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UAS Project Management

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

You are managing a software project. Your QA manager tells you that you need to plan to have her team start their test planning activity so that it finishes just before testing begins. But other than that, she says it can start as late in the project as necessary. What’s the relationship between the test planning activity and the testing activity?

a)

Start-to-Start (SS)

b)

Start-to-finish (SF)

c)

Finish-to-Start (FS)

d)

Finish-to-Finish (FF)

2.

Which of the following is NOT a tool or technique used in Estimate Activity Durations?

a)

SWAG Estimation

b)

Parametric Estimation

c)

Analogous Estimation

d)

Three-Point Estimation

3.
a)

Start-A-B-C-Finish

b)

Start-A-D-E-F-Finish

c)

Start-G-H-I-J-Finish

d)

Start-A-B-J-Finish

4.

A project manager is having trouble securing programmers for her project. Every time she asks the programming manager for resources for her project, he says they’re all assigned to other work. So she is constanly having to go over his head to overrule him. Which type of organixation is she working for ?

a)

Functional

b)

Strong Matrix

c)

Weak Matrix

d)

Projectized

5.

What’s the correct order og the time management planning processes?

a)

Sequence Activities, Define Activities, Estimate Activity Resources, Estimate Activity Durations, Develop Schedule

b)

Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Develop Schedule, Estimate Activity Resources, Estimate Activity Durations

c)

Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Resources, Estimate Activity Durations, Develop Schedule

d)

Develop Schedule, Define Activities, Sequence Activities, , Estimate Activity Resources, Estimate Activity Durations

6.

You’re working on a project that has an EV of $7362 and a PV (BCWS) of $8232 what’s your SV?

a)

-$870

b)

$870

c)

0.89

d)

Not enough information to tell

7.

Given this portion of the notwork diagram to the right, what’s the ES of activity F?

a)

9

b)

10

c)

12

d)

13

8.

Given this portion of the Given this portion of the notwork diagram to the right, what’s the LF of activity F?

a)

10

b)

11

c)

16

d)

17

9.

You’re a project manager working in a weak matrix organization. Which of the following is NOT true?

a)

Your team members report to functional managers

b)

You are not in directly charge of resources

c)

Functional managers make decisions that can affect your projects

d)

You have sole responsibility for the success or failure of the project

10.

You’re on the project selection committee. You’re reviewing a document that describes the strategic value of a potential project and its benefits to the company. What’s this document called?

a)

Project Charter

b)

Business Case

c)

Benefit measurement method

d)

Contract

11.

What is the output of Direct and Manage Execution?

a)

Approved change requests

b)

Project management processes

c)

Deliverables

d)

Forecasts

12.

Which of the following is NOT an example of operational work?

a)

Building a purchase order system for accounts payable

b)

Submitting weekly purchase orders through a purchase order system

c)

Deploying weekly anti-virus software updates

d)

Yearly staff performance evaluations

13.

You’re a project manager for a construction project. You’ve just finished creating a list of all of the people who will be directly affected by the project. What process group are you in?

a)

Initiating

b)

Executing

c)

Planning

d)

Monitoring & Controlling

14.

What is the float for activity F in the activity list to the right?

a)

Zero

b)

Seven

c)

Eight

d)

Ten

15.

You’re managing a project to remodel a kitchen. You use earned value calculations to figure out that you’re going to run $500 over budget if your project continues at the current rate. Which of the following core characteristics of a project manager are you using to find the problem?

a)

Knowledge

b)

Performance

c)

Personal

d)

There is no correct answer.

16.

Which process group contains the Develop Project Charter process and the Identify Stakeholders process?

a)

Initiating

b)

Executing

c)

Monitoring and Controlling

d)

Closing

17.

Given the network diagram below, what’s the critical path?

a)

Start-A-B-C-End

b)

Start-A-D-C-End

c)

Start-E-D-C-End

d)

Start-E-F-G-End

18.

