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Final Review World History

Total questions: 164

Worksheet time: 2hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
The Aztec Empire was based on tribute. This means that the people who lived in the empire 
a)
worshipped Aztec gods.
b)
had to speak the Aztec language.
c)
rebelled against the Aztec leaders. 
d)
paid goods to the Aztec government.
2.
The Aztec Empire lived in central ___________.
a)
America
b)
Mexico
c)
Panama
d)
Cuba
3.
Which early American civilization is represented by the white shaded area?
a)
Aztec
b)
Inca
c)
Maya
d)
Spain
4.
How did the exploration of North America effect the native people?
a)
They did not have immunity to the diseases the explorers and colonists brought over, so many of them died
b)
Traders brought manufactured goods such as cloth, iron pots, tools, and guns which the native people used. 
c)
The Europeans made alliances with different tribes so they began fighting each other.
d)
All of the above
5.
Choose the answer that best describes why the Spanish conquistadors wanted to explore and colonize America.
a)
They liked the climate and wanted to create a better life for themselves.
b)
They were looking for gold, spreading their Catholic religion, and wanting to claim territory for Spain. 
c)
They were looking for ways to help the natives become more advanced.
d)
They were looking for ideas to write a best selling book.
6.
he main reason Columbus risked crossing the Atlantic Ocean was because...
a)
..he thought he could find an easier route to Asia.
b)
he wanted the gold from the Aztecs in Mexico.
c)
he natives in North and South America had the same spices the Europeans wanted from Asia.
d)
he wanted to discover God.
7.
 How were the Spanish explorers and Conquistadors able to conquer the native people in America?
a)
The Spanish sent over huge armies so they had more men and resources than the natives.
b)
They were more intelligent and had more people.
c)
The Spanish Armada was much more powerful than the native weapons.
d)
The natives did not have horses and their weapons could not match the Spanish muskets and cannons. Also the Spanish brought diseases that wiped out much of the native population.
8.
 Which answer best describes the Columbian Exchange?
a)
Ideas were exchanged between Europe and Americas.
b)
The native Americans and Christopher Columbus shared religious ideas.
c)
The Eastern and Western Hemispheres exchanged plants, animals, and also diseases.
d)
The Old World became the New World.
9.
What was the primary killer of Natvie Americans during the Age of Exploration?
a)
Diseasese
b)
Foreign plants in their forests
c)
Warfare
d)
Poverty
10.
Explorer credited with the discovery of the New World
a)
Ferdinand Magellan 
b)
Christoper Columbus
c)
Bartolomeu Dias 
d)
Sir Francis Drake 
11.
Mother countries growing wealthy via controlled trade with colonies 
a)
trade 
b)
stealing 
c)
colonies 
d)
Mercantilism 
12.
Settled in a new territory or land while the mother country maintains control 
a)
Colony 
b)
exploration 
c)
Mercantilism 
d)
economy 
13.
A patron of explorers;established navigation school 
a)
Hernan Cortez 
b)
Prince Henry 
c)
Bartolomeu Dias 
d)
Vasco da Gama 
14.
Conquered Incan Empire and established Lima Peru 
a)
Prince Henry 
b)
Christopher Columbus 
c)
SIr Francis Drake 
d)
Francisco Pizarro 
15.
first to circumnavigate globe 
a)
Christopher Columbus 
b)
Vasco da Gama 
c)
Jacques Cartier 
d)
Ferdinand Magellen 
16.
Which members of the feudal system owned most of the land in Feudal Japan?
a)
Samurai
b)
Shoguns
c)
Daimyos 
d)
Artisans 
17.
What is feudalism?
a)
A system where lords allow people to work on their land in exchange for service
b)
Where people are elected to power
c)
Where everybody has the same amount of power
d)
Where peasants work as warriors
18.
Definition:
A social and political system that provided protection through a stable social pyramid.
a)
feudalism
b)
aristocracy
c)
democracy
d)
meritocracy
19.
The highest ranking member of Japanese feudal society was the 
a)
Emperor
b)
Shogun
c)
Daimyo
d)
Samurai
20.
What was the main obligation of a samurai?
a)
defend the peasants
b)
conquer lands
c)
defend the daimyo
d)
manage the land
21.
What was the name for the head MILITARY leader of Japan?
a)
Daimyo
b)
Samurai
c)
Shogun
d)
Zaibatsu
22.
During the Middle Ages, how did Catholic religious leaders influence the kings and lords of Europe?
a)
the church usually had bishops and cardinals made into kings
b)
the church had control over most of Europe's food supply
c)
the church had an army larger than any other feudal army
d)
the church taught that it had authority over every person
23.
The Crusades exposed Western Europeans to ideas and discoveries of the Muslim world, resulting in
a)
an understanding and peace between Christians and Muslims
b)
an increase in European education and thought
c)
a hatred for Muslim culture and science within Europe
d)
a decrease in Christianity within Europe itself
24.
What is the main feature of a medieval feudal society?
a)
the population was mostly rural, made up of farming communities
b)
the people began to assert their rights as individuals and demand greater freedoms
c)
the population was mostly urban because people sought opportunities in the cities
d)
an improved economic system was created based upon the introduction of paper money and credit
25.
Which of these statements about the Crusades is true?
a)
Crusaders brought Islamic culture, architecture, and medicine back to Europe
b)
trade diminished across Europe as fighting destroyed roads and bridges
c)
Crusaders were welcomed by Muslims, who wanted to help driving the Jews from the Holy Land
26.
Which of the following best describes a fief?
a)
the peasants who worked the farm land
b)
the oath of loyalty sworn to the monarch
c)
the income raised by the peasants
d)
the estate that was granted to the vassal
27.
The political order under feudalism was dependent upon the relationship between lords and their vassals.  The responsibility of the vassal included
a)
the promise to spread the Christian faith to their lands
b)
an oath of loyalty and a pledge of military service
c)
an agreement to keep lower classes under control
d)
the payment of taxes to the king or queen of the country
28.
Manorialism can best be described as
a)
the process of how a nobleman's son in the middle ages could become a knight
b)
the political relationships between the king or queen, the nobility, and the peasants
c)
the economic ties between the nobles and the peasants who worked on their lands
d)
the land given to monasteries by different governments as a show of loyalty to the Church
29.

