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Pathology: Lower Urinary Tract and Male Genital System

Total questions: 38

Worksheet time: 22mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The top of the diaper is often noted to be damp on a girl infant. Radiologic imaging with contrast enhancement shows that there is a connection from bladder to umbilicus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Congenital diverticulum

b)

Exstrophy

c)

Persistent urachus

d)

Vesicoureteral reflux

2.

A 43 year old businessman visits his primary care physician complaining of a purulent penile discharge. He had unprotected sex with a woman he met at a conference a week ago. Gram stain of the discharge fails to reveal any organism. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the discharge?

a)

Bowen disease

b)

Chlamydia trachomatis

c)

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

d)

Treponema pallidum

3.

Points of ureteric narrowing where renal calculi may become impacted when they pass from the kidney to the bladder, except

a)

Ureteropelvic junction

b)

where they cross the pelvic brim over distal end of common iliac

c)

Ureterovesicular junction

d)

Where they cross the iliac vessels

e)

No exception

4.

True statements of Ureteropelvic junction obstruction, except

a)

Congenital disorder that is the most common cause of hydropnephrosis in infants and children

b)

More common in women in adults and often bilateral

c)

More common in males during early life and is usually bilateral

d)

May be due to excess stromal deposition of collagen between smooth muscle bundles

5.

Intrinsic causes of ureteral obstruction, except

a)

Tumor

b)

Endometriosis

c)

Blood clots

d)

Calculi

6.

Bladder cancer is more common in males and painless hematuria is a common presenting symptom

a)

True

b)

False

7.

A 3 year old boy is brought to the pediatrician because his mother noticed an abnormal mass in his scrotum while changing his diapers. Further work up revealed elevated levels of serum alpha-fetoprotein. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Endodermal sinus (yolk sac) tumor

b)

Choriocarcinoma

c)

Hepatocellular carcinoma

d)

Leydig cell (interstitial) tumor

8.

Most common type of germ cell tumor

a)

Teratoma

b)

Seminoma

c)

Endodermal sinus (yolk sac) tumor

d)

Choriocarcinoma

9.

A 23 year old african-american who is known to have sickle cell anemia presents to the emergency department with a painful erection. The patient claimed that the erection had started 3 hours prior. This condition is referred to as

a)

Phimosis

b)

Peyronie disease

c)

Priapism

d)

Balanitis

10.

The most commonly used and effective medical therapy for symptoms relating to benign prostatic hyperplasia is

a)

Alpha blocker

b)

5-alpha reductase

c)

Transurethral resection of the prostate

d)

Any of the above

11.

Adenocarcinoma of the prostate is the most common form of cancer in men

a)

True

b)

False

12.

This is the most aggressive variant of prostate cancer

a)

A. Colloid carcinoma of the prostate

b)

B. Small cell cancer

c)

C. Neuroendocrine carcinomq

d)

B and C

13.

PSA is organ and cancer specific

a)

True

b)

False

14.

The most common treatment for clinically localized prostate cancer

a)

Radical prostatectomy

b)

Alpha blockers

c)

5 alpha reductase

d)

Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)

15.

A 66 year old nan visits his family physician with complaints of urinary frequency, hesitancy, and dysuria. Digital rectal exam revealed an enlarged prostate with nodular and rubbery consistency. Serum PSA is increased. Which if the following is most closely related to the pathogenesis of the disorder described

a)

DHT

b)

hCG

c)

Testosterone

d)

Alpha fetoprotein

16.

A 32 yr old man noticed an increased feeling of heaviness in his scrotum for the past 10 months. On PE, the left testis is 3x the size of the right testis and is firm on palpation. UTZ shows 6cm solid mass within the body of the left testis. There is elevated serum alpha fetoprotein. Which cellular components is most likely present in the mass

a)

Yolk sac cells

b)

Seminoma cells

c)

Embryonal carcinoma cells

d)

Cytotrophoblasts

17.

All of the following causes hemorrhagic cystitis, except?

a)

Adenovirus

b)

cyclophosphamide

c)

Cytotoxic antitumor drugs

d)

No exception

18.

A 45 year old patient with an end stage renal disease came in for routine check up. He complains of pain and tenderness in the lower abdomen. Upon PE, you noted that his indwelling catheter is still patent with free flowing urine. What is the most likely cause of his symptom?

a)

Urinary retention

b)

Interstitial cystitis

c)

Chronic pelvic pain syndrome

d)

Polypoid cystitis

19.

Lesion of the urinary bladder in which brunn nests grow downward into the lamina propria where epithelial cells in the nests undergo metaplasia and take on a cuboidal or columnar appearance

a)

Cystitis glandularis

b)

Cystitis cystica

c)

Cystitis cystica et glandularis

d)

Intestinal or colonic mucosa

20.

