wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Antibacterial drugs (except antimycobacterials)

Total questions: 62

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A 45-year-old male presented to the hospital 3 days ago with severe cellulitis and a large abscess on his left leg. Incision and drainage were performed on the abscess, and cultures revealed methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus. Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment option for once- daily outpatient intravenous therapy?

a)

Ertapenem

b)

Ceftaroline

c)

Daptomycin

d)

Piperacillin/tazobactam

2.

Which of the following adverse effects is associated with daptomycin?

a)

Ototoxicity

b)

Red man syndrome

c)

QTc prolongation

d)

Rhabdomyolisis

3.

A 72-year-old male is admitted to the hospital from

a nursing home with severe pneumonia. He was

recently discharged from the hospital 1 week ago

after open heart surgery. The patient has no known

allergies. Which of the following regimens is most

appropriate for empiric coverage of methicillin-

resistant Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas

aeruginosa in this patient?

a)

Vancomycin + cefepime + ciprofloxacin

b)

Vancomycin + cefazolin + ciprofloxacin

c)

Telavancin + cefazolin + ciprofloxacin

d)

Daptomycin + cefepime + ciprofloxacin

4.

A 23-year-old male presents with acute appendicitis that ruptures shortly after admission. He is taken to the operating room for surgery, and postsurgical cultures reveal Escherichia coli and Bacteroides fragilis, susceptibilities pending. Which of the following provides adequate empiric coverage of these two pathogens?

a)

Cefepime

b)

Piperacillin/tazobactam

c)

Aztreonam

d)

Ceftaroline

5.

A 68-year-old male presents from a nursing home with fever, increased urinary frequency and urgency, and mental status changes. He has a penicillin allergy of anaphylaxis. Which of the following β-lactams is the most appropriate choice for gram-negative coverage of this patient’s urinary tract infection?

a)

Cefepime

b)

Ertapenem

c)

Aztreonam

d)

Ceftaroline

6.

A 25-year-old male presents to the urgent care center with a painless sore on his genitals that started 1 to 2 weeks ago. He reports unprotected sex with a new partner about a month ago. A blood test confirms the patient has Treponema pallidum. Which of the following is the drug of choice for the treatment of this patient’s infection as a single dose?

a)

Benzathine penicillin G

b)

Ceftriaxone

c)

Aztreonam

d)

Vancomycin

7.

A 20-year-old female presents to the emergency room with headache, stiff neck, and fever for 2 days and is diagnosed with meningitis. Which of the following agents is the best choice for the treatment of meningitis in this patient?

a)

Cefazolin

b)

Cefdinir

c)

Cefotaxime

d)

Cefuroxime axetil

8.

Which of the following cephalosporins has activity against gram-negative anaerobic pathogens like Bacteroides fragilis?

a)

Cefoxitin

b)

Cefepime

c)

Ceftriaxone

d)

Cefazolin

9.

In which of the following cases would it be appropriate to use telavancin?

a)

A 29-year-old pregnant female with ventilator- associated pneumonia.

b)

A 76-year-old male with hospital-acquired pneumonia also receiving amiodarone for atrial fibrillation.

c)

A 36-year-old male with cellulitis and abscess growing MRSA.

d)

A 72-year-old female with a diabetic foot infection growing MRSA who has moderate renal dysfunction.

10.

An 18-year-old female presents to the urgent care clinic with urinary frequency, urgency, and fever for the past 3 days. Based on symptoms and a urinalysis, she is diagnosed with a urinary tract infection. Cultures reveal Enterococcus faecalis that is pan sensitive. Which of the following is an appropriate oral option to treat the urinary tract infection in this patient?

a)

Cephalexin

b)

Vancomycin

c)

Cefdinir

d)

Amoxicillin

11.

The primary mechanism of antibacterial action of the penicillins involves inhibition of

a)

Beta-lactamases

b)

Cell membrane synthesis

c)

N-acetylmuramicacidsynthesis

d)

Peptidoglycan cross-linking

e)

Transglycosylation

12.

A 33-year-old man was seen in a clinic with a complaint of dysuria and urethral discharge of yellow pus. He had a painless clean-based ulcer on the penis and non-tender enlargement of the regional lymph nodes. Gram stain of the urethral exudate showed gram-negative diplococci within PMNs. The patient informed the clinic staff that he was unemployed and had not eaten a meal for 2 d. The most appropriate treatment of gonorrhea in this patient is:

a)

A single intramuscular dose of ceftriaxone

b)

Amoxicillin orally for 7 d

c)

Procaine penicillin G intramuscularly as a single dose

plus oral probenecid

d)

Meropenem orally for 7 d

e)

Vancomycin intramuscularly as a single dose

13.