The followers of Islam are divided into two groups, Shia and Sunni. What makes them different?

a)

They are located in different areas of Saudi Arabia

b)

They disagreed on who should lead Islam after Muhammad died

c)

The Shia follow the 5 Pillars of Islam, while the Sunni do not

d)

The Sunni honor the holy month of Ramadan, while the Shia do not

30.
Many of the traditions of Islam were influenced by which other religions? 
a)
Hinduism and Judaism
b)
Buddhism and Judaism
c)
Christianity and Judaism
d)
Zoronastrianism and Judaism
31.
What spread with Islam?
a)
Muhammad
b)
Arabic language
c)
political unity
d)
slavery
32.
What is true of Islam
a)
it accepts Mohammad as the only prophet of God
b)
it accepts the divinity of Jesus Christ
c)
it accepts Moses and Jesus as earlier prophets
d)
it only accepts the New Testament
33.
What forms the basis of Islamic faith?
a)
Four Noble Truths
b)
Five Pillars
c)
Eightfold path
d)
Three Wise Sayings
34.
Whereas Christians believe in the Bible and Jesus, Muslims believe in the ___ and ____.
a)
Torah, Moses
b)
Mandate, Confucius
c)
Quran, Muhammad
d)
Umayads, Saladin
35.
Who was the founder of Islam?
a)
Muhammad
b)
Moses
c)
Martin Luther
d)
Jesus Christ
36.
Islam is a _______________ religion.
a)
pagan
b)
cult
c)
monotheistic
d)
polytheistic
37.

The creator of the Anglican Church

a)

Queen Elizabeth II

b)

King John

c)

John Calvin

d)

King Henry VIII

38.

How might a Renaissance Man describe himself?

a)

I am talented in one special area.

b)

I am close minded about new ideas.

c)

I am talented in many different areas.

d)

I have little appreciation for the Greeks and Romans.

39.

What was one result of the Council of Trent?

a)

The Catholic Church printed Bibles in the vernacular.

b)

The Pope gave Protestants freedom to practice in their own church.

c)

Martin Luther was welcomed back into the Catholic Church.

d)

The sale of indulgences ended.

40.

