WorksheetsEMT FINAL
Total questions: 239
Worksheet time: 2hrs 0mins
Deoxygenated blood from the body returns to the:
right atrium.
right ventricle.
left atrium.
left ventricle.
Angina pectoris occurs when:
a coronary artery is totally occluded by plaque.
myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply.
one or more coronary arteries suddenly spasm.
myocardial oxygen supply exceeds the demand.
The electrical impulse generated by the heart originates in the:
bundle of His.
coronary sinus.
atrioventricular node.
sinoatrial node.
A 49-year-old male presents with an acute onset of crushing chest pain and diaphoresis. You should:
administer up to 324 mg of baby aspirin.
administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin.
obtain vital signs and a SAMPLE history.
assess the adequacy of his respirations.
You and your partner arrive at the scene of a middle-aged man who collapsed about 5 minutes ago. He is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. Bystanders are present, but have not provided any care. You should:
begin high-quality CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible.
have your partner perform CPR while you question the bystanders.
perform two-rescuer CPR for 5 minutes and request ALS backup.
immediately apply the AED pads and analyze his cardiac rhythm.
The only vein(s) in the body that carry oxygenated blood is/are the:
external jugular veins.
subclavian veins.
pulmonary veins.
inferior vena cava.
In general, a maximum of _____ dose(s) of nitroglycerin is/are given for any one episode of chest pain.
2
3
4
5
What is the function of the left atrium?
It ejects oxygenated blood into the aorta.
It receives oxygenated blood from the lungs.
It receives blood from the pulmonary arteries.
It receives oxygenated blood from the vena cava.
When an electrical impulse reaches the AV node, it is slowed for a brief period of time so that:
blood can pass from the atria to the ventricles.
blood returning from the body can fill the atria.
the impulse can spread through the Purkinje fibers.
the SA node can reset and generate another impulse.
Major risk factors for AMI include all of the following, EXCEPT:
hypoglycemia.
hypertension.
diabetes mellitus.
elevated cholesterol.
The three major parts of the brain are the:
cerebellum, medulla, and occiput.
brain stem, midbrain, and spinal cord.
midbrain, cerebellum, and spinal cord.
cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem.
The MOST significant risk factor for a hemorrhagic stroke is:
severe stress.
hypertension.
heavy exertion.
diabetes mellitus.
Which of the following conditions would be the LEAST likely to mimic the signs and symptoms of a stroke?
Hypoglycemia
Hypovolemia
A postictal state
Intracranial bleeding
Which of the following MOST accurately describes what the patient will experience during the postictal state that follows a seizure?
Hyperventilation and hypersalivation
A rapidly improving level of consciousness
Confusion and fatigue
A gradually decreasing level of consciousness
When caring for a patient with documented hypoglycemia, you should be MOST alert for:
a seizure.
an acute stroke.
violent, explosive diarrhea.
a febrile convulsion.
Which of the following conditions would MOST likely affect the entire brain?
Blocked cerebral artery in the frontal lobe
Reduced blood supply to the left hemisphere
Ruptured cerebral artery in the occipital lobe
Respiratory failure or cardiopulmonary arrest
The most basic functions of the body, such as breathing, blood pressure, and swallowing, are controlled by the:
brain stem.
cerebrum.
cerebellum.
cerebral cortex.
Which of the following is a metabolic cause of a seizure?
Poisoning
Head trauma
Brain tumor
Massive stroke
Febrile seizures:
often result in permanent brain damage.
are also referred to as absence seizures.
are usually benign but should be evaluated.
occur when a child's fever rises slowly.
You are dispatched to a residence for a 66-year-old male who, according to family members, has suffered a massive stroke. Your primary assessment reveals that the patient is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. You should:
assess the patient for a facial droop and hemiparesis.
initiate CPR and attach an AED as soon as possible.
obtain a blood glucose sample to rule out hypoglycemia.
perform CPR for 5 minutes before applying the AED.
Which of the following statements regarding the unified command system is correct?
The unified command system is one in which one person is in charge, even if multiple agencies respond to a disaster or mass-casualty incident.
