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CLINICAL MICROSCOPY POST EXAM

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The first unction to be affected in renal disease

a)

Glomerular filtration

b)

Tubular reabsorption

c)

Tubular secretion

d)

Rean Blood Flow

2.

This test compared the volume and specific gravity gravity of a day and night urine sample

a)

Riegels test

b)

Hoesch test

c)

Mosenthal test

d)

Clinitest

e)

Fishberg test

3.

The structure responsible for the countercurrent mechanism

a)

Glomerulus

b)

Bowmans capsule

c)

Efferent arteriole

d)

Vasa recta

4.

A rise in the plasma level of this substance has been shown to be a more sensitive indicator of a decrease in glomerular filtration rate

a)

Creatinine

b)

Beta 2 microglobulin

c)

Cystatin C

d)

Inulin

5.

A sructure which serves as a nonselective filter of plasma substances with molecular weights of less than 70,000

a)

Bowmans capsule

b)

Glomerulus

c)

Loop of Henle

d)

Distal Convoluted tubule

6.

A parameter that aids in the evaluation of renal tubular function

a)

Color

b)

Clarity

c)

Specific gravity

d)

pH

7.

A substance that is present in the urine of patients with Alkaptonuria

a)

Melanin

b)

Porphyrin

c)

Homogentisic acid

d)

Biliverdin

e)

Myoglobin

8.

What causes the appearance of pink brick dust in a urine sample

a)

Porphyrin

b)

Homogentisic acid

c)

Urochrome

d)

Uroerythrin

9.

This provides a crude indicator of urine concentration and the hyrdration state of the body

a)

pH

b)

Color

c)

Clarity

d)

Specific gravity

10.

What will be the appearacne of urine samples of patietns excreting large amounts of porphobilinogen

a)

Colorless

b)

Pink

c)

Amber

d)

Black

11.

The description of the urine samples of individuals taking in phenazopyridine

a)

Dilute light yellow

b)

Dilute yellow green

c)

Viscous yellow orange

d)

Viscous red orange

12.

Which of the following condition/s will cause the production of fruity urine

a)

Starvation

b)

Diabetes mellitus

c)

Diarrhea

d)

All of the given choices

13.

A cause of the appearance of black urine samples that darkens on standing and reacts with nitroprusside and ferric chloride

a)

Malignant melanoma

b)

Phenol

c)

Argyrol

d)

Methyldopa

14.

A drug used as an hypertensive agent that causes the excretion of black urine samples

a)

Metronidazole

b)

Argyrol

c)

Methyldopa

d)

Phenindione

15.

An anti TB drug that causes the excretion of red urine

a)

Methyldopa

b)

Phenindione

c)

Metronidazole

d)

Rifampin

16.

A test used to differentiate hemoglobinuria and myoglobinuria

a)

Blondheim test

b)

Ictotest

c)

Watson Schwarts

d)

SSA

17.

The pass through phenomenon is observed in

a)

Acetest

b)

Ictotest

c)

Clinitest

d)

Hoesch test

18.

An early indicator of insufficient dosage in type 1 diabetes

a)

Bacteruria

b)

Proteinuria

c)

Ketonuria

d)

Hematuria

19.

Which of the following conditions is NOT associated with the appearance of a clear red brown urine

a)

Convulsions

b)

Muscle wasting disease

c)

Glomerulonephritis

d)

Alcoholism

20.

The expected negative color reaction of the reagent strip blood parameter

a)

Green

b)

Yellow

c)

Blue

d)

Tan

21.

The indication of the appearance of a pink coloration around the mat in the Ictotest

a)

Presence of Bilirubin

b)

Absence of Bilirubin

c)

Presence of ketones

d)

Absence of ketone

22.

A patient with clear red urine has his plasma extracted. The technologist observed the patients's plasma after centrifugation and notes that it has a clear yellow color. This is indicative of

a)

Hematuria

b)

Hemoglobinuria

c)

Intravascular hemolysis

d)

Myoglobinuria

23.

A type of proteinuria seen in individuals who has been in an erect position and disappears upon resting in bed

a)

Orthostatic

b)

Postural

c)

Cyclic

d)

All of the given choices

24.

The concentration of KOH in the amine test

a)

2%

b)

5%

c)

10%

d)

15%

25.

Which of the following will cause a positive whiff test

a)

Trichomonads

b)

Gardnerella

c)

Candida

d)

All of the given choices

26.