What classical civilizations were studied again during the Renaissance?

a)

Greek and Roman

b)

Roman and Inca

c)

Greek and Egyptian

d)

all of the above

41.

What city is most associated with the Renaissance?

a)

Rome

b)

Florence

c)

Frankfurt

d)

London

42.

The Counter Reformation, Council of Trent & Diet of Worms supported which of the following?

a)

Martin Luther

b)

Catholic Church

43.

How did the invention of the printing press help the Reformation?

a)

Bibles printed allowed more people to read them.

b)

People could read translations of the Bible in their language.

c)

It allowed reformers to spread their ideas.

d)

All of the Above

44.
What provided the major economic support for the Renaissance?
a)
wealthy patrons
b)
church officials
c)
government grants
d)
kings competing for prestige
45.
Conquered the Inca Empire
a)
Francisco Pizarro
b)
Hernando Cortes
c)
Vasco da Gama
d)
Galileo Galilei
46.

Under Akbar, the Mughal Empire expanded to cover most of modern day ________

a)

Iran

b)

India

c)

China

d)

Turkey

47.
What ancient empire did the Ottomans end?
a)
China
b)
Arab
c)
Byzantine
d)
none are true
48.
Name of the Protestant Church in England
a)
Greek Orthodox Church
b)
Baptist Church
c)
Presbyterian Church
d)
Anglican Church
49.
This group was established to spread Catholicism around the world 
a)
Huguenots
b)
Lutherans 
c)
Jesuits
d)
Monks
50.

Which Spanish Conquistador conquered the Aztecs?

a)

Hernan Cortes

b)

Francisco Pizarro

c)

Christopher Columbus

d)

Vasco De Gama

51.
Who taught predestination
a)
John Calvin
b)
Martin Luther
c)
Zwingli
d)
Erasmus
52.
Which of the following best helped Martin Luther's ideas reach other parts of Europe? 
a)
The Bible
b)
The printing press
c)
Church Hierarchy
d)
The Diet of Worms
53.

Why did Luther disagree with the selling of indulgences?

a)

He believed they should cost more.

b)

He believed people had to work to earn salvation.

c)

He believed it was unfair to the poor

d)

He believed his 95 Theses could get people to Heaven.

54.

What was Martin Luther's list of complaints against the Church called?

a)

95 Theses

b)

Peace of Augsburg

c)

Magna Carta

d)

New Testament

55.

Why did the Reformation begin?

a)

Luther wanted to start a new religion.

b)

The Church was poor and needed a new leader.

c)

Calvin wanted to head the Church.

d)

There were abuses and corruption in the Church that needed changing.

56.

What was the time in history when the Roman Catholic Church was questioned?

a)

Middle Ages

b)

Renaissance

c)

Reformation

d)

All of the Above

57.

Humanism emphasized that people could

a)

enjoy pleasures without offending God

b)

be punished for enjoying worldly pleasures

c)

interpret the Bible without the help of a priest

58.

Who invented the printing press?

a)

Leonardo Da Vinci

b)

Johann Gutenberg

c)

Raphael

d)

Thomas Edison

59.
Which statement best describes the result of the Crusades?
a)
Europeans maintained a lasting control over much of the Middle East 
b)
Islamic influence dominated Europe 
c)
Europeans developed tolerance of Non-Christian religions 
d)
trade between Europe and the Middle East was expanded 
60.
Where did Islam spread?
a)
all around the world
b)
the entire continent of Africa
c)
across Asia and Africa and into Spain
d)
into Australia
61.
The crusades were wars between Christians and 
a)
Hindus
b)
Buddhists
c)
Muslims
d)
Catholics
62.
Ghana and Mali, controlled trade of which TWO items?
a)
Gold and fish
b)
Gold and salt
c)
Gold and timber
d)
Gold and bronze
63.

How was Islam first introduced to West Africa?

a)

Political Revolts

b)

Mansa Musa

c)

Muslim Merchants

d)

Muslim traders

64.