Ideally, the unified command system is used for short-duration, limited incidents that require the services of a single agency from one jurisdiction.
In a unified command system, there are separate ICs for fire, police, EMS, and any other agencies that respond to the incident.
Under the unified command system, plans are drawn up in advance by all cooperating agencies that assume a shared responsibility for decision making.
If an incident increases in scope and complexity, the incident commander should consider:
ceasing all operations until a revised plan is established.
maintaining responsibility for all of the command functions.
relinquishing command to someone with more experience.
requesting a second incident commander to assist him or her.
At a very large incident, the __________ section is responsible for managing the tactical operations usually handled by the incident commander on routine EMS calls
logistics
operations
planning
finance
A critical function of the safety officer is to:
determine the most efficient approach to extricate a victim.
stop an emergency operation whenever a rescuer is in danger.
monitor emergency responders for signs of stress and anxiety.
brief responders during the demobilization phase of an incident.
Which of the following MOST accurately describes a mass-casualty incident?
An incident that involves more than five critically injured or ill patients
An incident where patients have been exposed to hazardous materials
An incident in which at least half of the patients are critically injured
An incident that greatly taxes or depletes a system's available resources
Which of the following activities occurs in the warm zone?
Command
Personnel staging
Decontamination
Medical monitoring
The term used when individual units or different organizations make independent, and often inefficient, decisions regarding an incident is called:
freelancing
undermining
logistical chaos
single command
A supervisor who has more than seven people reporting to him or her:
is more beneficial to the overall effort than a supervisor with fewer personnel because his or her team can accomplish more tasks.
should regularly report to the incident commander (IC) to inform him or her of the functions that his or her team is performing.
has exceeded an effective span of control and should divide tasks and delegate the supervision of some tasks to another person.
should assign a specific task to each person reporting to him or her and regularly follow up to ensure that the tasks were carried out.
In preparing for a disaster, EMS systems should have enough supplies for at least a ______ period of self-sufficiency.
24-hour
48-hour
72-hour
96-hour
The FIRST step in the START triage system is to:
focus on the patients who are unconscious.
scan the area for patients with severe bleeding.
move all walking patients to a designated area.
get a quick head count of all the patients involved.
Most terrorist attacks:
are carried out by fewer than three people.
occur within the continental United States.
involve the use of nuclear explosive devices.
require multiple terrorists working together.
Phosgene (CG) has an odor that resembles:
garlic
bleach.
almonds.
cut grass.
The primary route of exposure of vesicant agents is the:
skin.
nervous system.
vascular system.
respiratory tract.
Nerve agents, a class of chemicals called organophosphates, were first discovered while in search of a superior:
vaccine.
antibiotic.
pesticide
detergent.
Which of the following chemicals is a nerve agent?
Phosgene
Soman
Lewisite
Which of the following agents blocks the body's ability to use oxygen and possesses an odor similar to almonds?
Hydrogen cyanide
Phosgene oxime
Organophosphates
Carbon monoxide
A disease vector is defined as:
he spectrum of signs that define a disease.
the period of time between exposure and illness.
any agent that acts as a carrier or transporter.
The Centennial Park bombing during the 1996 Summer Olympics is an example of:
domestic terrorism
apocalyptic violence
an ecoterrorist attack
state-sponsored terrorism
To date, the preferred weapons of mass destruction for terrorists have been:
nuclear weapons
chemical weapons
biologic weapons
explosive weapons
Unlike viral agents, bacterial agents:
are far less infectious.
respond to antibiotics.
are usually not treatable.
do not replicate in the body.
You carry a jump bag to:
facilitate defibrillation within 5 to 10 minutes after making patient contact.
manage a critically injured patient until he or she is loaded into the ambulance.
carry advanced life support equipment approved by the EMS medical director.
contain anything that you might need during the first 5 minutes of patient care.
