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NHN EXAM I

Total questions: 94

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of these is mostly seen as the sensory neurons of the spinal and cranial nerves?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

2.

Which of these neurons are found in invertebrates but not fully developed humans?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

3.

Which of these neurons are only found in the peripheral nervous system?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

4.

Which of these neurons are associated with the olfactory, optic and vestibulocochlear cranial nerves?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

5.

You are looking at an image of a Purkinje neuron, which of the following class of neurons is the Purkinje neuron a part of?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

6.

Within which structure are the superior and inferior colliculi located?

a)

insular cortex

b)

thalamus

c)

basal ganglia

d)

tecum

e)

tegmentum

7.

Between what two structures does the cerebral aqueduct run through to travel from the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle?

a)

thalamus

b)

hypothalamus

c)

pineal glands

d)

tectum

e)

tegmentum

8.

Which of the following structures comprises the prosencephalon?

a)

telencephalon

b)

diencephalon

c)

mesencephalon

d)

metencephalon

e)

myelencephalon

9.

Which of the following structures comprise the the rhombencephalon?

a)

telencephalon

b)

diencephalon

c)

mesencephalon

d)

metencephalon

e)

myelencephalon

10.

Which embryological origins of the brain give rise to two subclassifications?

a)

proencephalon

b)

mesencephalon

c)

rhombencephalon

d)

spinal cord

11.

Where do the pons and cerebellum arise from?

a)

telencephalon

b)

mesencephalon

c)

rhombencephalon

d)

metencephalon

e)

myelencephalon

12.

Where do the basal ganglia arise from?

a)

prosencephalon

b)

telencephalon

c)

diencephalon

d)

mesencephalon

e)

myelencephalon

13.

Where does the thalamus arise from?

a)

prosencephalon

b)

mesencepahlon

c)

rhombencephalon

d)

diencephalon

e)

telencephalon

14.

When opening the top of the skull in cadaver lab, what was the first part of the brain that you saw?

a)

dorsal

b)

ventral

c)

rostral

d)

caudal

15.

A patient presents to your office with an arrow that went straight into his eyeball. What part of the brain did this arrow hit first?

a)

dorsal

b)

ventral

c)

rostral

d)

caudal

16.

What surface of the brain are we currently looking at?

a)

dorsal

b)

ventral

c)

rostral

d)

caudal

17.

What is the structure that is highlighted in purple?

a)

lateral sulcus

b)

pre-occipital notch

c)

sylvian fissure

d)

central sulcus

18.

What is the structure that is highlighted in yellow?

a)

central sulcus

b)

lateral sulcus

c)

sylvian fissure

d)

pre-occipital notch

19.

What structure can be approximated with the location of the structure that is highlighted in red? What structures does this approximation separate?

a)

pre-occipital notch

b)

temporal lobe

c)

parieto-occipital sulcus

d)

parietal lobe

e)

occipital lobe

20.

What structure can still be seen in this midsaggital cut of the brain and is indicated in red?

a)

sylvian fissure

b)

central sulcus

c)

parieto-occipital sulcus

d)

cingulate sulcus

21.

What structure was used to approximate the structure that is highlighted here in green from the lateral view of the brain?

a)

lateral sulcus

b)

pre-ocular sulcus

c)

pre-occipital notch

d)

calcarine sulcus

22.

The structure highlighted in purple is which of the following?

a)

cingulate gyrus

b)

singulate sulcus

c)

calcarine sulcus

d)

parieto-occipital sulcus

23.

What is the structure that is ventral to the cingulate sulcus called?

a)

frontal lobe

b)

cingulate gyrus

c)

parietal lobe

d)

calcarine sulcus

24.

Deep to the lateral or sylvian sulcus is a structure that is important for feelings of empathy, sympathy, motivational drivers, subjective pain threshold and body ownership. Name that structure.

a)

temporal lobe

b)

corpus callosum

c)

hippocampus

d)

insular cortex

25.

The longitudinal fissure meets the corpus callosum in this image. What colors are they represented by in this image, respectively?

a)

blue and green

b)

green and blue

c)

yellow and purple

d)

purple and yellow

26.

What is structure is located lateral to the orange color in this image?

a)

temporal lobe

b)

parietal lobe

c)

hippocampus

d)

occipital lobe

27.