How did the Crusades change the social structure in Europe?

a)

Weakened the power of the noble class

b)

Freed the serfs from monarchal control

c)

Decreased the influence of the clergy

d)

Encouraged religious diversity

65.
How did the plague increase the power of the common people?
a)
Sick people moved into the castles
b)
Lords were more likely to die from it
c)
It created a shortage of workers
66.
Which of the following was an outcome for peasants in Europe after the Black Death c. 1340 CE?
a)
wages went down
b)
more land was available and wages increased
c)
social unrest decreased
67.
From what trade route did the Black Plague spread West?
a)
Trans-Saharan
b)
Trans-Atlantic
c)
Silk Road
d)
Marco Polo Trade Route
68.

How did the Bubonic plague spread?

a)

it was spread by fleas on dogs

b)

by merchants traveling from Asia to Europe, fleas on rats

c)

by people with the chicken pox

d)

it spread by drinking contaminated water

69.

Why is the city of Mecca important in Muslim tradition?

a)

Most Muslims live there today.

b)

It was the birthplace of Muhammad.

c)

It was the capital of the Umayyad empire

d)

Muhammad moved there with his followers.

70.

Which was the most important factor in the development of the Slave Trade?

a)

European industrial labor

b)

North American Textile Work

c)

Sugar plantations in the carribean

d)

Shipping ports in Mediterranean coastal cities

71.

How did slavery begin in Africa?

a)

People were promised a better life (lied to) and they signed up

b)

African kings sold people to the Europeans

c)

They were captured by Americans from Texas

d)

They volunteered to go to save their other family members

72.

The partial outline below describes what important historical developments?

I. ____________________

A. Growing nationalism in Europe

B. Growing militarism in Europe

C. The creation of secret alliances

a)

The colonization of Africa and Asia

b)

The rise of democracy

c)

The causes of communism

d)

The causes of WWI

73.

Why were the Balkans referred to as the "Powder Keg of Europe" in the period prior to World War I?

a)

Because of the large deposits of saltpeter and sulfur in the region

b)

Because of the manufacturing ability of the nations in the region

c)

Because of the nationalistic rivalries that existed in the region

d)

Because of the vast stockpiles of weapons in the region

74.

How did the Triple Entente and the Triple Alliance contribute to the start of World War I?


a)

By issuing threats against nations in the Western Hemisphere

b)

By increasing tensions between the nations of Europe through complicated alliances

c)

By refusing to allow Germany and France to become members

d)

By ignoring aggressive actions by the Japanese in Korea

75.

The assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand was the immediate cause of which conflict?

a)

World War I

b)

The Franco-Prussian War

c)

World War II

d)

The Russo-Japanese War

76.

Which of the following best explains why the growth of European alliances during the early twentieth century contributed to the onset of a vast conflict?

a)

Progress achieved by allies in weapons development led to an arms race.

b)

The sense of security among allies distracted them from emerging threats.

c)

Suspicions of disloyalty among allies caused international tensions to rise.

d)

The responsibilities of allies drew them into taking sides in regional fights.

77.

Which of the following best describes warfare during World War I?

a)

Naval battles between ships fighting over trade routes

b)

Quick attacks with coordinated aircraft, artillery, and infantry

c)

Guerrilla combatants attacking from behind trees and in cities

d)

Soldiers digging in trenches and coming out over the top to attack

78.

Using its industrial might to prepare for World War I, Germany was ____________ (Complete this sentence using the best possible answer below)

a)

unable to prevent workers from striking

b)

able to produce weapons at maximum capacity, matching the industrial might of rival England

c)

unable to produce enough supplies to remain in the war

d)

able to produce enough submarines to sink the British fleet

79.

Which of the following were most helpful in ending the stalemate of trench warfare during World War I? (Think, which of these options successfully overcame trench warfare by breaking through enemy troop formations)

a)

Airplanes and U-boats

b)

Tanks and airplanes

c)

Hand grenades and U-boats

d)

Mines and hand grenades

80.

Which of the following had the most influence on the United States' decision to enter World War I?

a)

The entry of the Ottoman Empire

b)

The capture of Paris by the Germans

c)

Unrestricted submarine warfare by the Germans leading to the sinking of the U.S.S. Lusitania

d)

Mexico's insinuation that it would ally itself with Germany

81.

Which statement about the technology developed during World War I is correct?

a)

The new technology led to fewer refugees being displaced from their homes during the conflict.

b)

The new technology created deadlier weapons which led to increased military casualties in battles fought during the conflict.

c)

The new technology led to smaller nations joining large empires following the conflict.

d)

The new technology led to a reduced focus on transportation improvements following the conflict.