Transporting a patient to a hospital involves all the following, EXCEPT:
a written report
informing dispatch of arrival
restocking supplies
giving billing information to the clerk
If the safest place for you to park on a scene happens to face in the direction of oncoming traffic, you should:
quickly access the patient
light a few flares near the scene
turn off your headlights
turn off all warning lights
If someone is tailgating you while you're responding to an emergency call, you should:
let the driver pass you
speed up
brake-check the driver
stop and confront the driver
Which of the following is an example of regional equipment or supplies?
Oral glucose
Vacuum splint
DuoDote Auto-Injector
Inhaled bronchodilator
What's the least likely type of safety gear to be found on an ambulance?
face shields
hazmat gear
goggles
turnout gear
When is it most likely that you use a police escort?
The weather is treacherous and there are numerous roads washed out.
you are unfamiliar with the location, but the police officer knows the area.
you are transporting a critical pediatric patient through traffic.
The call is dispatched as an unresponsive patient with CPR in progress.
Your primary concern when arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash is:
gaining access to the patient(s).
requesting additional resources.
immediately beginning triage.
surveying the area for hazards and making sure the scene is safe.
The scene size-up at a motor vehicle crash or other incident:
is an ongoing process until the incident is terminated.
should be performed by the most experienced EMT.
is a quick visual assessment of the scene prior to entry.
determines who is allowed to safely enter the hot zone.
In order to evaluate hazards present at the scene and determine the number of patients, you should:
request the fire department at all scenes.
perform a 360-degree walk around of the scene.
use the information provided by dispatch.
interview bystanders present at the scene.
Upon arriving at the scene of a law enforcement tactical situation, you should ensure your own safety and then:
begin immediate triage of any injured personnel.
report to the incident commander for instructions.
You arrive at an accident scene to find an alternative-fuel vehicle leaking an unknown substance. You should immediately _________.
search the vehicle for occupants
disconnect the car battery
apply retardant to the leaking fuel
call for additional resources and keep bystanders away from the vehicle
The EMT's responsibility during search-and-rescue operations is to _________.
assist in the search on foot
direct other incoming EMS units
assume medical command
wait at the staging area until the patient is located
Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you can see three patients, one who is entrapped in his car and two who have been ejected from their vehicle. You should:
begin triage to determine injury severity.
call medical control for further direction.
immediately request additional resources.
request law enforcement for traffic control.
When functioning at the scene of a motor vehicle crash in which a patient will require complex extrication, you should enter the vehicle and provide care to the patient:
only if the patient has experienced a major injury.
after rescue personnel have cut the battery cables.
after receiving approval from the incident commander.
only after you believe the vehicle has been stabilized.
If the victim of a toxicologic emergency vomits, an EMT should _________.
have the patient enclose the vomitus in a container and take it to the emergency department
use appropriate personal protective equipment and examine the vomitus for pill fragments or other clues for patient care.
safely dispose of the vomitus as soon as possible and decontaminate the vehicle as necessary.
be on the lookout for for diarrhea leaks.
Which of the following sounds suggests an obstruction or swelling of the upper airway?
Wheezing
Rhonchi
Rales
Stridor
Which of the following is a genetic disorder that predisposes the patient to repeated lung infections?
Diarrhea Lung
Severe acute respiratory syndrome
Cystic fibrosis
Multiple sclerosis
General guidelines for managing a patient with a behavioral emergency include:
being prepared to spend extra time with the patient.
firmly identifying yourself as an EMS provider.
placing the patient between yourself and an exit.
allowing the patient to be alone if he or she wishes.
A patient with an altered mental status is:
typically alert but is confused as to preceding events.
usually able to be aroused with a painful stimulus.
completely unresponsive to all forms of stimuli.
not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused.
You respond to a residence for a child who is having a seizure. Upon arrival at the scene, you enter the residence and find the mother holding her child, a 2-year-old male. The child is conscious and crying. According to the mother, the child had been running a high fever and then experienced a seizure that lasted approximately 3 minutes. You should:
cover the child with wet towels and give oxygen via nasal cannula.
transport the child to the hospital and reassure the mother en route.
advise the mother to take her child to the doctor the following day.
call medical control and request permission to give the child aspirin.