A 33-year-old man was seen in a clinic with a complaint of dysuria and urethral discharge of yellow pus. He had a painless clean-based ulcer on the penis and non-tender enlargement of the regional lymph nodes. Gram stain of the urethral exudate showed gram-negative diplococci within PMNs. He receives an intrumuscular dose of ceftriaxone. Immunofluorescent microscopic examination of fluid expressed from the penile chancre of this patient revealed treponemes. Because he appears to be infected with Treponema pallidum, the best course of action would be to

a)

Administer a single oral dose of fosfomycin

b)

Give no other antibiotics because ceftriaxone provides coverage for incubating syphilis

c)

Inject intramuscular benzathine penicillin G

d)

Treat with oral tetracycline for 7 d

e)

Treat with vancomycin

14.

Which of the following statements about β-lactam antibiotics is false?

a)

Cephalexin and other first-generation cephalosporins do not cross the blood-brain barrier

b)

Ceftriaxone and nafcillin are both eliminated mainly via biliary secretion

c)

Instability of penicillins in gastric acid can limit their oral absorption

d)

Renal tubular reabsorption of amoxicillin is inhibited by probenecid

e)

Ticarcillin has activity against several gram negative rods

15.

A 36-year-old woman recently treated for leukemia is admitted to the hospital with malaise, chills, and high fever. Gram stain of blood reveals the presence of gram-negative bacilli. The initial diagnosis is bacteremia, and parenteral antibiotics are indicated. The records of the patient reveal that she had a severe urticarial rash, hypotension, and respiratory difficulty after oral penicillin V about 6 mo ago. The most appropriate drug regimen for empiric treatment is

a)

Aztreonam

b)

Ceftriaxone

c)

Meropenem

d)

Oxacillin

e)

Ticarcillin/clavulanic acid

16.

A 52-year-old man (weight 70 kg) is brought to the hospital emergency department in a confused and delirious state. He has had an elevated temperature for more than 24 h, during which time he had complained of a severe headache and had suffered from nausea and vomiting. Lumbar puncture reveals an elevated opening pressure, and cerebrospinal fluid findings include elevated protein, decreased glucose, and increased neutrophils. Gram stain of a smear of cerebrospinal fluid reveals gram-positive diplococci, and a preliminary diagnosis is made of purulent meningitis. The microbiology report informs you that for approximately 15% of S pneumoniae isolates in the community, the minimal inhibitory concentration for penicillin G is 20 mcg/mL. Treatment of this patient should be initiated immediately with intravenous administration of

a)

Amoxicillin

b)

Cephalexin

c)

Ceftriaxone + vancomycin

d)

Nafcillin

e)

Piperacillin

17.

Resistance of pneumococci to penicillin G is due to

a)

Alterations in porin structure

b)

Beta-lactamase production

c)

Changes in chemical structure of target penicillin-binding

proteins

d)

Changes in the d-Ala-d-Ala building block of peptidoglycan precursor

e)

Decreased intracellular accumulation of penicillin G

18.

A 82-year-old man (weight 70 kg) is brought to the hospital emergency department in a confused and delirious state. He has had an elevated temperature for more than 24 h, during which time he had complained of a severe headache and had suffered from nausea and vomiting. Gram stain of the smear of cerebrospinal fluid has revealed gram-positive rods resembling diphtheroids (L. monocytogenes). The antibiotic regimen for empiric treatment would include

a)

Ampicillin

b)

Cefoxitin

c)

Ceftriaxone

d)

Vancomycin

e)

Fosfomycin

19.

A patient needs antibiotic treatment for native valve, culture-positive infective enterococcal endocarditis. His medical history includes a severe anaphylactic reaction to penicillin G during the last year. The best approach would be treatment with

a)

Amoxicillin-clavulanate

b)

Aztreonam

c)

Ceftriaxone

d)

Ticarcillin

e)

Vancomycin

20.

Which statement about vancomycin is accurate?

a)

Active against methicillin-resistant staphylococci

b)

Bacteriostatic

c)

Binds to PBPs

d)

Hepatic metabolism

e)

Oral bioavailability

21.

Which of the following antibiotic combinations is inappropriate based on antagonism at the same site of action?

a)

Clindamycin and erythromycin.

b)

Doxycycline and amoxicillin.

c)

Tigecycline and azithromycin.

d)

Ciprofloxacin and amoxicillin.