Select the sequence of the highlighted structures that correctly lists them most lateral to most medial.

a)

longitudinal fissure - corpus callosum - hippocampus - insular cortex - lateral sulcus

b)

lateral fissure - hippocampus - insular cortex - corpus callosum - longitudinal fissure

c)

lateral sulcus - insular cortex - hippocampus - central culcus - longitudinal fissure

d)

lateral sulcus - insular cortex - hippocampus - corpus callosum - longitudinal fissure

28.

What surface of the forebrain and mid/hindbrain is this image surveying,dorsa respectively?

a)

dorsal

b)

ventral

c)

rostral

d)

caudal

29.

What surface of the forebrain and mid/hindbrain is this image surveying,dorsa respectively?

a)

dorsal

b)

ventral

c)

rostral

d)

caudal

30.

Where can a commissure be found and what does it describe?

a)

CNS

b)

Peripheral nervous system

c)

decussation of axons

d)

decussation of cell bodies

31.

What is a tract?

a)

a collection of cell bodies in the peripheral nervous system that travel together

b)

a collection of axons in the peripheral nervous system that travel together

c)

a collection of axons in the central nervous system that travel together

d)

a collection of cell bodies in the central nervous system that travel together

32.

Tracts are called what in the peripheral nervous system?

a)

ganglia

b)

locus

c)

nucleus

d)

nerves

33.

Which cell is important in removing waste, maintaining K+ homeostasis as well as contributing to the blood-brain barrier?

a)

ependymal cells

b)

satellite cells

c)

astrocytes

d)

schwann cells

e)

oligodendrocytes

34.

Which of the following cells can cause a massive issue if one is damaged? Where is this cell found?

a)

astrocytes; CNS, white matter

b)

oligodendrocytes; CNS, white matter

c)

microglia; CNS

d)

schwann cell: PNS

e)

satellite cell: PNS

35.

What cell will there be an increase in when the CNS is damaged?

a)

ependymal cells

b)

schwann cells

c)

satellite cells

d)

microglial cells

36.

What type of cell creates a endoneurial tube when the axon dies and allows for possible regeneration?

a)

satellite cells

b)

microglial cells

c)

oligodendrocytes

d)

schwann cells

37.

Which of the following is the correct sequence for the dorsal and rostral borders of the diencephalon?

a)

massa intermedia -- anterior commissure

b)

body of the fornix -- anterior commissure

c)

septum pellucidum -- supraoptic recess

d)

body of the fornix -- lamina terminalis

38.

What is the most caudal boundary of your diencephalon?

a)

tectum

b)

superior colliculus

c)

posterior commissure

d)

pineal gland

39.

Which of the following structures is sensitive to the osmolality of blood due to being a circumventricular organ and is the rostral border of the diencephalon?

a)

pons

b)

lamina terminalis

c)

cerebellum

d)

area postrema

40.

What is the lateral border of the diencephalon?

a)

massa intermedia

b)

superior colliculus

c)

posterior limb of the internal capsul

d)

third ventricle

41.

A 7-year-old male patient presents to your office with his mother. The mother tells you that she has noticed that her son has started to grow pubic hair and that his sleep cycle has been WAY OFF, preventing her from getting any sleep. Sure enough, on physical exam you notice that your patient is a Tanner stage 3. You obtain an MRI of his brain -- the results come back and you see a tumor on a midline structure. Where does this patient's tumor lie?

a)

tectum

b)

third ventricle

c)

facial colliculus

d)

pineal gland

42.

Your preceptor pages you to come down to the ER to see a 58-year-old patient who had a stroke. He is continuously flailing his leg out to the side of his body without any control. What part of his brain has likely been damaged?

a)

hypothalamus

b)

epithalamus

c)

thalamus

d)

subthalamus

43.

What provides the separation that results in the anterior, dorsal medial and ventral lateral nuclear groups?

a)

third ventricle

b)

longitudinal fissure

c)

band of white matter

d)

internal medullary lamina

44.

What does the nucleus that sits within the internal medullary lamina control? What is it called?

a)

centromedian nucleus

b)

red nucleus

c)

organization of sequences of movements

d)

sensitivity of cortex to incoming stimuli

e)

inhibition of the thalamus through GABAergic neurons

45.