82.

Read the excerpt below and answer the question that follows.

"To keep out the chill night winds the men had spread their shelter halves over the foxholes which had been dug into the side of the bank. When the enemy’s barrage opened it was directed particularly at this spot, where he believed the infantry was lying in readiness to go over. It was not surprising, then, that the entire vicinity was thoroughly bombarded. In quick succession the shells struck, many of them so near that they blew men to pieces less than ten feet from us and peppered our shelter halves with stones and lumps of mud, leaving many of them perforated like sieves."

— William L. Langer, Gas and Flame in World War I, Knopf/Borzoi

Which characteristic of warfare associated with World War I is described in the excerpt?

a)

Trench warfare

b)

Air Warfare

c)

Submarine warfare

d)

Armored warfare

83.

All of the following are regarded as primary causes of World War I except___________

a)

alliances.

b)

nationalism.

c)

militarism.

d)

communism.

e)

Imperialism.

84.

Which statement best describes militarism?

a)

establishing a classless society through government force

b)

the policy of maintaining a large armed force for the aggressive pursuit of national interests

c)

the policy of requiring citizens to serve during a country crisis

d)

restricting the activities of the army when maintaining public order

85.

Germany’s entrance into World War I was based on a pre-arranged agreement with Austria-Hungary. This is an example of ___________ (Think, main causes for WWI)

a)

a treaty.

b)

a contract.

c)

an ultimatum.

d)

an alliance.

86.

What was an immediate result of the assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand in 1914?

a)

Germany signed a peace treaty

b)

Great Britain formed an alliance with Belgium

c)

Russia’s monarch was overthrown

d)

Austria-Hungary declared war on Serbia after delivering an unworkable ultimatum

87.

Which event in World War I indicated the Schlieffen Plan had failed?

a)

Great Britain was unable to gain control of the Dardanelles.

b)

Germany was unable to defeat France quickly at the outset of war in 1914.

c)

Austria-Hungary was unable to suppress nationalist rebels.

d)

Russia was unable to suppress a communist revolution.

88.
The Big 3 agreed at the Yalta Conference to create what new international organization to prevent another world war?
a)
League of Nations
b)
United Nations
c)
NATO
d)
GATT
89.
The Nuremberg Laws & Kristallnacht were the early stages of what?
a)
The Holocaust
b)
Anschluss
c)
Lebensraum
d)
Third Reich
90.
Why was the Battle of Midway the turning point in the Pacific War?
a)
Germans never won any battles after it
b)
U.S. lost its entire fleet
c)
Japanese never won after it
d)
U.S. now could launch planes to bomb mainland Japan
91.
What happened to American POW's when they surrendered in the Philippines?
a)
executed
b)
Bataan Death March
c)
they were sent to Chinese death camps
d)
they were released
92.
What was the significance of the D-Day invasion?
a)
opened a 2nd front to the war in Europe
b)
Allied Forces liberated Italy
c)
Allied forces were defeated
d)
Hitler conquered Denmark, Norway, & Belgium
93.
In 1945 American & Soviet troops liberated Nazi concentration camps, which were used to eliminate which of the following groups?
a)
Jews
b)
the disabled & POW's
c)
homosexuals & Gypsies
d)
All of them
94.
General Dwight D. Eisenhower was responsible for planning what military operation in addition to being Supreme Commander of Allied forces in Europe?
a)
Operation Torch
b)
Operation Overlord
c)
Operation Avalanche
d)
Operation Juno
95.
Admiral Chester Nimitz, the Commander in Chief of the U.S. Naval Fleet, developed what strategy to defeat the Japanese?
a)
island hopping
b)
search and destroy missions
c)
total war
d)
guerrilla warfare
96.
What punished Germany harshly & became the basis for Hitler's European conquests?
a)
Treaty of Versailles
b)
Atlantic Charter
c)
Treaty of Paris
d)
Dawes & Young Plan
97.
Hitler and his Nazi Party attracted supporters by preaching German racial superiority.
a)
True
b)
False
98.
Hoping to avoid war, Great Britain and France adopted a policy of appeasement and gave in to Germany's demand for more territory.
a)
True
b)
False
99.
The United States declared war on Japan after the bombing of Pearl Harbor in Hawaii.
a)
True
b)
False
100.
What is significant about D-Day?
a)
It was the Allied invasion of France, the largest land-sea-air operation in army history, and the turning point of the war.
b)
Thousands of Nazi soldiers froze or starved to death after they were trapped by the Soviets.
c)
The Allies discovered concentration camps where Jews and others had been murdered.
d)
The British stopped the German advance and were able to gain control of the Suez Canal.
101.
Where were the atomic bombs dropped? 
a)
Hiroshima/Nagasaki
b)
China
c)
Tokyokawa
d)
Okinawa
102.