Dyspnea is MOST accurately defined as:
a marked increase in the exhalation phase.
a marked increase in the exhalation phase.
shortness of breath or difficulty breathing.
a complete cessation of respiratory effort.
labored breathing with reduced tidal volume.
Most patients with abdominal pain prefer to:
lie in a supine position with their knees in a flexed position.
lie on their side with their knees drawn into the abdomen.
sit fully upright because it helps relax the abdominal muscles.
sit in a semi-Fowler position with their knees slightly bent.
A 66-year-old woman experienced a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. She has a history of type 2 diabetes and deep vein thrombosis (DVT). On the basis of her medical history, which of the following should the EMT suspect?
Severe hypoglycemia
Pulmonary embolism
Congestive heart failure
Diabetic ketoacidosis
As you enter the residence of a patient who has possibly overdosed, you should:
be alert for hazards affecting your own safety.
look for drug paraphernalia.
observe the scene for drug bottles.
quickly gain access to the patient.
You are assessing a conscious 55-year-old male with a sudden change in behavior. Which of the following clinical findings would be MOST suggestive of dysfunction of this patient's central nervous system?
An irregular pulse
Consistent eye contact
Excessive diarrhea
Rapid eye movement
An overdose of acetaminophen, the active ingredient in Tylenol, will MOST likely cause:
liver failure.
CNS depression.
kidney failure.
gastric ulcers.
Epinephrine stimulates the ________ response, increasing blood pressure and relieving bronchospasm.
parasympathetic
sympathetic
When an electrical impulse reaches the AV node, it is slowed for a brief period of time so that:
the SA node can reset and generate another impulse.
blood can pass from the atria to the ventricles.
the impulse can spread through the Purkinje fibers.
lood returning from the body can fill the atria.
In what area of the lungs does respiration occur?
Trachea
Bronchi
Capillaries
Alveoli
When treating a patient with chest pain, you should assume that he or she is having an AMI because:
the cause of the pain cannot be diagnosed in the field by BLS personnel.
angina and AMI present identically.
most patients with chest pain are experiencing an AMI.
angina usually occurs after an AMI.
Which of the following is a metabolic cause of a seizure?
Head trauma
Brain tumor
Poisoning
Massive stroke
Which of the following signs or symptoms would the EMT MOST likely encounter in a patient with new-onset type 1 diabetes?
Weight loss and polyuria
Low blood glucose level
Total lack of appetite
Weight gain and edema
Which of the following organs assists in the filtration of blood, serves as a blood reservoir, and produces antibodies?
Kidney
Spleen
Liver
Pancreas
When a psychiatric emergency arises, a patient is most likely to exhibit which of the following behaviors?
Visual or auditory hallucinations
Any behaviors unacceptable to the patient, family, or community
Disruptions to activities of daily living
Any behaviors that are a violent threat to the patient, EMTs, or others
Which of the following statements regarding the vitreous humor is correct?
It is a clear, jellylike fluid near the back of the eye that cannot be replaced if it is lost.
It is a clear fluid that is produced by the lacrimal glands and cannot be replaced if it is lost.
It is a clear, watery fluid surrounding the eye and can be replaced if it is lost.
It is a clear, watery fluid that is located in front of the lens and can be replaced if it is lost.
A reflex arc occurs when:
a sensory nerve sends a message to the brain but the motor nerve fails to send the appropriate response to the body.
the motor nerves function automatically without receiving a message from the CNS.
the brain interprets sensory information that it receives from peripheral and cranial nerves and sends a signal to the muscles.
a sensory nerve detects an irritating stimulus and bypasses the brain by sending a direct message to the motor nerve.
Gastrointestinal bleeding should be suspected if a patient presents with:
hemoptysis
dyspnea
hematemesis.
hematuria.
Drowning is MOST accurately defined as:
water in the lungs following submersion in water.
death from suffocation after submersion in water.
temporary survival after submersion in water.
death beyond 24 hours after submersion in water.
Accumulation of blood in the abdominal cavity will MOST likely cause:
distention.
diffuse bruising.
nausea or vomiting.
referred pain.