Which of the following regions are contained within the posterior thalamus?

a)

pulvinar

b)

lateral geniculate body

c)

medical geniculate body

d)

reticular thalamic nucleus

46.

True or false: the reticular thalamic nucleus is the only thalamic nucleus that has no extra-thalamic projections and is purely glutamatergic.

a)

true

b)

false

47.

What are the two tracts involved in the thalamocortical circuit called?

a)

thalamocortical

b)

thalamocerebellar

c)

corticothalamic

d)

cerebrothalamic

e)

cerebrospinal

48.

Which tract in the thalamocortical circuit synapses on the reticulothalamic nucleus to provide inhibitory response in the circuit through GABA?

a)

corticothalamic

b)

reticulothalamic

c)

thalamocortical

d)

cerebrothalamic

49.

When there is loss of the reticulothalamic neuron response or injury to the hypothalamic circuit, what will you likely see?

a)

multiple sclerosis

b)

epilepsy

c)

paresthesia of the face

d)

hemiballismus

50.

Which of the following sensory impulses is not relayed through the thalamus?

a)

vision

b)

hearing

c)

somatosensation

d)

olfactory

51.

Which of the following is not a boundary of the hypothalamus?

a)

lamina terminalis

b)

hypothalamic sulcus

c)

optic chiasm

d)

mammillary bodies

e)

posterior commissure

52.

What is the name for the inferior border of the hypothalamus that lies between the optic chiasm and the mammillary bodies?

a)

tuber cinereum

b)

infundibular recess

c)

infundibulum

d)

supraoptic recess

53.

The hypothalamus receives afferent input from the ____________ via the stria terminalis and the hippocampus via the ___________, respectively.

a)

anterior commisures; amygdala

b)

amygdala; fornix

c)

fornix; posterior commissures

d)

dorsal longitudinal fasciculus; anterior commissures

54.

From the brain stem and spinal cord, sensory input reaches the hypothalamus via the ____________.

a)

mammillary bodies

b)

fornix

c)

amygdala

d)

stria terminalis

e)

dorsal longitudinal fasciculus

55.

Where do the hypothalamic efferents travel to?

a)

same area input was received

b)

from mammillary bodies to thalamus via mammillothalamic tract

c)

posterior limb of the internal capsule

d)

corpus callosum

56.

True or false: the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei project from the hypothalamus to the pars distalis of the posterior pituitary which makes up the neurohypophysis.

a)

true

b)

false

57.

A 48-year-old female patient presents to your ER with a plummeting body temperature. Her frantic husband accompanies her and tells you that she has also been unable to sleep during the night and has had complaints at work because she will fall asleep at her desk. After her blood work comes back negative, you get an MRI of her brain. Where do you most likely see a lesion and what other structure may it be injuring?

a)

anterior hypothalamus

b)

pineal gland

c)

suprachiasmatic nucleus

d)

posterior hypothalmus

e)

medial hypothalamus

58.

Ethan decides to be risky and drink some of Sophie's peanut butter adult milkshake not knowing what is in it. Ethan goes into anaphylaxis. Fortunately, Sophie was there to make an incision between which two muscles to open up his trachea?

a)

L and R cricothyroid m.

b)

L and R sternothyroid m.

c)

L and R sternohyoid m.

d)

the mylohyoid raphe

59.

A patient presents to your office with complaints of shoulder pain. After looking at his chart, you see that you treated him for pneumonia about two weeks ago. On physical exam, during inhalation and exhalation you a pleural friction rub. What nerves are likely irritated causing this referred pain to his shoulder? What nerves are transducing the pain signals, respectively?

a)

phrenic; transverse cervical

b)

supraclavicular; phrenic

c)

lesser occipital; supraclavicular

d)

phrenic; supraclavicular

60.

Which of the following muscles is not innervated by the ansa cervicalis?

a)

omohyoid

b)

sternohyoid

c)

sternothyroid

d)

thyrohyoid

61.

Which of the following nerves travels with the CN XII?

a)

lingual

b)

inferior root of ansa cervicalis

c)

superior root of ansa cervicalis

d)

nerve to thyrohyoid

62.

Which of the following structures are contained within the carotid sheath?

a)

common carotid a

b)

internal carotid a

c)

internal jugular v

d)

vagus n

63.

