)
hypodermis
d)
hyperdermis
95.

Skin and eye color is due to a pigment called ____.

a)

Keratin

b)

Melanin

c)

Chromatin

d)

Collagen

96.

Oil glands that are found all over the skin, except on the palms and soles, are called _____.

a)

eccrine glands

b)

sebaceous glands

c)

apocrine glands

d)

sweat glands

97.

Which type of sweat gland is found in the arm pits and produces smelly pheromones

a)

eccrine

b)

apocrine

c)

sebaceous

d)

holocrine

98.

To what structure is #3 pointing?

a)

Sweat gland and duct

b)

Hair follicle

c)

Arrector pili muscle

d)

Sebaceous gland

99.
To what layer of skin is letter "B" pointing?
a)
Epidermis
b)
Dermis
c)
Hypodermis
d)
Stratum Corneum
100.
What is the primary cause of skin cancer?
a)
Exposure to laboratory radiation
b)
Exposure to direct sunlight
c)
use of chemical products such as makeup
d)
heredity
101.
What are hair and nails made of?
a)
Keratin
b)
Collagen
c)
Sebum
d)
Melanin
102.

What causes acne?

a)

clogged sebaceous glands

b)

clogged apocrine glands

c)

clogged eccrine glands

d)

clogged sweat glands

103.

Which is not a function of the skin?

a)

Protection from injury and infection

b)

Regulate body temperature

c)

Sensory perception

d)

Chemical synthesis of sugar

104.

Keratin aids in __________ .

a)

hardness of the skin

b)

waterproofing the skin

c)

Chemical synthesis

d)

skin growth

105.

What is another name for skin?

a)

Cutaneous Membrane

b)

Subcutaneous membrane

c)

Synovial membrane

d)

Serous Membrane

106.

Which layer of the epidermis is most superficial and contains highly keratinized cells?

a)

S. Basale

b)

S. Spinosum

c)

S. Granulosum

d)

S. Corneum

107.

_____________synthesize melanin.

a)

Keratinocytes

b)

Hemoglobin cells

c)

Melanocytes

d)

Leukocytes

108.

Which degree is also called a "full thickness burn"?

a)

1st

b)

2nd

c)

3rd

d)

Rule of Nines

109.

What is the red muscle in the diagram called?

a)

Arteriole

b)

Langerhans

c)

Sebaceous gland

d)

Sudoriferous gland

e)

Arrector pili

110.
The function that allows the body to eliminate salt, waste, and excess water and heat is :
a)
absorption
b)
excretion
c)
production
111.

The most dangerous type of skin cancer is termed

a)

basal cell carcinoma

b)

squamous cell carcinoma

c)

metastasis

d)

malignant melanoma

112.
a)
First Degree Burn
b)
Second Degree Burn
c)
Third Degree Burn
d)
Fourth Degree Burn
113.

What is one function of the integumentary system?

a)

It absorbs vitamin C so that the skin will not be subject to diseases.

b)

The cells of the epidermis store glucose for energy.

c)

It increases desiccation.

d)

It converts cholesterol to vitamin D.

114.
The function of sebum is:
a)
Keeps skin soft and moist
b)
Help to regulate body temperature
c)
Produce vitamin D
d)
Protect skin from mechanical damage
115.

A common fungal infection of the skin is:

a)

Ringworm/athletes foot

b)

Boils/impetigo

c)

Cold sores/warts

d)

Psoriasis/eczema

116.
Sweating to regulate body temperature is an example of
a)
negative feedback
b)
positive feedback
c)
a homeostatic imbalance
d)
aging
117.

Respond to increased body temperature

a)

oil

b)

hair follicle

c)

eccrine glands

d)

apocrine glands

118.

What is structure E in the picture?

a)

Adipose

b)

Eccrine Gland

c)

Sebaceous gland

d)

Arrector pilli

e)

Hypodermis

119.

What is structure F in the picture?

a)

Adipose

b)

Eccrine Gland

c)

Sebaceous gland

d)

Arrector pilli

e)

Hypodermis

120.

How do melanocytes distribute melain?

a)

The cells migrate through the epidermis

b)

They have long slender projections that transfer melanin to surrounding keratinocytes

c)

Melanocytes are the most abundant cells in the epidermis

121.

The relative number of melanocytes is roughly the same for both genders and for all races, approximately 1500 melanocytes per square millimeter of skin surface

a)

True

b)

False

122.