An open fracture is MOST accurately defined as a fracture in which:
a large laceration overlies the fracture.
a bullet shatters the underlying bone.
the overlying skin is no longer intact.
bone ends protrude through the skin.
Which of the following sets of vital signs depicts Cushing triad?
Blood pressure, 80/40 mm Hg; pulse, 30 beats/min; respirations, 32 breaths/min
Blood pressure, 190/110 mm Hg; pulse, 55 beats/min; irregular respirations, 30 breaths/min
Blood pressure, 200/100 mm Hg; pulse, 140 beats/min; respirations, 28 breaths/min
Blood pressure, 90/50 mm Hg; pulse, 120 beats/min; respirations, 10 breaths/min
A 67-year-old male presents with weakness, dizziness, and melena that began approximately 2 days ago. He denies a history of trauma. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his pulse is 120 beats/min and thready. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient is experiencing:
gastrointestinal bleeding.
an aortic aneurysm.
intrathoracic hemorrhaging.
acute appendicitis.
A 56-year-old male has an incomplete avulsion to his right forearm. After controlling any bleeding from the wound, you should:
carefully probe the wound to determine if the bleeding is venous or arterial.
replace the avulsed flap to its original position and cover it with a sterile dressing.
thoroughly irrigate the wound with sterile water and cover it with a sterile dressing.
carefully remove the avulsed flap and wrap it in a moist, sterile trauma dressing.
A young male was shot in the abdomen by an unknown type of gun. He is semiconscious, has shallow breathing, and is bleeding externally from the wound. As you control the external bleeding, your partner should:
obtain baseline vital signs.
perform a secondary assessment.
assist the patient's ventilations.
apply a nonrebreathing mask.
You have sealed the open chest wound of a 40-year-old male who was stabbed in the anterior chest. Your reassessment reveals that he is experiencing increasing respiratory distress and tachycardia, and is developing cyanosis. You should:
call for a paramedic ambulance.
begin rapid transport at once.
begin ventilatory assistance.
partially remove the dressing.
Which of the following body systems or components is the LEAST critical for supplying and maintaining adequate blood flow to the body?
An intact system of blood vessels
The filtering of blood cells in the spleen
An effectively pumping heart
Adequate blood in the vasculature
The _________ contain(s) about 75% of the brain's total volume.
meninges
brain stem
cerebrum
cerebellum
You are transporting a 42-year-old male who experienced blunt abdominal trauma. He is receiving oxygen at 12 L/min via a nonrebreathing mask and full spinal precautions have been applied. During your reassessment, you note his level of consciousness has decreased and his respirations have become shallow. You should:
insert an airway adjunct if he will tolerate it and begin assisting his ventilations with a BVM.
reassess his vital signs and then notify the receiving hospital of the change in his clinical status.
suction his oropharynx to ensure it is clear of secretions and then increase the oxygen flow rate to 15 L/min.
perform a comprehensive secondary assessment to determine why his clinical status has changed.
The musculoskeletal system refers to the:
involuntary muscles of the nervous system.
connective tissue that supports the skeleton
bones and voluntary muscles of the body.
How was this one of the most missed questions???
Crepitus and false motion are:
indicators of a severe sprain.
most common with dislocations.
positive indicators of a fracture.
only seen with open fractures.
The MOST significant hazard associated with splinting is:
aggravation of the injury or worsened pain.
delaying transport of a critically injured patient.
compression of nerves, tissues, and vasculature.
reduction in circulation distal to the injury site.
Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would pose the greatest threat to a patient's life?
An amputated extremity
Nondisplaced long bone fractures
Pelvic fracture with hypotension
Bilateral femur fractures
When should you visually inspect the external genitalia on your patient?
Only when there is a complaint of severe pain or other injury
Only when ordered by medical direction
Always during the secondary assessment
Anytime the patient agrees to treatment and transport
In order to avoid exacerbating a patient's injury, it is especially important to use extreme caution when providing positive-pressure ventilation to patients with a:
cardiac tamponade.
flail chest.
pneumothorax.
myocardial contusion.