The carotid body monitors O2 and CO2. The carotid sinus contains baroreceptors. These two structure are innervated by the same nerves, what are they?

a)

CN VII

b)

CN XII

c)

CN X

d)

CN IX

64.

The subclavian artery has three parts that are defined by its relationship to the _________.

a)

recurrent laryngeal nerve

b)

vagus nerve

c)

anterior scalene muscle

d)

sternocleidomastoid muscle

65.

You are removing a growth from a patient's neck in-office. Anesthetizing what place with one injection should take care of all the cutaneous branches of the cervical plexus?

a)

anterior to SCM, midlength

b)

lateral edge of the hyoid

c)

over the carotid triangle

d)

posterior to the SCM, midlength

e)

midpoint of superior surface of clavicle

66.

Which structure travels across the anterior surface of the anterior scalene muscle?

a)

ansa cervicalis

b)

dorsal scapular nerve

c)

phrenic nerve

d)

subclavian artery

67.

What triangle allows for the best palpation of the deep cervical lymph nodes?

a)

carotid

b)

digastric

c)

muscular

d)

posterior

e)

submental

68.

Which of the following is a dorsal ramus of a spinal nerve?

a)

supraclavicular

b)

transverse cervical

c)

great auricular

d)

greater occipital

e)

lesser occipital

69.

The inferior thyroid arteries and superior thyroid arteries are branches of what arteries, respectively?

a)

external carotid; thyrocervical trunk

b)

thyrocervical trunk; external carotid artery

c)

costocervical trunk; internal carotid artery

d)

transverse cervical; external carotid artery

70.

A 20-year-old male patient was brought into your ER with a stab wound to the anterolateral neck. He states that he cannot feel anything when you test the sensation over the angle of the jaw. What nerve has likely been injured?

a)

lesser occipital

b)

great auricular

c)

transverse cervical

d)

supraclavicular

71.

A 32-year-old male patient presents to your office after a knife brawl. He was stabbed in the lateral neck and claims that he cannot feel the back of his scalp posterior to his ear. What nerve has likely been damaged?

a)

greater occipital

b)

lesser occipital

c)

great auricular

d)

transverse cervical

72.

A 62-year-old male presents to your office with concerns of dizziness and a lightheaded feeling when doing light bicep curls with his right arm. Imaging revealed an artherosclerotic plaque where his subclavian artery branches from his brachiocephalic trunk. You explain to him that the dizziness is due to his body taking blood from which artery to allow proper perfusion of his arm?

a)

external carotid

b)

internal carotid

c)

middle cerebral

d)

vertebral

73.

A 38-year-old male presents to your office with concerns of a lump in his neck. Upon examination you notice ptosis of and pupil constriction of his right eye, red discoloration of his face, and visibly dry skin of the face. Imaging reveals that he has a tumor of the thyroid gland. What nerve fibers are likely disrupted by this tumor?

a)

middle cervical ganglion

b)

superior cervical ganglion

c)

preganglionic parasympathetics

d)

postganglionic sympathetics

74.

A 16-year-old boy presents to your office with concerns of bleeding from his right ear after a friend used an air horn in close proximity. What pharyngeal arch apparatuses did the structure that was injured arise from?

a)

1st cleft

b)

2nd cleft

c)

1st arch

d)

1st pouch

e)

3rd pouch

75.

Which of the following muscle(s) do not arise from the 2nd pharyngeal arch?

a)

occipital frontalis

b)

platysma

c)

posterior digastric

d)

stylohyoid

e)

mylohyoid

76.

Which of the following innervations are correctly matched with their pharyngeal arches?

a)

1st arch; sensory division of the mandibular division of trigeminal n

b)

2nd arch; muscular portion of CN VII

c)

3rd arch; CN IX

d)

4th arch; superior laryngeal n

e)

5th arch; recurrent laryngeal n

77.

A 2-year-old male patient presents to your office with his mother to review abnormal blood work and genetic testing. During his first appointment with you, you noticed subtle facial deformation that you followed. The labs reveal low T cell counts and hypocalcemia. The genetic test shows a deletion of q11.2 on chromosome 22. What pharyngeal arch apparatuses are effected by this disorder?

a)

1st arch

b)

1st pouch

c)

2nd pouch

d)

3rd pouch

e)

4th pouch

78.