Melanocytes are the the most abundant cells in the epidermis.

a)

True

b)

False, keratinocytes are the most abundant

c)

False, merkel cells are the most abundant

d)

False, collagen cells are the most abundant

123.

In the palm of the hand, which demonstrates the correct order of the epidermal layers (superficial to deep)

a)

B, S, G, L, C

b)

B, S, G, C, L

c)

C, G, S, B

d)

C, L, G, S, B

124.

The ABCDE Rule is used to identify:

a)

Basal cell carcinoma

b)

Squamous cell carcinoma

c)

Malignant melanoma

d)

Burn classifications

125.

The function of the dermal papillae is to increase surface area of the dermis, increase blood supply to the mitotic cells of the stratum corneum, as well as increase presence of the superficial touch receptors.

a)

True

b)

False, it decreases surface area of the dermis

c)

False, it increases blood supply to the stratum basale

d)

False, it decreases the presence of touch receptors

126.
Osteo means?
a)
Bone
b)
Bone tissue
c)
skin
d)
tissue
127.
Which of the following is not a function of bones
a)
Calcium Storage
b)
Production of red blood cells
c)
protection
d)
synthesis of vitamin D
128.
how many bones are in the human body?
a)
200
b)
206
c)
205
d)
204
129.
skull, vertebral column, and thorax
a)
axial skeleton
b)
appendicular skeleton
c)
skeleton
d)
bones 
130.
Which of the following would be classified as in the appendicular skeleton?
a)
ribs
b)
Fibula (in the leg)
c)
Sternum (in the chest)
d)
skull
131.
Bones of the wrist could be classified as 
a)
Short Bones
b)
Long Bones
c)
Irregular Bones
d)
Flat Bones
132.
The femur and humerus could be classified as
a)
Short Bones
b)
Long Bones
c)
Irregular Bones
d)
Flat Bones
133.
Bones of the cranium could be classified as
a)
Short Bones
b)
Long Bones
c)
Irregular Bones
d)
Flat Bones
134.
Bones are not vascular (do not contain blood vessels)
a)
True
b)
False
135.
What is the name given to the end of a long bone?
a)
Compact bone
b)
Epiphysis
c)
Diaphysis
d)
Periosteum
136.
Which of the following is NOT a function of the skeleton?
a)
Production of blood cells
b)
Gives the body form
c)
Protects internal organs
d)
Generates heat
137.
Bones of the face and vertebrae are considered __________ bones
a)
long
b)
short
c)
irregular
d)
flat
138.
Toes and fingers are called
_______________________.
a)
bones
b)
carpals
c)
tendons
d)
phalanges
139.
Your hip bone is also known as your
____________________
a)
pelvis
b)
waist
c)
femur
d)
radius
140.
Wrist Bone
a)
Carpal
b)
Metacarpal
c)
Tarsal
d)
Metatarsal
141.
Lower arm bone on thumb side
a)
Radius
b)
Ulna
c)
Humerus
d)
Funny Bone
142.

What does your red bone marrow make and where is it found in adult bone tissue?

a)

muscles; spongy bone

b)

cartilage; compact bone

c)

blood cells; spongy bone

d)

blood cells; medullary cavity

143.
a)
rib
b)
spine
c)
scapula
d)
clavicle
144.
a)
ulna
b)
humerus
c)
radius
d)
vertebrae
145.
a)
ulna
b)
radius
c)
humerus
d)
clavicle
146.
a)
tibia
b)
femur
c)
fibula
d)
pelvis
147.
a)
cranium
b)
ribs
c)
mandible
d)
vertebrae
148.
a)
metatarsals
b)
carpals
c)
tarsals
d)
metacarpals
149.
a)
metacarpals
b)
phelanges
c)
tarsals
d)
metatarsals
150.
a)
cervical vertebrae
b)
thoracic vertebrae
c)
lumbar vertebrae
d)
sacrum
151.
What is the name for the connector that attaches muscle to bone?
a)
ligament
b)
tendon
c)
patella
d)
string
152.

Bone breaks incompletely, occurs most commonly during early childhood.

a)

Greenstick fracture

b)

Depression fracture

c)

Compound fracture

d)

Comminuted fracture

153.

Which fracture is where the bone is visible through the skin?

a)

Compound/open fracture

b)

Complete fracture

c)

Simple/closed fracture

d)

Transverse fracture

154.