22.

Children younger than 8 years of age should not receive tetracyclines because these agents:

a)

Cause rupture of tendons.

b)

Deposit in tissues undergoing calcification.

c)

Do not cross into the cerebrospinal fluid.

d)

Can cause aplastic anemia.

23.

A 30-year-old pregnant female has cellulitis caused by MRSA. Which of the following antibiotics would be the most appropriate option for outpatient therapy?

a)

Doxycycline

b)

Clindamycin

c)

Quinupristin/dalfopristin

d)

Tigecycline

24.

A patient is being discharged from the hospital on a 3-week course of clindamycin. Which of the following potential adverse effects should be discussed with her?

a)

Hyperbilirubinemia

b)

Nephrotoxicity

c)

Clostridium difficile diarrhea

d)

Pseudotumor cerebri

25.

A 4-year-old child is brought to the hospital after ingesting pills that a parent had used for bacterial dysentery when traveling outside the United States. The child has been vomiting for more than 24 h and has had diarrhea with green stools. She is now lethargic with an ashen color. Other signs and symptoms include hypothermia, hypotension, and abdominal distention. The drug most likely to be the cause of this problem is

a)

Ampicillin

b)

Azithromycin

c)

Chloramphenicol

d)

Doxycycline

e)

Erythromycin

26.

The mechanism of antibacterial action of tetracycline involves

a)

Antagonism of bacterial translocase activity

b)

Binding to a component of the 50S ribosomal subunit

c)

Inhibition of DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

d)

Interference with binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to bacterial

ribosomes

e)

Selective inhibition of ribosomal peptidyl transferases

27.

Clarithromycin and erythromycin have very similar spectra of antimicrobial activity. The major advantage of clarithromycin is that it

a)

Does not inhibit hepatic drug-metabolizing enzymes

b)

Eradicates mycoplasma infections in a single dose

c)

Has greater activity against H pylori, T gondii, M avium complex

d)

Is active against methicillin-resistant strains of

staphylococci

e)

Is active against strains of streptococci that are resistant

to erythromycin

28.

The primary mechanism of resistance of gram-positive organisms to macrolide antibiotics including erythromycin is

a)

Changes in the 30S ribosomal subunit

b)

Decreased drug permeability of the cytoplasmic membrane

c)

Formation of drug-inactivating acetyltransferases

d)

Formation of esterases that hydrolyze the lactone ring

e)

Methylation of binding sites on the 50S ribosomal

subunit

29.

A 26-year-old woman was treated for a suspected chlamydial infection at a neighborhood clinic. She was given a prescription for oral doxycycline to be taken for 14 d. Three weeks later, she returned to the clinic with a mucopurulent cervicitis. On questioning she admitted not having the prescription filled. The best course of action at this point would be to

a)

Delay drug treatment until the infecting organism is identified

b)

Rewrite the original prescription for oral doxycycline

c)

Treat her in the clinic with a single oral dose of

azithromycin

d)

Treat her in the clinic with an intravenous dose of

amoxicillin

e)

Write a prescription for oral erythromycin for 10 d

30.

A 55-year-old patient with a prosthetic heart valve is to undergo a periodontal procedure involving scaling and root planing. Several years ago, the patient had a severe allergic reaction to procaine penicillin G. Regarding prophylaxis against bacterial endocarditis, which one of the following drugs taken orally is most appropriate?

a)

Amoxicillin 10 min before the procedure

b)

Clindamycin 1 h before the procedure

c)

Erythromycin 1h before the procedure and 4h after the

procedure

d)

Vancomycin 15 min before the procedure

e)

No prophylaxis is needed because this patient is in the

negligible risk category

31.

A 24-year-old woman comes to a clinic with complaints of dry cough, headache, fever, and malaise, which have lasted 3 or 4 d. She appears to have some respiratory difficulty, and chest examination reveals rales but no other obvious signs of pulmonary involvement. However, extensive patchy infiltrates are seen on chest x-ray film. Gram stain of expectorated sputum fails to reveal any bacterial pathogens. The patient mentions that a colleague at work had similar symptoms to those she is experiencing. The patient has no history of serious medical problems. She takes loratadine for allergies and supplementary iron tablets, and she drinks at least 6 cups of caffeinated coffee per day. The physician makes an initial diagnosis of community- acquired pneumonia.


Regarding the treatment of this patient, which of the following drugs is most suitable?

a)

Ampicillin

b)

Clindamycin

c)

Doxycycline

d)

Linezolid

e)

Vancomycin

32.