A patient presents to your office with an anterior throat mass. Upon physical examination, you notice this mass is inferior to the hyoid bone and doesn't move with deglutition. What is this mass likely due to?

a)

remnant of the thyroglossal duct

b)

ectopic thyroid tissue in the foramen cecum

c)

remnant of the 2nd pharyngeal pouch

d)

remnant of the 5th pharyngeal arch

e)

remnant of the 2nd pharyngeal cleft

79.

Which of the following pharyngeal pouches are associated correctly with their arising structures?

a)

1st pouch; tympanic recess

b)

2nd pouch; tonsillar sinus

c)

3rd pouch; thymus and superior parathyroid

d)

4th pouch; superior parathyroid

80.

From which of following arch(es) arise the common carotid and the internal carotid arteries?

a)

1st arch

b)

2nd arch

c)

3rd arch

d)

4th arch

e)

6th arch

81.

A patient presents to your office after being injured during a football game. He reports no vibratory/discriminative touch on the lower left extremity at the level of the umbilicus. CT comes back positive for a vertebral fracture with displacement into the vertebral canal. Which of the following is the most likely damages to the spinal cord in this patient?

a)

T10 on left

b)

T10 on right

c)

T7 on left

d)

T7 on right

e)

T12 on left

82.

What structure marks where the neural folds begin to fuse forming the rostral and caudal neuropores?

a)

neural plate

b)

4th somite

c)

5th somite

d)

neural groove

83.

A patient presents to your office to receive clearance to discontinue her phenytoin. She tells you that she did not know she was pregnant and is now in week 12 of her pregnancy. You send her to obtain an ultrasound. The ultrasound reveals a defect in the posterior vertebral arch with a cyst-like herniation. The sonographer was unable to determine what the contents were of the cyst. Based on occurrence rates alone, which of the following is the likely diagnosis for this fetus?

a)

spina bifida occulta

b)

spina bifida cystica with meningocele

c)

spina bifida cystica with myelomeningocele

d)

syringomyelia

84.

A patient presents to your office with complaints of recent trouble swallowing and aspiration during meals. This patient has prior surgical history of ventriculoperitoneal shunt placement. These symptoms and prior surgical history would indicate that he likely has developed ________ due to the malfunctioning of his current shunt.

a)

Syringomyelia

b)

Chiari I

c)

Arnold Chiari Malformation

d)

Dandy Walker Malformation

85.

Which of the following is considered a circumventricular organ and is the most rostral part of the developing neural tube?

a)

genu of the corpus callosum

b)

lamina terminalis

c)

area postrema

d)

anterior commissure

86.

Which of the following are not correctly paired with their embryological origin?

a)

tectum - alar plate

b)

tegmentum - basal plate

c)

cerebellum - alar plate

d)

olivary nuclei - alar plate

e)

hypoglossal nucleu - basal plate

87.

The roof plate gives rise to which of the following?

a)

choroid plexus

b)

4th ventricle

c)

tela choroidea

d)

general somatic efferent fibers

e)

abducent nucleus

88.

Which of the following flexures divides the structures that contain the abducent nuclei from the structure that contains the olivary and hypoglossal nuclei?

a)

midbrain flexure

b)

pontine flexure

c)

cervical flexure

d)

spinal flexure

89.

Which of the following are not derived from the neuroectoderm/neural tube?

a)

oligodendrocytes

b)

retina

c)

posterior pituitary lobe

d)

melanocytes

e)

odontoblasts

90.

Which of the following are derived from the neural crest cells?

a)

melanocytes

b)

leptomeninges

c)

parafollicular cells

d)

laryngeal cartilage

e)

aorticopulmonary septum

91.

True or false: The mantle zone becomes the white matter of the CNS and differentiates in the astrocytes and the oligodendrocytes.

a)

true

b)

false

92.

Which of the following zones is the first to develop and is the place of origin for neuroblasts as well as glioblasts?

a)

ventricular zone

b)

mantle zone

c)

marginal zone

d)

neuroepithlial zone

93.

Which of the following structures are derived from the mesenchyme of the mesoderm?

a)

leptomeninges

b)

dura mater

c)

satellite cells

d)

microglial cells

94.

Which of the following do not originate from the prosencephalon?

a)

lateral ventricles

b)

third ventricle

c)

cerebral aqueduct

d)

pineal gland

e)

superior portion of the forth ventricle