Which of the following infections produce/s leukocyturia without bacteruria

a)

Trichomonas

b)

Pyelonephritis

c)

Cystitis

d)

All of the given choices

27.

Urine samples subjected for nitrite testing must have been remained in the bladder for how long

a)

2 hrs

b)

4 hrs

c)

6 hrs

d)

8 hrs

28.

Testing specimens that contain high level of ascorbate may affect the reading of these paramaters EXCEPT

a)

Glucose

b)

Urobilinogen

c)

Nitrite

d)

Leukocyte esterase

29.

A specimen that appears turbid between 40 and 60 degrees celsius and clear at 100 degrees celsius shall be suspected of containing

a)

TAU protein

b)

Bence Jones Protein

c)

Albumin

d)

Fibrinogen

30.

A positive nitrite test in a urine strip test would suggest the presence of

a)

Oval fat bodies

b)

Mucus threads

c)

RBC

d)

Squamous cells

e)

None of the given choices

31.

A test used in combination with the leukocyte esterase to determine the necessity of performing urine culture

a)

Glucose

b)

Nitrite

c)

Protein

d)

Specific gravity

e)

Urobilinogen

32.

All of the following conditions causes the excretion of Bilirubin in the urine EXCEPT

a)

Bile duct obstruction

b)

Heaptitis

c)

Cirrhosis

d)

Hemolytic disease

33.

The positive result of the SSA

a)

Green coloration

b)

Red ring formation

c)

Fishy odor

d)

Degree of turbidity

34.

Which of the following test does not utilize experimental animals

a)

Prenandiol test

b)

Friedmanns test

c)

Hogben test

d)

Hoffman test

35.

What is the animal is utilized in the Hogben test

a)

RAT

b)

RABBIT

c)

FROG

d)

MICE

36.

The positive results of oxalates in the spot plate test

a)

Deep blue coloration

b)

Tiny bubbles with explosion

c)

Yellow precipitate

d)

Effervescence

37.

The first step for gross examination of renal calculi

a)

Measure the dimension

b)

Washing of the stone

c)

Breaking and cutting

d)

Pulverization

38.

The positive result of uric acid in the spot plate test

a)

Deep blue color

b)

Tiny bubbles of gas explosion

c)

Yellow precipitate

d)

Effervesence

39.

The test used to detect the presence of TRYPSIN

a)

Schimiditz

b)

Schlesinger

c)

x Ray film test

d)

Hupperts

40.

The positive result of the Orthotoluidine test for fecal analysis

a)

Green

b)

Yellow

c)

Red

d)

Purple

41.

The characteristic of the stool samples of patients with colon cancer

a)

Scybalous

b)

Flattened

c)

Gaseous

d)

Watery

42.

What cell predominates in the CSF in cases of Multiple sclerosis

a)

Lymphocytes

b)

Neutrophils

c)

Macrophage

d)

Malignant cells

43.

What cell is present in a CSF sample after 1 - 8 weeks of hemorrhage

a)

Neutrophil

b)

Lymphocyte

c)

Monocyte

d)

Siderophage

44.

What protein is NOT normally present in the CSF

a)

Albumin

b)

Fibrinogen

c)

Transthyretin

d)

Transferrin

45.

The normal CSF/ serum albumin index

a)

6

b)

10

c)

12

d)

15

46.

The appearance of 2 or more oligoclonal bands in the CSF but not in the serum is indicative of

a)

Meningitis

b)

Multiple Sclerosis

c)

Hemorrhage

d)

Reyes syndrome

47.

A liquefying agent in semen analyis

a)

Ammonium sulfate

b)

Alpha chymotrypsin

c)

Hyaluronic acid

d)

Glacial acetic acid

48.

The ideal method of of sperm collection

a)

Coitus inetruptus

b)

Masterbation

c)

Both

d)

Neither

49.

The substance used to evaluate the secretory function of the prostate

a)

Carnitine

b)

Fructose

c)

pH

d)

Zinc

50.

The sperm parameter evaluated by resorcinol test

a)

Morphology

b)

Vitality

c)

Fructose

d)

Function

51.

The parameter being tested through CASA

a)

Sperm Morphology

b)

Sperm Trajectory

c)

Sperm Motility

d)

All of the given choices

52.

The test used to differentiate amniotic fluid from maternal urine

a)

Foam Stability Index

b)

Amniostat FLM

c)

Optical density

d)

Fern test

53.