Which dictator(s) helped cause World War II?

a)

Mussolini, Hitler, and Tojo

b)

Tojo, and Mussolini

c)

Hitler

d)

Mussolini, and Hitler

103.
Which countries had not fallen to Germany when the U.S. entered the war?
a)
Great Britain and France
b)
France and Italy
c)
Great Britain and the U.S.S.R.
d)
Belgium and the Netherlands
104.
What event led Great Britain and France to declare war on Germany?
a)
Germany invaded Poland.
b)
Germany and Italy formed the Rome-Berlin Axis.
c)
Germany invaded Sudetenland.
d)
Germany and the Soviet Union agreed not to attack each other.
105.
Which was a common characteristic of the leaders of Italy, Germany, and Japan in the years leading up to World War II?
a)
They were content with the amounts of territory they controlled.
b)
Their forms of nationalism were linked to racism.
c)
They threatened democracy and wanted to spread communism.
d)
They felt mistreated by the treaties that ended World War I.
106.
What two nations were in competition with each other during the Cold War?
a)
Spain and Portugal
b)
England and France
c)
Germany and Italy
d)
United States and Soviet Union
107.
What does the ‘Iron Curtain’ symbolize? 
a)
The division between East Germany and West Germany
b)
The division between East Berlin and West Berlin
c)
The division between communist Europe and noncommunist Europe 
d)
The division between North Korea and South Korea
108.
The United States sent troops to Vietnam
_________.
a)
to stop the spread of communism
b)
as a result of the Cuban Missile Crisis
c)
to set up a capitalist goverment
d)
because they bombed us
109.

During the Cold War, what bill did the U.S. Congress pass to provide financial assistance to western European countries?

a)

Truman Doctrine

b)

Open Door Policy

c)

Marshall Plan

d)

Domino Theory

110.
Why were the US and Soviet Union on opposite side of the Cold War?
a)
The US dropped bombs on the Soviet Union
b)
The Soviet Union dropped bombs on the US
c)
The two countries have different viewpoints of government and economy.
111.
How did the US respond to finding out that the Soviets had missiles in Cuba?
a)
They sent the Air Force to bomb Cuba
b)
They began placing missiles in the Soviet Union.
c)
They placed a naval blockade around Cuba.
d)
They invaded Cuba and the Soviet Union.
112.
The physical barrier separating Communist East Berlin and Democratic West Berlin--
a)
Berlin Bloackade
b)
Berlin Base
c)
Berlin Wall
d)
Berlin Barrier
113.
What was the name for the 1955 alliance of Soviet-dominated countries of Eastern Europe  that were the counterpart to the western alliance?
a)
NATO
b)
Warsaw Pact
c)
European Alliance
d)
Iron Curtain
114.
What was the mutual defense alliance of non communist nations?
a)
NATO
b)
Warsaw Pact
c)
Truman Doctrine
d)
Open Skies
115.
Leader of communism in China
a)
Mao Zedong
b)
Hirohito Showa
c)
Xi Jinping
d)
Pu Yi
116.

Images like this one refer to what theory about the spread of Communism in Asia (China, Korea, Vietnam)?

a)

The Mar$hall Plan

b)

The Domino Theory

c)

Proxy Wars

d)

Flexible Response

117.

Which quote by Mikhail Gorbachev best defends his policies of glasnost and perestroika?

a)

"More socialism means more democracy, openness and collectivism in everyday life."

b)

"America must be the teacher of democracy, not the advertiser of the consumer society."

118.