You are working on a project with a PV of $56,733 and an SPI of 1.2. What’s the Earned Value of your project?

a)

$68,079.60

b)

$47,277.50

c)

$68,733

d)

72

19.

Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of a project manager?

a)

Managing stakeholder expectations

b)

Managing project contraints

c)

Gathering product requirements

d)

Sponsoring the project

20.

Which of the following BEST describes defect repair review?

a)

Reviewing the repaired defect whit the stakeholder to make sure it’s acceptable

b)

Reviewing the repaired defect defect whit the team to make sure they document lessons learned

c)

Reviewing the repaired defect to make sure it was fixed properly

d)

Reviewing the repaired defect to make sure it’s within the control limits

21.

Project managers spend what percentage of their time in communicating?

a)

90

b)

85

c)

75

d)

50

22.

What are decision models?

a)

Project selection criteria

b)

Project selection methods

c)

Project selection committees

d)

Project resource and budget selection methods

23.

You are the project manager for Xylophone Phonics. It produces children’s software programs that teach basic reading and math skills. You’re performing cost estimates for your project and don’t have a lot of details yet. Which of the following techniques should you use?

a)

Analogous estimating techniques, because this is a form of expert judgment that uses historical information from similar projects.

b)

Bottom-up estimating techniques, because this is a form of expert judgment that uses historical information from similar projects.

c)

Monte Carlo analysis, because this is a modeling technique that uses simulation to determine estimates.

d)

Parametric modeling, because this is a form of simulation used to determine estimates

24.

You know that PV= 470, AC= 480, EAC = 500, and BAC = 525. What about for VAC?

a)

70

b)

20

c)

25

d)

30

25.

What’s the difference between perform quality control and perform quality assurance?

a)

Perform Quality Control involves charts like histograms and control charts, while Perform Quality Asuurance doesn’t use those charts

b)

Perform Quality Control and Perform Quality Asuurance mean the same thing

c)

Perform Quality Control means inspecting for defects in deliverables, while Perform Quality Asuurance means auditing a project to check the overall process

d)

Perform Quality Control means looking for defects in deliverables, while Perform Quality Control means auditing a project to check the overall process

26.

Which is NOT an output of a scope management process?

a)

Business Case

b)

WBS Dictionary

c)

Requested changes

d)

Accepted deliverables

27.

Which of the following is NOT one of the top sources of conflict on projects?

a)

Resources

b)

Technical opinions

c)

Salaries

d)

Priorities

28.

Which of the following statements is true regarding the Project Management Knowledge Areas?

a)

They include Initiation, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing.

b)

They consist of nine areas that bring together processes that have things in common

c)

They consist of five processes that bring together phases of projects that have things in common

d)

They include Planning, Executing, and Monitoring and Controlling processes because these three processes are commonly interlinked

29.

The business need, product scope description, and strategic plan together describe elements of which of the following?

a)

Organizational process assets

b)

Tools and techniques of the initiating processes

c)

The project statement of work

d)

The project charte

30.

Which of the following is NOT true about overlapping phases?

a)

Each phase is typically done by a separate team

b)

There’s an increased risk of delays when a later phase can’t start until an earlier one ends

c)

There’s an increased risk to the project due to potential for rework

d)

Every phase must go through all five process groups

31.

What is one of the most important skills a project manager can have?

a)

Negotiation skills

b)

Influencing skills

c)

Communication skills

d)

Problem-solving skills

32.

Which of the following is NOT a part of quality?

a)

Fitness for use

b)

Conformance to requirements

c)

Value to the sponsor

d)

Customer satisfaction

33.

Risks that are caused by the response to another risk are called

a)

Residual risks

b)

Secondary risks

c)

Cumulative risks

d)

Mitigated risks

34.

