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Equine Diseases

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which pathogen can multiply rapidly without a host?

a)

parasite

b)

bacteria

c)

fungi

d)

protozoa

2.

What type of immunity allows the body to produce its own antibodies?

a)

passive

b)

active

c)

current

d)

permanent

3.

Which pathogen is a single celled organism?

a)

parasite

b)

fungi

c)

protozoa

d)

bacteria

4.

Mycology is the study of which of the following?

a)

parasite

b)

fungi

c)

protozoa

d)

bacteria

5.

How many different shapes of bacteria are there?

a)

three

b)

four

c)

two

d)

five

6.

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease also known as which of the following?

a)

heaves

b)

wobblers

c)

strangles

d)

flu

7.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of COPD?

a)

nasal discharge

b)

stumbling

c)

wheezing

d)

coughing

8.

Scratches is also referred to as which of the following?

a)

crusty pastern

b)

stinky heel

c)

oily heel

d)

greasy heel

9.

Scratches affects which of the following parts of a horse?

a)

fetlocks

b)

pasterns

c)

hocks

d)

cannon

10.

Which of the following is NOT a treatment for scratches?

a)

clipping hair in the infected area

b)

carefully removing scabs with mild soap

c)

applying an anti-fungal ointment

d)

scrubbing with chemical soap

11.

Periodic Ophthalmia is also referred to as which of the following?

a)

sun blindness

b)

moon blindness

c)

eye blindness

d)

sore eyes

12.

Which of the following is administered to a horse who has contracted Botulism?

a)

pencillin

b)

anti toxin

c)

bute

d)

antibiotics

13.

Strangles is a disease which affects what part of the horse?

a)

neurological system

b)

muscular system

c)

upper respiratory

d)

digestive

14.

Tetanus is also referred to as which of the following?

a)

lockmouth

b)

lockjaw

c)

lockthroat

d)

lockface

15.

Which bacterial disease is highly contagious and can be contracted through direct or indirect contact?

a)

botulism

b)

rabies

c)

strangles

d)

influenza

16.

Equine Infectious Anemia is spread by which of the following?

a)

parasites

b)

horse flies

c)

mosquitos

d)

rodents

17.

Which two herpes viruses cause sever clinical signs?

a)

EHV-1, EHV2

b)

EHV2, EHV4

c)

EHV1, EHV4

d)

EHV6, EHV4

18.

Which of the following is a genotype for rabies which is carried by raccoons, skunks and foxes?

a)

variant

b)

classic

c)

non-variant

d)

carrier

19.

Influenza is most commonly caused by what type of virus?

a)

Type D

b)

Type C

c)

Type B

d)

Type A

20.

Rabies is considered which type of disease?

a)

Bacterial

b)

non-communicable

c)

infectious

d)

zoonotic

21.

Which of the following animals is the source of infective sporocysts causing EPM?

a)

raccoons

b)

mice

c)

opossums

d)

skunks

22.

EPM is a disease caused by a protozoan affecting which part of a horse?

a)

digestive system

b)

muscular syste

c)

central nervous system

d)

respiratory

23.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of EPM?

a)

stiffness

b)

coughing

c)

head tilt

d)

paralysis

24.

To help prevent EPM, a horse owner should do which of the following?

a)

keep feed closed in metal containers

b)

keep feed covered with a tarp

c)

keep feed in bags

d)

keep feed outside

25.

How does a horse contract EPM?

a)

being bitten by a opossum

b)

ingesting residue from opossum feces

c)

being bitten by a sknk

d)

ingesting residue from mice feces

26.

What is it called when the laminae in the foot becomes so inflamed and damaged it no longer supports the coffin bone, which then rotates and sinks?

a)

acute laminitis

b)

symptomatic laminits

c)

chronic laminnitis

d)

asymptomatic laminitis

27.

Osteochondrosis Dissecans is NOT caused by which of the following?

a)

mineral deficiencies

b)

high energy diet

c)

contaminated feed

d)

growing too fast

28.

Wobbler syndrome is the malformation or compression of what part of the horse?

a)

leg bones

b)

joints

c)

spinal cord

d)

hip bone

29.

Wobbler syndrome typically affects what type of horse?

a)

older

b)

younger

c)

middle aged

d)

both a and b

30.

Which of the following will NOT help prevent Osteochondrosis Dissecans?

a)

provide balanced diet

b)

regular exercise

c)

high energy diet

d)

routine examination

31.

Which of the following diseases causes the skin to rip and tear easily?

a)

HERDA

b)

Lavender foal syndrome

c)

PSSM

d)

LFS

32.

Which of the following diseases is only found in the Arabian horse breed?

a)

Hereditary equine regional fermal asthenia

b)

PSSM

c)

Lavender Foal Syndrome

d)

ESPM

33.

Which of the following is a disease where the horse’s muscles are unable to store glucose (sugars) for energy?

a)

HERDA

b)

PSSM

c)

CCDL

d)

LFS

34.

Which of the following diseases primarily affects quarter horses, draft horses and warmbloods?

a)

HERDA

b)

PSSM

c)

CCDL

d)

LFS

35.

Which of the following diseases only affects the quarter horse breed?

a)

LFS

b)

PSSM

c)

HERDA

d)

EPSM

36.

Which of the following is a behavioral disorder which causes horses to refuse to eat or lower their feed intake?

a)

Geophagia

b)

cribbing

c)

anorexia

d)

windsucking

37.

Which of the following is a disorder in horses which causes them to ingest sand or dirt which is rich in iron or copper?

a)

cribbing

b)

anorexia

c)

windsucking

d)

geophagia

38.

Which of the following behavioral disorders causes damage to the incisors?

a)

cribbing

b)

geogphagia

c)

anorexia

d)

overeating

39.

Which of the following may cause intestinal obstruction?

a)

anorexia

b)

windsucking

c)

geophagia

d)

cribbing

40.

Which of the following is often caused by social or environmental changes?

a)

cribbing

b)

anorexia

c)

geophagia

d)

windsucking

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