Who is this prime minister of Great Britain, who supported free trade, support for the military and cooperation with the United States?

a)

Indira Gandhi

b)

Margaret Thatcher

c)

Golda Meir

d)

Marie La Pene

119.

Increasing interdependence of nations and peoples across the globe.

a)

Infrastructure

b)

Globalization

c)

Interdependence

d)

Specialization

120.
A large company that has operations in more than one country.
a)
Domestic Corporation
b)
Multinational Corporation
c)
Foreign Corporation
d)
State Corporation
121.

What are some negatives of globalization?

a)

Workers are exploited in sweatshops

b)

Pollution and deforestation

c)

Low wages for factory workers in Asia and Africa

d)

All of the answers are correct

122.

What are some positives of globalization?

a)

Cheap sneakers and clothes

b)

Cheap electronics

c)

Information is easy to access and it travels quickly (internet and social media)

d)

All of the answers are correct

123.
What is the Egyptian writing system called?
a)
glyphs
b)
hieroglyphics
c)
scribes
d)
cuneiform
124.
Alexander the Great was the king of which country?
a)
Greece
b)
Rome
c)
Macedonia
d)
Minoa
125.
Which country did Rome fight in the Punic Wars?
a)
Carthage
b)
Greece
c)
Egypt
d)
Libya
126.
What is the writing system in Mesopotamia called?
a)
hieroglyphics
b)
cuneiform
c)
scribes
d)
alphabet
127.
In Mesopotamia, the temples where they worship their gods are called...
a)
pyramid
b)
ziggurat
c)
temple
128.
Before Alexander began his conquests, which empire was the biggest in the world?
a)
Ottoman
b)
Persian
c)
Greek
d)
Roman
129.
Pax Romana was
a)
Long period of peace
b)
First Roman law code
c)
Roman Civil War
d)
Legislative body
130.
The two rivers that defined the civilization of Mesopotamia were called __
a)
The Tigris & Euphrates
b)
The Nile & Mississippi
c)
The Tigris & Nile
d)
There weren't rivers
131.
What is the city and its surrounding territories called?
a)
City-state
b)
Polythestic
c)
Monothestic
d)
Narnia 
132.
What is Nirvana?
a)
A state of perfect happiness
b)
A dinner at Panda Express
c)
Ancient Mesopotamian language
d)
A type of job
133.
What ruler is credited with having the first written laws?
a)
Hammurabi
b)
King Tut
c)
George Washington
d)
Ms. Castillo
134.
Why did the Egyptians preserve their dead?
a)
To get them ready for the next life
b)
It was fun
c)
To show faith to their gods
d)
It was fashionable
135.
Why were railroads so important during this time?
a)
they moved goods more quickly and less expensively over greater distances
b)
they were fun to ride on to go visit family in other states
c)
people could ride on railroads to get to their jobs in another city
136.
In what country did the Industrial Revolution begin?
a)
United States
b)
France
c)
Great Britain
137.
Until the 1800s, how did most families get the items they needed for daily life?
a)
They made tools, clothing, materials, and food by hand.
b)
They bought them from factories.
c)
They bought them on the Internet.
d)
They bought them from stores.
138.
The _______________ is the name for the change from goods being made by hand at home to making them by machine in factories.
a)
French Revolution
b)
Machine Revolution
c)
Industrial Revolution
d)
Technological Revolution
139.
Why did river travel improve during the 1800s?
a)
because of the invention of the steam engine
b)
because of the invention of stagecoaches
c)
because of the invention of the reaper
d)
because rivers were getting faster every year
140.
What is the movement of people from rural to urban areas called?
a)
ruralization
b)
colonization
c)
inflation
d)
urbanization
141.
The system in which the government owns and controls the means of production, such as mines and factories, is called?
a)
fascism
b)
socialism
c)
capitalism
d)
mercantilism
142.
Which of the following was NOT associated with early factory working conditions?
a)
Low wages
b)
Safe working conditions
c)
Dangerous working conditions
d)
Widespread pollution
143.
What product was first made using machines in factories?
a)
Steel
b)
textiles
c)
locomotives
d)
flying shuttles
144.
Which of the following groups would most likely benefit from the socialist ideas of Karl Marx?
a)
Entrepreneurs
b)
Factory Workers
c)
Large Business Corporations
d)
Factory Managers
145.
How did the Industrial Revolution affect the cities?
a)
Made the crime rate decrease
b)
Led to an increase in farm workers
c)
Make the cities cleaner and safer
d)
Led to an increase in population in the cities
146.
Imperialism is __________.
a)
when a powerful nation uses its resources to help a weaker nation
b)
when a weaker nation invites a powerful nation to help it industrialize
c)
when a powerful nation takes control of the economy and government of a weaker nation
d)
when weak nations join together to fight a strong nation
147.
The poem, The White Man's Burden, by Rudyard Kipling, represents the belief that European culture was _______.
a)
superior to other cultures
b)
misunderstood by Americans
c)
the oldest culture in the world
d)
a replica of Ancient Greek culture
148.
The infamous "Scramble for Africa" referred to:
a)
A major race that was held across the plains of Africa
b)
A period when the European powers conquered and divided most of Africa amongst themselves
c)
A war that Britain launched against the Boers in South Africa
d)
A period when the European powers rushed to establish friendly relations with nations across Africa
149.
The Boxer Rebellion refers to when:
a)
The nations of the West united to put down a rebellion against their influence in China
b)
A war when the people of Africa learned personal fighting styles to try to resist the European armies
c)
A rebellion erupted amongst British soldiers over bad pay and rations in their colonies, and they tried to "box" their way out of service
d)
The French people took up boxing in protest of the imperial policies of their government
150.
Industrialization affected the relationships between industrialized nations and non-industrialized nations because it
a)
was the driving force behind imperialism. 
b)
weakened economic ties between nations. 
c)
allowed industrialized nations to take slaves. 
d)
enabled the two types of nations to strengthen each other.
151.
Native Indians who served in the British East India Co. army
a)
Raja
b)
Viceroy
c)
Sepoy
152.
What product did the government of China try to prevent the British from trading in their country?
a)
opium
b)
gold
c)
tea
d)
silk
153.
The Meiji Restoration in Japan was a response to...
a)
nationalism and imperialistic threats
b)
isolationism
c)
converting to Christianity
d)
socialism and the cottage industry
154.
what is nationalism?
a)
belief that loyalty is to your shared culture NOT a leader
b)
loyalty of people toward a ruler
c)
building up of a nation by creating colonies
d)
when the government owns and controls all of the means of production
155.
which of the following is NOT an aspect of nationalism?
a)
common history
b)
common language
c)
common religion
d)
common job
156.
what were the 2 main aspects of nationalist movements in the 1800s?
a)
unification of groups and colonization of new lands
b)
unification of groups and separation from large empires
c)
colonization of lands and separation of groups from large empires
d)
separation of groups from large empires and discovering new trade routes
157.