Bone breaks into many fragments.

a)

Open fracture

b)

Incomplete fracture

c)

Comminuted fracture

d)

Compound fracture

155.
Hip and shoulder have examples of this type of joint
a)
ball and socket
b)
condyloid
c)
hinge
d)
gliding
156.
Name this joint
a)
gliding
b)
saddle
c)
condyloid
d)
pivot
157.
The arthritis that occurs due to normal aging
a)
Rheumatoid Arthritis
b)
Osteoarthritis
c)
Gouty Arthritis
158.
Autoimmune Disorder
a)
Rheumatoid Arthritis
b)
Osteoarthritis
c)
Gouty Arthritis
159.
inflammation of a joint is called:
a)
arthritis
b)
gout
c)
osteoporosis
d)
rickets
160.
an example of a hinge joint
a)
hip
b)
knee
c)
skull
d)
joint
161.

an immoveable joint is called:

a)

cartilage joint

b)

synovial joint

c)

suture joint

d)

diathrotic joint

162.

This disease translates to "porous bone" which is weak, thin and easily fractured

a)

osteoporosis

b)

scoliosis

c)

kyphosis

d)

lordosis

163.

Which gender is more at risk for osteoporosis?

a)

male

b)

female

c)

equally vulnerable

164.

attaches bone to bone

a)

tendon

b)

ligament

165.
Structure #2 is the 
a)
medullary cavity
b)
periosteum
c)
epiphysis
d)
diaphysis
166.
The shiny white substance at #8 is the 
a)
articular cartilage
b)
periosteum
c)
yellow marrow
d)
diaphysis
167.
Structure #5 is the 
a)
medullary cavity
b)
periosteum
c)
epiphysis
d)
diaphysis
168.
Structure #7 is the 
a)
medullary cavity
b)
periosteum
c)
epiphysis
d)
diaphysis
169.
In adults, the substance at #6 would be 
a)
red marrow
b)
yellow marrow
c)
spongy bone
d)
clotted blood
170.
What type of bone makes up the diaphysis?
a)
spongy bone
b)
compact bone
c)
rigid bone
d)
soft bone
171.
Structure #7 is a/n 
a)
canaliculi
b)
perforating (Volkmann's canals
c)
central (Haversian) canals
d)
osteocytes
172.
Structure #3 is a/n
a)
osteon
b)
perforating (Volkmann's) canals
c)
Central (Haversian) canals
d)
canaliculi
173.

lateral curvature of the spine

a)

osteoporosis

b)

kyphosis

c)

lordosis

d)

scoliosis

174.

PTH Stimulates _______.

a)

Osteoblasts

b)

Osteoclasts

c)

Osteocytes

d)

Fibroblasts

175.

When bone remodeling occurs due to HIGH Blood Calcium levels. Which hormone and cell type is involved and how is bone density affected?

a)

Calcitonin, Osteoclasts, Decreases

b)

PTH, Osteoblasts, Decreases

c)

Calcitonin, Osteoblasts, Increases

d)

PTH, Osteoclasts, Increases

176.

Which statements are true of endochondral ossification?

a)

Most bones of the body ossify in this manner

b)

It's how the skull bones form

c)

It continues after birth in the fetal fontanelles

d)

It continues after birth in the epiphyseal plates

177.

When bone is being remodeled, when can calcium be released?

a)

When the osteoblasts mature into osteocytes

b)

When the osteoblasts resorb / break down bone

c)

When the osteoclasts deposit / build bone

d)

When the osteoblasts deposit / build bone

e)

When the osteoclasts resorb / break down bone

178.

In the arm, the distal epiphysis of the _____________ articulates with the proximal epiphysis of the ______________.

a)

ulna, humerus

b)

humerus, ulna

c)

humerus, radius

d)

femur, tibia

179.

What are the correct stages of fracture healing?

a)

hematoma, fibrocartilage callus, bony callus, remodeling

b)

hematoma, bony callus, fibrocartilage callus, remodeling

c)

bony callus, fibrocartilage callus, remodeling, hematoma

d)

hematoma, remodeling, bony callus, fibrocartilage callus

180.

Which of the following bone categories is composed of two layers of compact bone sandwiching a layer of spongy bone between them:

a)

Short

b)

Flat

c)

Irregular

d)

Long

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