Distinct precursor lesions to invasive urothelial carcinoma, except

a)

Non-invasive papillary tumors

b)

Flat invasive urothelial tumor

c)

Carcinoma in situ

d)

Flat non invasive urothelial tumor

21.

Most aggressive testicular carcinoma

a)

Choriocarcinoma

b)

Seminoma

c)

Yolk sac tumor

d)

Leydig cell tumor

22.

A 23 year old previously healthy man suddenly developed severe pain in the scrotum. The pain continues unabated for 6 hours and was brought to the emergency room. On PE, he is afebrile. There is tenderness on the slightly enlarged tight testis. Gross appearance of right testis is shown. Which of the ff is the likely cause?

a)

Lymphatic obstruction

b)

Obstruction of blood flow

c)

Hemorrhagic choriocarcinoma

d)

Previous vasectomy

23.

High grade muscle invasive urothelial tumors, except

a)

A. Loss of function mutation TP53

b)

B. loss of function mutation in RB tumor suppressor gene

c)

C. Activating mutations in HRAS oncogene

d)

A and B

24.

Less than 10% of low grade urothelial cancers invade, but 80% of high grade urothelial cancers are invasive.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

Dominant and sometimes only clinical manifestation of bladder cancer

a)

Frequency

b)

Urgency

c)

Painless hematuria

d)

Dysuria

26.

Fibrous bands around the corpus cavernosum of the penis causing penile curvature and pain during intercourse.

a)

Phimosis

b)

Peyronie disease

c)

Hypospadias

d)

Epispadias

27.

A 42 year old, sexually active, male came in due to a solitary, thickened, gray-white, opaque plaque involving shaft of his penis. As well as multiple shiny red, velvety plaques on his glans penis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

A. Bowen disease

b)

Peyronie disease

c)

C. Bowenoid papulosis

d)

Both A and C

28.

True of penile cancer, except

a)

Found in patients between ages of 40 and 70 years

b)

Circumcision confers protection

c)

HPV type 18 is the most frequent culprit

d)

Cigarette smoking increases risk of developement

29.

An 18 year old man came in for routine health examination. On PE, you noted that there is no left testis palpable in the scrotum. The patient has no other illnesses and has normal sexual function. Which of the following complications will most likely occur?

a)

A. Carcinoma

b)

B. Infection

c)

C. Infertility

d)

A and C

30.

Inflammation due to gonorrhea and tuberculosis is more common in

a)

Testis

b)

Epididymis

c)

Both

d)

Neither

31.

Stage of testicular tumor when after orchiectomy, there is persistent elevation of HCG or AFP concentration even if lymph nodes are of normal size by imaging studies

a)

Stage I

b)

Stage II

c)

Stage III

d)

II and III

32.

Most common form of testicular neoplasm in mean older than age 60.

a)

Leydig cell tumor

b)

Sertoli cell tumor

c)

Gonadoblastoma

d)

Testicular lymphoma

33.

In the prostate, most hyperplasia arise in the transitional zone while most carcinomas arise in the peripheral zone

a)

True

b)

False

34.

Most common for

of prostatitis

a)

Acute bacterial prostatitis

b)

Chronic bacterial prostatitis

c)

Chronic abacterial prostatitis

d)

Granulomatous prostatitis

35.

Urinary obstruction is the major clinical problem seen in benign prostatic hyperplasia. This is due to?

a)

Increased size of protate

b)

Smooth muscle mediated prostatic contraction

c)

Both

d)

Neither

36.

Products that may delay or prevent prostate cancer, except

a)

Lycopenes

b)

Tomatoes

c)

Fats

d)

Soy products

e)

Vitamin D

37.

A 70 year old, previously healthy man came in for routine PE. On palpation, there was a nodule in his normal sized prostate. Lab studies show a serum PSA level of 17ng/mL. A routine urinalysis showed no abnormalities. Which histologic findings is most likely to be found in a subsequent biopsy specimen of his prostate?

a)

Acute prostatitis

b)

Chronic abacterial prostatitis

c)

Nodular hyperplasia

d)

Adenocarcinoma

e)

ProstatiC intraepithelial neoplasia

38.

A 30 year old man has noticed bilateral breast enlargement over the past 6 months. On PE, breasts are enlarged without masses. Right testis is firm and larger than this left testis. Serum estrogen is High. UTZ shows a circumscribed 2cm mass in the body of the right testis. A right orchiectomy is performed. The mass is grossly uniform, with brown cut surface. Microscopic appearance is shown in the picture. Most likely diagnosis?

a)

Choriocarcinoma

b)

Leydig cell tumor

c)

Gonadoblastoma

d)

Embryonal carcinoma

e)

Yolk sac tumoe