what event marks the end of the French Revolution?

a)

the Reign of Terror

b)

Napoleon's coup d'etat

c)

the execution of King Louis XVI

d)

the execution of Robespierre

158.

Which was NOT an impact of Napoleon's reign?

a)

spread of nationalism and Enlightenment ideas

b)

Latin American independence movements

c)

unification movements in Europe- Italy & Germany

d)

the outbreak of WWI

159.

During The Enlightenment, people developed new ideas about ...

a)

the level of control they should have over their government

b)

the level of control the Sun exerts on Earth's orbit

c)

how their food crops should be grown

d)

how their houses should be arranged

160.
Enlightened thinkers based their philosophical beliefs on what two things?
a)
power and privilege
b)
money and fame
c)
good looks and charm
d)
reason and logic
161.
Enlightenment philosophers believe that if government abuses power the people should change it.
a)
True
b)
False
162.
Natural Rights
a)
Life, Liberty, and the Pursuit of Happiness.
b)
Life, Liberty, and Property
c)
Freedom
d)
Rights to say what we want, when we want to.
163.

People give up some of their freedom in exchange for protection of their rights in the ...

a)

Scientific Revolution

b)

Age of Reason

c)

State of Nature

d)

Social Contract

164.

Under the idea of the "consent of the governed," what happens if government fails to protect the peoples' rights?

a)

Nothing, people must obey the government

b)

The people would have a right to revolt

c)

The people would be returned to a state of nature

d)

People would be forced to enter into a social contract

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