A 24-year-old woman comes to a clinic with complaints of dry cough, headache, fever, and malaise, which have lasted 3 or 4 d. She appears to have some respiratory difficulty, and chest examination reveals rales but no other obvious signs of pulmonary involvement. However, extensive patchy infiltrates are seen on chest x-ray film. Gram stain of expectorated sputum fails to reveal any bacterial pathogens. The patient mentions that a colleague at work had similar symptoms to those she is experiencing. The patient has no history of serious medical problems. She takes loratadine for allergies and supplementary iron tablets, and she drinks at least 6 cups of caffeinated coffee per day. The physician makes an initial diagnosis of community- acquired pneumonia.


If this patient were to be treated with erythromycin, she should:

a)

Avoid exposure to sunlight

b)

Avoid taking supplementary iron tablets

c)

Decrease her intake of caffeinated beverages

d)

Have her plasma urea nitrogen or creatinine checked

before treatment

e)

Temporarily stop taking loratadine

33.

A 24-year-old woman comes to a clinic with complaints of dry cough, headache, fever, and malaise, which have lasted 3 or 4 d. She appears to have some respiratory difficulty, and chest examination reveals rales but no other obvious signs of pulmonary involvement. However, extensive patchy infiltrates are seen on chest x-ray film. Gram stain of expectorated sputum fails to reveal any bacterial pathogens. The patient mentions that a colleague at work had similar symptoms to those she is experiencing. The patient has no history of serious medical problems. She takes loratadine for allergies and supplementary iron tablets, and she drinks at least 6 cups of caffeinated coffee per day. The physician makes an initial diagnosis of community- acquired pneumonia.


A 5-d course of treatment for community-acquired pneumonia would be effective in this patient with little risk of drug interactions if the drug prescribed were:

a)

Azithromycin

b)

Clindamycin

c)

Doxycycline

d)

Erythromycin

e)

Vancomycin

34.

Concerning quinupristin-dalfopristin, which statement is accurate?

a)

Active in treatment of infections caused by E faecalis

b)

An effective drug in treatment of multidrug-resistant

streptococcal infections

c)

Bacteriostatic

d)

Hepatotoxicity has led to FDA drug alerts

e)

Increase the activity of hepatic drug-metabolizing

enzymes

35.

Regarding the mechanism of action of aminoglycosides, the drugs

a)

Are bacteriostatic

b)

Bind to the 50S ribosomal subunit

c)

Cause misreading of the code on the mRNA template

d)

Inhibit peptidyl transferase

e)

Stabilize polysomes

36.

A 72-kg patient with creatinine clearance of 80 mL/min has a gram-negative infection. Amikacin is administered intra- muscularly at a dose of 5 mg/kg every 8 h, and the patient begins to respond. After 2 d, creatinine clearance declines to 40 mL/min. Assuming that no information is available about amikacin plasma levels, what would be the most reasonable approach to management of the patient at this point?

a)

Administer 5 mg/kg every 12 h

b)

Decrease the dosage to daily total of 200 mg

c)

Decrease the dosage to 180 mg every 8h

d)

Discontinue amikacin and switch to gentamicin

e)

Maintain the patient on the present dosage and test

auditory function

37.

All of the following statements about the clinical uses of the aminoglycosides are accurate except:

a)

Effective in the treatment of infections caused by anaerobes such as Bacteroides fragilis

b)

Gentamycin is used with ampicillin for synergistic effects in the treatment of enterococcal endocarditis

c)

In the treatment of a hospital-acquired infection caused by Serratia marcescens, netilmicin is more effective than streptomycin

d)

Often used with cephalosporins in the empiric treatment of life-threatening bacterial infections

e)

Owing to their polar nature, aminoglycosides are not absorbed after oral administration

38.

Which statement is accurate regarding the antibacterial action of the aminoglycoside amikacin?

a)

Antibacterial activity is often reduced by the presence of an inhibitor of cell wall synthesis

b)

Antibacterial action is not concentration-dependent

c)

Antibacterial action is time-dependent

d)

Efficacy is directly proportional to the duration of time

that the plasma level is greater than the minimal inhibitory

concentration

e)

The drug continues to exert antibacterial effects even

after plasma levels decrease below detectable levels

39.