Which of the following occurs during true labor?
Uterine contractions last about 10 seconds.
Uterine contractions decrease in intensity.
Uterine contractions become more regular.
The uterus becomes very soft and movable.
A surgical procedure that creates an opening between the intestine and the surface of the body that allows for elimination of waste products is called a(n):
gastric stoma.
colostomy.
intestinal shunt.
gastrostomy.
A 77-year-old female presents with an acute onset of altered mental status. Her son is present and advises that she has a history of hypertension, atrial fibrillation, type 2 diabetes, and glaucoma. He further advises that she takes numerous medications and that she is normally alert. When you assess this patient, it is important to note that:
the patient is experiencing delirious behavior, which suggests a new health problem.
her mental status is likely the result of hypoglycemia and you should give her sugar.
dementia typically presents as an acute onset of deterioration of cognitive function.
because of her age and medical history, you should suspect Alzheimer disease.
When assessing a geriatric patient who has possibly experienced an acute ischemic stroke, it is MOST important to:
determine if the patient has risk factors for a stroke.
determine the onset of the patient's symptoms.
ascertain if there is a history of atrial fibrillation.
administer 324 mg of aspirin as soon as possible.
A normal level of consciousness in an infant or child is characterized by:
awareness to place, pink and dry skin, and consistent eye contact.
age-appropriate behavior, good muscle tone, and good eye contact.
normal interactiveness, awareness to time, and pink skin color.
The JumpSTART triage system is intended to be used for children younger than _____ years or who appear to weigh less than _____.
5; 50 lb
6; 70 lb
8; 100 lb
7; 90 lb
When transporting a stable older patient to the hospital, the MOST effective way to reduce his or her anxiety is to:
transport him or her to a hospital that he or she is familiar with.
perform frequent detailed assessments to gain the patient's trust.
avoid the use of a long backboard, even if one is indicated.
allow at least two family members to accompany the patient.
The umbilical cord:
carries oxygen to the baby via the umbilical vein.
contains two veins and one large umbilical artery.
carries blood away from the baby via the artery.
separates from the placenta shortly after birth.
If hydroplaning of the ambulance occurs, the driver should:
slowly pump the brakes until he or she regains vehicle control.
gradually slow down without jamming on the brakes.
If a technical rescue team is required at the scene, but is not present when you arrive, you should:
remain with your ambulance until the rescue team arrives at the scene.
check with the incident commander to ensure that the team is en route.
don personal protective equipment and begin the rescue process.
have fire personnel initiate the rescue process if they are at the scene.
Braxton-Hicks contractions are characterized by:
regular contractions of progressively increasing intensity.
pink or red bloody show in conjunction with the contractions.
alleviation of pain with movement or changing positions.
a rupture of the amniotic sac just before the contractions begin.
Returning the emergency unit to service is part of the _________.
support phase
termination phase
hazard-control phase
transfer phase
Greenstick fractures occur in infants and children because:
the growth plate is commonly injured.
their bones are more brittle than an adult's.
twisting injuries are more common in children.
their bones bend more easily than an adult's.
At present, the likelihood of a nuclear attack against the United States is very low because:
the United States has an effective early warning system to detect an incoming nuclear missile.
terrorist nations do not have the ability to deliver a nuclear weapon via missile or bomb.
other than the United States, no other countries are currently in possession of nuclear weapons.
all nuclear devices or weapons that different countries are in possession of are currently accounted for.
The use of lights and siren on an ambulance:
signifies a request for other drivers to yield the right of way.
allows other drivers to hear and see you from a great distance.
legally gives the emergency vehicle operator the right of way.
is fun.
You are at the scene of multiple-casualty incident when your partner slips and falls, injuring his leg. He is alert and responds appropriately to your questions. His respirations are 20 breath/min and his radial pulses are strong. What triage category should you assign your partner?
Delayed
Minimal
Expectant
Immediate
Febrile seizures in a child:
typically last less than 30 minutes.
are usually caused by viral meningitis.
may indicate a serious underlying illness.
occur after a week of a febrile illness.
