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3d151 CDC Vol 2 Unit 2

Total questions: 39

Worksheet time: 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What functions do the seven layers of the OSI reference model specify?

a)

Programming

b)

Transport

c)

Network

d)

Data

2.

What layers make up the two categories of the seven layers of the OSI reference model?

a)

Data Transport and Application

b)

Session and Data Transport

c)

Network and Presentation

d)

Application and Session

3.

The logical link control sublayer is a part of which OSI model layer?

a)

Transport

b)

Data link

c)

Physical

d)

Session

4.

What does the logical link control sublayer of the data link layer manage?

a)

Communications between devices over multiple links of a network

b)

Communications between devices over a single link of a network

c)

Protocol access to the physical network medium

d)

Protocol access to the links of a network

5.

What does the media access control sublayer of the data link layer manage?

a)

Communications between devices over multiple links of a network

b)

Communications between devices over a single link of a network

c)

Protocol access to the physical network medium

d)

Protocol access to the links of a network

6.

When used along, the word "topology" often refers to a network's...

a)

Transport topology

b)

Physical topology

c)

Physical medium

d)

Logical topology

7.

What network topology is another name for a bus topology?

a)

Star

b)

Ring

c)

Loop

d)

linear

8.

What topology offers centralized management of a network?

a)

Bus

b)

Star

c)

Ring

d)

Radial

9.

What negative effect could occur when star networks are interconnected?

a)

There are no negative effects

b)

A fault in network cabling will disrupt all communication

c)

Performance will suffer due to the load of the additional devices

d)

When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated

10.

Which governing body is the authority for information technology communications within the Department of Defense and every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under the scope of control?

a)

Defense Information Systems Agency

b)

Federal Communications Commission

c)

Department of Homeland Security

d)

Department of Defense

11.

What is a TCP socket?

a)

Regular of how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement

b)

Reference location of a particular application or process on each machine

c)

Combination of a port number and IP address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers

d)

Preventer of network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data

12.

What action is the purpose of a sliding window in TCP?

a)

Request network services and pass arguments between layers

b)

Reference a location of a particular application or process on each machine

c)

Prevent network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data

d)

Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement

13.

What portion of the IP Datagram (packet) allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them?

a)

Version Identification

b)

Header Checksum

c)

Time to Live

d)

Flags

14.

What value is the maximum of an octet in Internet Protocol version 4?

a)

239

b)

254

c)

255

d)

256

15.

Which classes allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network?

a)

Class A address

b)

Class B address

c)

Class C address

d)

Class D address

16.

What class is reserved for multicast addressing?

a)

Class A address

b)

Class B address

c)

Class C address

d)

Class D address

17.

What range of numbers are those of well known port numbers?

a)

0-1023

b)

1024-49151

c)

49152-65535

d)

65536-87000

18.

What characteristic is the major difference between RAM and ROM?

a)

ROM is volatile, RAM is non-volatile

b)

ROM is non-volatile, Ram is volatile

c)

Ram has a slower access time versus ROM

d)

ROM has a slower access time verses RAM

19.

What action is the main purpose of a system cache?

a)

Speed up system ROM

b)

Reduce HDD access time to stored data

c)

Reduce CPU access time to stored data

d)

Reduce RAM access time to stored data

20.

What speed is the maximum data transfer rate of USB3.0 SuperSpeed (SS) transfer mode?

a)

Two GB/s

b)

Four GB/s

c)

Five GB/s

d)

Ten GB/s

21.

What is a peripheral device

a)

A main internal component of a computer

b)

Not a main internal component of a computer

c)

A main component of a computer that can be either internal or external

d)

Not a main component of a computer that can be either internal or external

22.

Which device can optically read an image, printed text, or an object and converts it to a digital image?

a)

Printer

b)

Scanner

c)

Monitor

d)

Camera lens

23.

Which network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line and typically share the resources of a single processor or server within a small geographical area?

a)

Local Area Network

b)

Wide Area Network

c)

Virtual Private Network

d)

Metropolitan Area Network

24.

Which network is a network that links LAN and MAN by using long-distance communications links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company?

a)

Local Area Network

b)

Wide Area Network

c)

Virtual Private Network

d)

Metropolitan Area Network

25.

Which network uses Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance to avoid collisions while transmitting data?

a)

Local Area Network

b)

Wide Area Network

c)

Metropolitan Area Network

d)

Wireless Local Area Network

26.

Which WLAN security method is best described as hiding a message in a special code?

a)

SSID broadcasting

b)

MAC filtering

c)

Encryption

d)

Tunneling

27.

Which network proved a private tunnel through the internet?

a)

Local area network

b)

Wide area network

c)

Virtual private network

d)

Metropolitan area network

28.

What year did the Institute of IEEE ratify the use of GbE?

a)

1988

b)

1999

c)

2005

d)

2009

29.

How many T1 DNS access circuits do STEP terminals offer?

a)

24

b)

15

c)

10

d)

7

30.

Which device works as a transceiver that converts the electrical signal utilized in copper UTP network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cabling?

a)

Media converter

b)

Modem

c)

Switch

d)

Router

31.

Describe a network bridge

a)

Data Link layer network device or software set that logically separates a single network into multiple segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks

b)

Network layer device or software set that logically separates a single network into multiple segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks

c)

Data Link layer device that provide central connection to network devices

d)

Network layer device that provide central connection to network devices

32.

What network routing protocols allow multiple autonomous systems to connect together?

a)

OSPF

b)

EGP

c)

IGP

d)

EIGRP

33.

What network device provides a remote network with connectivity to a host network?

a)

Switch

b)

Modem

c)

Gateway

d)

Converter

34.

Which type of encryption provides the greatest degree of protection since the information fully encodes all the way through the network to the users' own end terminals?

a)

Internet Protocol

b)

End-to-end

c)

Bulk

d)

Link

35.

What characteristic is NOT an advantage of fiber optic cable?

a)

Cost to install and train technicians

b)

Electromagnetic immunity

c)

Low attenuation

d)

Security

36.

In general, how many operating system task categories are there?

a)

Four

b)

Five

c)

Six

d)

Seven

37.

What UNIX system software interacts most closely with the hardware?

a)

Shell

b)

Kernel

c)

User Programs

d)

Dynamic-link library

38.

What Microsoft application is a software program that allows users to create a desktop database?

a)

Word

b)

Access

c)

Outlook

d)

PowerPoint

39.

What Microsoft application is a personal information manager?

a)

Word

b)

Access

c)

Outlook

d)

PowerPoint