An adult patient (weight 80 kg) has bacteremia suspected to be due to a gram-negative rod. Tobramycin is to be administered using a once-daily dosing regimen, and the loading dose must be calculated to achieve a peak plasma level of 20 mg/L. Assume that the patient has normal renal function. Pharmacokinetic parameters of tobramycin in this patient are as follows: Vd = 30L; t1/2 = 3h; CL = 80 mL/min. What loading dose should be given?

a)

100 mg

b)

200 mg

c)

400 mg

d)

600 mg

e)

800 mg

40.

A 76-year-old man is seen in a hospital emergency department complaining of pain in and behind the right ear. Physical examination shows edema of the external otic canal with purulent exudate and weakness of the muscles on the right side of the face. The patient informs the physician that he is a diabetic. Gram stain of the exudate from the ear shows many PMNs and gram-negative rods, and samples are sent to the microbiology laboratory for culture and drug susceptibility testing. A preliminary diagnosis is made of external otitis. At this point, which of the following is most appropriate?

a)

Amikacin should be injected intramuscularly and the patient should be sent home

b)

Analgesics should be prescribed, but antibiotics should be withheld pending microbiological results

c)

Oral cefaclor should be prescribed together with analgesics, and the patient should be sent home

d)

The patient should be hospitalized and treatment started with imipenem-cilastatin

e)

The patient should be hospitalized and treatment started with gentamicin plus ticarcillin

41.

Regarding the toxicity of aminoglycosides which statement is accurate?

a)

Gentamicin and tobramycin are the least likely to cause renal damage

b)

Ototoxicity due to amikacin and gentamicin includes vestibular dysfunction, which is often irreversible

c)

Ototoxicity is reduced if loop diuretics are used to facilitate the renal excretion of aminoglycoside antibiotics

d)

Reduced blood creatinine is an early sign of aminoglycoside nephrotoxicity

e)

Skin reactions are very rare following topical use of neomycin

42.

This drug has characteristics almost identical to those of gentamicin but has much weaker activity in combination with penicillin against enterococci.

a)

Amikacin

b)

Eryhtromycin

c)

Netilmycin

d)

Spectinomycin

e)

Tobramycin

43.

Your 23-year-old female patient is pregnant and has gonorrhea. The medical history includes anaphylaxis following exposure to amoxicillin. The most appropriate drug to use is

a)

Azithromycin

b)

Cefixime

c)

Ceftriaxone

d)

Ciprofloxacin

e)

Doxycycline

44.

Which statement about “once-daily” dosing with aminoglycosides is not accurate?

a)

Dose adjustment is less important in renal dysfunction

b)

It is convenient for outpatient treatment

c)

Less nursing time is required for drug administration

d)

Often less side effects than multiple (conventional) dosing

regimens

e)

Underdosing is less of a problem

45.

A 32-year-old male presents to an outpatient clinic with a 5-day history of productive cough, purulent sputum, and shortness of breath. He is diagnosed with community- acquired pneumonia (CAP). It is noted that this patient has a severe ampicillin allergy (anaphylaxis). Which of the following would be an acceptable treatment for this patient?

a)

Levofloxacin

b)

Ciprofloxacin

c)

Penicillin VK

d)

Nitrofurantoin

46.

A 22-year-old female presents with a 2-day history of dysuria with increased urinary frequency and urgency. A urine culture and urinalysis are done. She is diagnosed with a urinary tract infection (UTI) caused by E. coli. All of the following would be considered appropriate therapy for this patient except:

a)

Levofloxacin

b)

Cotrimoxazole

c)

Moxifloxacin

d)

Nitrofurantoin

47.

Which of the following drugs is correctly matched with the appropriate adverse effect?

a)

Levofloxacin—hyperkalemia.

b)

Nitrofurantoin—pulmonary fibrosis.

c)

Cotrimoxazole—hepatic encephalopathy.

d)

Methenamine—nystagmus.

48.

Cotrimoxazole would be expected to provide coverage for all of the following organisms except:

a)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

b)

Community-acquired MRSA

c)

Nocardia asteroides

d)

Stenotrophomonas maltophilia

49.

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole is established to be effective against which of the following opportunistic infections in the AIDS patient?

a)

Cryptococcal meningitis

b)

Herpes simplex

c)

Oral candidiasis

d)

Toxoplasmosis

e)

Tuberculosis

50.

A 65-year-old woman has returned from a vacation abroad suffering from traveler’s diarrhea, and her problem has not responded to antidiarrheal drugs. A pathogenic gram-negative bacillus is suspected. Which drug is most likely to be effective in the treatment of this patient?

a)

Ampicillin

b)

Ofloxacin

c)

Sulfadiazine

d)

Trimethoprim

e)

Vancomycin

51.