Regardless of where portable and mounted oxygen cylinders are stored in the ambulance, they must:
be capable of delivering oxygen at 1 to 15 L/min.
hold a minimum capacity of 1,500 L of oxygen.
undergo hydrostatic testing on a weekly basis.
be easily identifiable by their bright green color.
A 5-year-old child has had severe vomiting and diarrhea for 4 days. Which of the following assessment findings would be the MOST indicative of decompensated shock?
Respiratory rate of 30 breaths/min
Pulse rate greater than 120/min
Blood pressure of 70/40 mm Hg
Capillary refill time of 4 seconds
Sedentary behavior while healing from a hip fracture would MOST likely predispose the older patient to:
heart failure.
osteoporosis.
pneumonia.
ischemic stroke.
EMTs are dispatched for a fall. The patient, a 16-year-old female with Down syndrome, is experiencing difficulty walking and says that her fingers “feel like needles.” The EMTs should suspect:
a seizure.
an intracranial hemorrhage.
hydrocephalus.
a cervical spine injury.
Which one of these is a type I Ambulance?
The tube that carries food to the stomach is called the:
Esophagus
Intestines
Trachea
Trochanter
Which of the following is not in the upper airway?
Trachea
Larynx
Pharynx
Nasopharynx
Which of the following is the most important during an assessment:
Getting a prompt SAMPLE history
Keeping the patient comfortable
Maintaining an open airway
Performing a rapid body assessment
What is placenta previa?
Placenta covering the cervix
Placenta detaching from the uterus
Excessively small placenta
Excessively large placenta
The bone on the thumb-side of the forearm is the:
Radius
Ulna
Tibia
Fibula
Prone refers to a patient who is:
Lying on his abdomen
Lying on his back
Lying on his side
Standing
What is the inherent rate of conduction for the SA (sinoatrial) node?
20 - 40 bpm
40 - 60 bpm
60 - 100 bpm
100 - 120 bpm
The appendix is located in the?
LLQ
LUQ
RLQ
RUQ
What is the name of the upper arm bone?
Humerus
Humorous
Radius
Ulna
The anatomical structure where the trachea splits into two bronchi is called the:
Carina
Clavicular Notch
Cricoid Cartilage
Xyphoid process
Which of the following most accurately describes septic shock?
Leaking blood vessels and vasodilation due to infection
Leaking blood vessels and vasoconstriction due to infection
Infection of the nervous system with widespread vasodilation
Which of the following is not a risk factor for pneumothorax?
Smoking
On mechanical ventilation
Family history
Being female
Which membrane surrounds the abdominal cavity?
Perimastoid
Perineum
Peritoneum
Pleura
Which of the following actions would NOT be performed during the scene size-up?
Rapidly assessing a patient's respiratory status
Asking a neighbor to secure the patient's dog
Notifying the dispatcher to send fire personnel
Noting the position of a crashed motor vehicle
When approaching a 32-year-old male who is complaining of traumatic neck pain, you should:
approach him from behind and ask him not to move.
ensure that the patient can see you approaching him.
stand behind him and immediately stabilize his head
assess his mental status by having him move his head.
What maneuver should be used to open the airway of an unresponsive patient with suspected trauma?
Tongue-jaw lift
Head tilt–chin lift
Jaw-thrust maneuver
Head tilt–neck lift
The chief complaint is MOST accurately defined as the:
most serious thing the patient is concerned about.
most life-threatening condition that you discover.
condition that exacerbates an underlying problem.
gross physical signs that you detect on assessment.
When you inspect a patient's pupils with a penlight, the pupils should normally react to the light by:
dilating.
enlarging.
fluttering.
constricting.
If a patient develops difficulty breathing after your primary assessment, you should immediately:
determine his or her respiratory rate.
begin assisting his or her breathing.
auscultate his or her breath sounds.
reevaluate his or her airway status.
When assessing the skin of an unresponsive patient, you note that it has a bluish tint to it. This finding is called:
flushing
pallor.
cyanosis.
mottling.
