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Cardiology Review #2

Total questions: 21

Worksheet time: 11mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which lead is probably the best to use when differentiating between right and left BBB?

a)

aVR

b)

V1

c)

V4

d)

II

2.

The presence of lightheadedness in a patient with a suspected myocardial infarction is MOST likely the

result of:

a)

fear and anxiety.

b)

the effects of nitroglycerin.

c)

acute left-sided heart failure

d)

a reduction in cardiac output.

3.

Which of the following statements regarding oxygen administration for a patient experiencing an

acute myocardial infarction is correct?

a)

Evidence has shown that high (greater than 90%) concentrations of oxygen reduce mortality.

b)

In order to prevent hypoxic injury, do not give any patient with an acute myocardial infarction more than 2 L/min of oxygen.

c)

Treatment with oxygen should be individualized and titrated to maintain the SpO2 level above 94%.

d)

Any patient experiencing an acute myocardial infarction should receive high-flow oxygen.

4.

Signs or symptoms of a dissecting abdominal aneurysm include all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Urge to defecate

b)

Tearing sensation radiating to the back

c)

Vomiting

d)

Unequal blood pressure in the arms

5.

Patients experiencing a right ventricular infarction:

a)

may present with hypotension.

b)

should not be given baby aspirin.

c)

often require higher doses of morphine.

d)

usually have anterior myocardial damage.

6.

The process of aortic dissection begins when:

a)

the intimal layer of the aortic wall is torn.

b)

hypertension causes acute rupture of the aorta.

c)

the aorta is weakened due to excessive pressure.

d)

blood accumulates between the layers of the aorta.

7.

The treatment for sinus tachycardia should focus on:

a)

decreasing the heart rate.

b)

correcting the underlying cause.

c)

administering IV fluid boluses.

d)

relieving pain and anxiety.

8.

What 12-lead ECG finding should make you suspect a posterior STEMI?

a)

ST elevation in leads V3 and V4

b)

ST depression in leads V1 and V2

c)

ST elevation in leads III and aVF

d)

ST depression in leads I and aVL

9.

Which of the following statements regarding treatment for a first-degree heart block is correct?

a)

Treatment is generally not indicated unless the rate is slow and cardiac output is impaired.

b)

Most first-degree heart blocks are associated with significant bradycardia and require atropine.

c)

First-degree heart block is often accompanied by a compensatory tachycardia that requires treatment.

d)

Transcutaneous cardiac pacing should be initiated without delay for patients with a first-degree heart block.

10.

Which of the following statements regarding an idioventricular rhythm is correct?

a)

Most patients with an idioventricular rhythm are hemodynamically unstable.

b)

Treatment for an idioventricular rhythm focuses on increasing blood pressure.

c)

Idioventricular rhythms are typically accompanied by nonconducted P waves.

d)

The most common cause of an idioventricular rhythm is failure of the SA node.

11.

On the 12-lead ECG, extreme right axis deviation is characterized by:

a)

a positive QRS in lead I and a negative QRS in lead aVF.

b)

a negative QRS in lead I and a negative QRS in lead aVF.

c)

a negative QRS in lead I and a positive QRS in lead aVF.

d)

a positive QRS in lead I and a positive QRS in lead aVF.

12.

The recommended first-line treatment for third-degree heart block associated with bradycardia

and hemodynamic compromise is:

a)

atropine sulfate.

b)

a dopamine infusion.

c)

an epinephrine infusion.

d)

transcutaneous pacing.

13.

You are dispatched to a residence at 2:00 AM for an elderly man with shortness of breath. The patient tells you that he was suddenly awakened with the feeling that he was smothering. You note dried blood on his lips. The patient tells you that he has some type of “breathing problem,” for which he uses a prescribed inhaler and takes a “heart pill.” You should suspect:

a)

right ventricular failure.

b)

reactive airway disease.

c)

acute COPD exacerbation.

d)

left ventricular failure.

14.

Left bundle branch block is characterized by:

a)

a QRS of less than 120 milliseconds and a terminal R wave in lead V1.

b)

a QRS of greater than 120 milliseconds and a terminal R wave in lead V1.

c)

a QRS of greater than 120 milliseconds and a terminal S wave in lead V1.

d)

a QRS of less than 120 milliseconds and a terminal S wave in lead V1.

15.

Left ventricular hypertrophy should be considered in a 50-year-old patient if the sum of the depth

of the S wave in lead V1 and the height of the R wave in either lead V5 or V6 exceeds:

a)

22 mm.

b)

28 mm.

c)

32 mm.

d)

35 mm.

16.

A 60-year-old man with crushing chest pain has 3 mm of ST elevation in leads V1 through V4.

What should you suspect?

a)

Right ventricular infarction

b)

Right coronary artery occlusion

c)

Left circumflex occlusion

d)

Left anterior descending artery occlusion

17.

What is the commotio cordis?

a)

A PVC that occurs when the ventricles are not fully repolarized

b)

When the R wave occurs at the J point of the next cardiac cycle

c)

A unifocal PVC that occurs during the upslope of any given T wave

d)

A PVC that occurs during a time when the ventricles are depolarizing

18.

A demand pacemaker:

a)

generates pacing impulses only when it senses that the heart's natural pacemaker has fallen below a preset rate.

b)

sends out single electrical impulses when the patient's inherent pacemaker rate exceeds 150 beats/min.

c)

is easily identified on a cardiac rhythm strip by noting the presence of pacer spikes before all of the QRS complexes.

d)

attaches to the atria and the ventricles and only generates an impulse if it senses that the patient is in ventricular fibrillation.

19.

Anatomically contiguous leads view:

a)

opposite walls of the heart.

b)

only the lateral wall of the heart.

c)

the same general area of the heart.

d)

only the anterior wall of the heart.

20.

A pathologic Q wave:

a)

generally indicates that an acute myocardial infarction has occurred within the past hour.

b)

is deeper than one-quarter of the height of the R wave and indicates injury.

c)

is wider than 0.04 seconds and indicates that a myocardial infarction occurred in the past.

d)

can only be substantiated by viewing at least two previous 12-lead ECGs

21.

Which of the following most accurately differentiates cardioversion from defibrillation?

a)

Cardioversion requires 360 joules

b)

The electrical stimulation of cardioversion travels at a slower rate through the myocardium

c)

Cardioversion cannot be used in patients who have a pulse.

d)

Cardioversion is timed to be synchronous with the patient's R wave