What’s the difference between management reserves and contingency reserves?

a)

Management reserves are used to handle unknown unknowns, while contigency reservesare used to handle known unknowns

b)

Management reserves are used to handle known unknowns, while contigency reservesare are used to handle unknown unknowns

c)

Management reserves are used to handle high-priority risks, while contigency reservesare used to handle low-priority risks

d)

Management reserves are used to handle low-priority risks, while contigency reservesare are used to handle high-priority risks

35.

What’s the difference between Quality Control and Verify Scope?

a)

Quality Control is done at the end of the project, while Verify Scope is done throughout the project

b)

Quality Control means looking for defects in deliverables, while Verify Scope means verifying that the product is acceptable to the stakeholders

c)

Quality Control is performed by the project manager, while Verify Scope is done by the sponsor

d)

Quality Control is performed by the sponsor, while Verify Scope is done by the project manager

36.

Which performance measurement tells you the cost of the work that has been authorized and budgeted for a WBS component?

a)

PV

b)

EV

c)

AC

d)

BCWP

37.

What is the “halo effect”?

a)

When a project manager is good, the team is good, to

b)

The tendency to promote people who are good at technical jobs into managerial

positions

c)

When a project manager picks a star on the team and always rewards that person

d)

When a technical person does such a good job that no one can find fault with them

38.

Which of the following are tools and techniques of the identify stakeholder process?

a)

Stakeholder analysis and expert judgment

b)

Stakeholder analysis, expert judgment, and stakeholder register

c)

Stakeholder analysis

d)

Stakeholder analysis, stakeholder management strategy, and expert judgment

39.

Which risk analysis tool is used to model your risks by running simulations that calculate random outcomes and probabilities?

a)

Delphi technique

b)

EMV analysis

c)

Sensitivity analysis

d)

Monte Carlo analysis

40.

What’s the main output of the risk management processes?

a)

The risk management plan

b)

The risk breakdown structure

c)

The risk register

d)

Work performance information

41.

Which of the following is not an example of cost of quality?

a)

Having team members spend extra time reviewing requirements whit the stakeholders

b)

Hiring extra inspectors to look for defects

c)

Paying extra programmers to help meet a deadline

d)

Sending a crew to repair a defective product that was delivered to thw client

42.

Which of the following BEST describes risk audits?

a)

The project manager reviews each risk on the risk register with the team

b)

An external auditor reviews the risk response strategies for each risk

c)

A senior manager audits your work and decides whether you’re doing a good job

d)

An external auditor reviews the project work to make sure the team isn’t introducing new risk

43.

Which of the following is an example of noise?

a)

An email that’s sent to the wrong person

b)

A project manager who doesn’t notice an important clause in a contract

c)

Garbled text and smudges that make a fax of a photocopy hard to read

d)

When the team is not paying attention during a status meeting

44.

You are using an RBS to manage your risk categories. What process are you performing?

a)

Plan Risk Management

b)

Identify Risks

c)

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

d)

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

45.

You’ve consulted your earned value calculations to find out the EAC and ETC of your project. Which of the following is the BEST place to put that informations?

a)

Work performance informations

b)

Quality control measurements

c)

Forecasts

d)

Lessons learned

46.

Accomplish which is the best place to look for this information?

a)

Project plan

b)

Project charter

c)

Portfolio charter

d)

Program charter

47.

Which communications process is in the monitoring & controling process group?

a)

Distribute Infomation

b)

Manage Stakeholder Expectations

c)

Report performance

d)

Plancommunications

48.

You’ve just received a change request. This means:

a)

The project charter is complete, but the work cannot begin yet because you need to make a change to the scope baseline

b)

You are in the Direct and Manage Execution process, and you can implement the change now

c)

The change needs to be approved before it can be implemented

d)

There is a defect in a deliverable that must be repaired

49.

Which of the following is NOT an output of Direct and Manage project Execution?

a)

Work performance information

b)

Deliverables

c)

Implemented change requests

d)

Forecasts

50.

Which of the following is NOT an input to the Plan Communications process?

a)

Enterprise environmental factors

b)

Organizational process assets

c)

Information gathering techniques

d)

Project scope statement