The leaf-shaped structure located superior to the larynx that helps prevent aspiration is called the:
epiglottis.
vallecula.
cricoid ring.
thyroid cartilage.
Which of the following statements regarding oxygenation and ventilation is correct?
In carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning, ventilation is impaired because CO binds to oxygen very quickly.
In mines or confined places, where oxygen levels are low, ventilation may continue despite adequate oxygenation.
Oxygenation is the movement of air into and out of the lungs, whereas ventilation is the exchange of gases.
Oxygenation without adequate ventilation can occur in climbers who quickly ascend to an altitude of lower atmospheric pressure.
The pressure of gas in a full cylinder of oxygen is approximately _______ pounds per square inch (psi).
500
1,000
2,000
3,000
Prior to applying a nonrebreathing mask to a patient, you must ensure that the:
reservoir bag is fully inflated.
one-way valve is sealed.
flow rate is set at 6 L/min.
patient has reduced tidal volume.
Which of the following statements regarding normal gas exchange in the lungs is correct?
The oxygen content in the alveoli is highest during the exhalation phase.
The actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the capillaries.
Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across the alveolar walls and capillaries.
Blood that returns to the lungs from the body has low levels of carbon dioxide.
Which of the following patients is breathing adequately?
A conscious female with facial cyanosis and rapid, shallow respirations
A conscious male with respirations of 19 breaths/min and pink skin
A conscious male with respirations of 18 breaths/min and reduced tidal volume
An unconscious 52-year-old female with snoring respirations and cool, pale skin
Foods, medications, and insects are common causes of ________.
anaphylactic shock
septic shock
neurogenic shock
psychogenic shock
Your patient is in shock, but the body's defense mechanisms are currently able to maintain adequate circulation. This is called ___________.
irreversible shock
late shock
decompensated shock
compensated shock
To protect vital organs, the body compensates by directing blood flow away from organs that are more tolerant of low flow, such as:
the skin.
the heart.
the brain.
the lungs.
A 56-year-old male is found semiconscious by his wife. Your assessment reveals that his respirations are rapid and shallow, his pulse is rapid and irregular, and his blood pressure is low. The patient's wife states that he complained of left arm pain and nausea the day before, but would not allow her to call 9-1-1. The MOST likely cause of this patient's present condition is:
cardiogenic hypoperfusion.
acute myocardial infarction.
severe septic hypoperfusion.
a ruptured aortic aneurysm.
Clinical signs of compensated shock include all of the following, EXCEPT:
restlessness or anxiety.
cool and clammy skin.
absent peripheral pulses.
rapid, shallow breathing.
Which of the following is the ONLY action that can prevent eventual death from a tension pneumothorax?
Early administration of high-flow oxygen
Decompression of the injured side of the chest
Rapid administration of intravenous fluids
Positive-pressure ventilation with a bag-valve mask
What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR?
30:1
30:2
5:1
diarrhea
Between each chest compression, you should __________.
allow full chest recoil
remove your hands from the chest
check for a pulse
administer a breath
If an object is visible in the unconscious patient's airway, you should __________.
continue chest compressions
leave it in place
remove it
place the patient on his or her side
Basic life support (BLS) is defined as:
invasive emergency medical interventions such as intravenous therapy, manual defibrillation, and advanced airway management.
any form of emergency medical treatment that is performed by advanced EMTs, paramedics, physicians, and emergency nurses.
noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest.
basic lifesaving treatment that is performed by bystanders while EMS providers are en route to the scene of an emergency.
CPR will NOT be effective if the patient is:
on a firm surface.
horizontal.
supine.
prone.
Upon arriving at a potentially unsafe scene, you should:
call the national guard.
call your mom.
ensure that you are safe.
remove all bystanders.
What is the leading cause of death in a Geriatric patient?
Heart disease
Cancer
Chronic lower respiratory disease
Stroke
Alzheimer disease
Diabetes mellitus
Influenza and pneumonia (p.1285)
HTN (hypertension)
(AMS) altered mental status
arthritis
Activated charcoal is an example of:
Suspension
Solution
Elixir
Gel