Which statement about the clinical use of sulfonamides is false?

a)

Active against C trachomatis and can be used topically for treatment of chlamydial infections of the eye

b)

Are not effective as sole agents in the treatment of prostatitis

c)

Effective in Rocky Mountain spotted fever

d)

In some bacterial strains resistance occurs via increased

PABA formation

e)

Reduced intracellular uptake is a mechanism of sulfonamide resistance in some bacterial strains

52.

A 31-year-old man has gonorrhea. He has no drug allergies, but a few years ago acute hemolysis followed use of an anti-malarial drug. The physician is concerned that the patient has an accompanying urethritis caused by C trachomatis, although no cultures or enzyme tests have been performed. Which of the following drugs will be reliably effective against both gonococci and C trachomatis and safe to use in this patient?

a)

Cefixime

b)

Ciprofloxacin

c)

Spectinomycin

d)

Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim

e)

None of the above

53.

Which statement about the fluoroquinolones is accurate?

a)

Antacids increase their oral bioavailability

b)

Contraindicated in patients with hepatic dysfunction

c)

Fluoroquinolones are drugs of choice in a 6-year-old child with a urinary tract infection

d)

Gonococcal resistance to fluoroquinolones may involve

changes in DNA gyrase

e)

Modification of moxifloxacin dosage is required in

patients when creatinine clearance is less than 50 mL/ min

54.

A 40-year-old man complains of periodic bouts of diarrhea with lower abdominal cramping and intermittent rectal bleeding. Seen in the clinic, he appears well nourished, with blood pressure in the normal range. Examination reveals moderate abdominal pain and tenderness. His cur- rent medications are limited to loperamide for his diarrhea. Sigmoidoscopy reveals mucosal edema, friability, and some pus. Laboratory findings include mild anemia and decreased serum albumin. Microbiologic examination via stool cultures and mucosal biopsies do not reveal any evidence for bacterial, amebic, or cytomegalovirus involvement. The most appropriate drug to use in this patient is

a)

Ampicillin

b)

Doxycycline

c)

Norfloxacin

d)

Sulfasalazine

e)

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

55.

Which adverse effect is most common with sulfonamides?

a)

Fanconi’s aminoaciduria syndrome

b)

Hematuria

c)

Kernicterus in the newborn

d)

Neurologic dysfunction

e)

Skin rash

56.

Which drug is effective in the treatment of nocardiosis and, in combination with pyrimethamine, is prophylactic against Pneumocystis jirovecii infections in AIDS patients?

a)

Amoxicillin

b)

Erythromycin

c)

Levofloxacin

d)

Sulfadiazine

e)

Trimethoprim

57.

Which statement about ciprofloxacin is accurate?

a)

Antagonism occurs if used with dihydrofolate reductase

inhibitors

b)

Ciprofloxacin is active against MRSA strains of

staphylococci

c)

Most “first-time” urinary tract infections are resistant to

ciprofloxacin

d)

Organisms that commonly cause ear infections are

highly resistant

e)

Tendinitis may occur during treatment

58.

Supplementary folinic acid may prevent anemia in folate- deficient persons who use this drug; it is a weak base achieving tissue levels similar to those in plasma

a)

Ciprofloxacin

b)

Levofloxacin

c)

Linezolid

d)

Sulfamethoxazole

e)

Trimethoprim

59.

A woman being treated for a urinary tract infection complains of heel pain and is found to have an inflamed Achilles tendon. Bacterial resistance to the agent causing this adverse effect may result from decreased binding to which cell constituent?

a)

membrane phospholipid

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

folate reductase

d)

topoisomerase

e)

divalent cations

60.

A man with a staphylococcal infection is placed on a drug

that disrupts plasma membrane function. He should be monitored for which adverse effect?

a)

muscle toxicity

b)

tendonitis

c)

megaloblastic anemia

d)

Stevens-Johnson syndrome

e)

renal impairment

61.

A man treated for a Nocardia asteroides infection subsequently develops hemolytic anemia. Which condition would predispose the patient to this adverse effect?

a)

immunodeficiency

b)

folate deficiency

c)

glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

d)

iron deficiency

e)

thiamine deficiency

62.

A woman with traveler’s diarrhea was treated with an agent that is not absorbed from the gut. Which agent was most likely used for this condition?

a)

ciprofloxacin

b)

rifaximin

c)

trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

d)

daptomycin

e)

nitrofurantoin