The major contributor of the amniotic fluid after the first trimester of pregnancy

a)

Maternal urine

b)

Maternal circulation

c)

Fetal Urine

d)

Fetal Blood

54.

An analyte used to measure fetal age

a)

Creatinine

b)

Urea

c)

Uric acid

d)

Protein

55.

Which of the following causes Hyperchlorhydia

a)

Cholecystitis

b)

Pernicious anemia

c)

Syphilis of the stomach

d)

Sprue

56.

Responsible for the production of mucus which serves to lubricate the food for the protection of the stomach

a)

Parietal cells

b)

Peptic cells

c)

Goblet cells

d)

Chief cells

57.

Ani instrument described as a moderately soft rubber about 3-4mm in diameter and 56 inches length attached with a syringe and is used in collecting gastric juice

a)

Levin

b)

Rehfuss

c)

Kaslow

d)

Sawyer

58.

The structure seen in chronic tuberculosis

a)

Curshmann spiral

b)

Pneumoliths

c)

Dittrichs

d)

Bronchial cast

59.

Elastic fibers is suggestive of

a)

TB

b)

Bronchial asthma

c)

Lobar pneumonia

d)

Old sample

60.

A crystal observed in Empyema

a)

Charcot leyden

b)

Cholesterol

c)

Fatty acid

d)

Hematoidin

61.

What does a milky synovial fluid indicates

a)

Bacterial Infection

b)

Crystals

c)

Non inflammatory effusion

d)

Inflammatory effusion

62.

The mucin clot test is a test used to identify

a)

Amniotic fluid

b)

Synovial fluid

c)

CSF

d)

Seminal fluid

63.

Which of the following crystals indicates an abnormal metabolic condition

a)

Bilirubin

b)

Sulfonamide

c)

Uric acid

d)

Calcium oxalate

64.

A yellow brown crystal that resembles sheaves of wheat

a)

Amorphous phosphate

b)

Uric acid

c)

Sulfonamide

d)

Indinavir

65.

A crystal that can be misidentified as bacteria because of its small size and occasional rod shaped appearance

a)

Calcium carbonate

b)

Uric acid

c)

Ammonium biurate

d)

Ammonium magnesium phosphate

66.

The Rous test is used to detect this microscopic constituent

a)

Cholesterol

b)

Starch

c)

Mucus

d)

Hemosiderin

67.

Which of the following lipids is not capable of absorbing the Oil red O

a)

Triglycerides

b)

Neutral fat

c)

Cholesterol

d)

None of the given choices

68.

A leukocyte that is observed in drug hypersensitivity

a)

Neutrophil

b)

Lymphocyte

c)

Eosinophils

d)

Monocyte

69.

A cast seen following transplant rejection and malignant hypertension

a)

RTE Cast

b)

Finely Granular cast

c)

Fatty cast

d)

Waxy cast

70.

The muddy brown cast is a degenerative form of

a)

Hyaline cast

b)

RBC cast

c)

WBC cast

d)

Broad cast

71.

The proper way of urine centrifugation

a)

400 RCF for 5 mins

b)

500 RCF for 10 mins

c)

800 RCF for 10 mins

d)

1000 RCF for 10 mins

72.

The volume of the sediment used in the conventional glass slide method for the urine microscopic examination

a)

0.02ml

b)

0.20ml

c)

0.05ml

d)

0.50ml

73.

The proper way of reporting cast

a)

ave no / Scanning obj

b)

ave no / LPO

c)

ave no / HPO

d)

ave no / OIO

74.

The urine specimen used for Addis count

a)

Random

b)

First Morning

c)

12 Hr urine

d)

24 hr urine

75.

The most frequently used stain in Urinalysis

a)

2% Acetic acid

b)

Gramstain

c)

Hansel

d)

Sternheimer Malbin

76.

A stain used to differentiate white blood cell from an RTE cell

a)

Sternheimer malbin

b)

Hansel

c)

Toluidine blue

d)

Prussian blue

77.

A compiund used to differentiate an rbc from white blood cell, yeast and oil droplets

a)

Hansel stain

b)

Chymotrypsin

c)

Dulbecco

d)

2% Acetic acid

78.

A stain used for identifying leukocyte present in the urine of patients with acute interstitial nephritis

a)

Toluidine Blue

b)

STernheminer

c)

Acetic acid

d)

Hansel stain

79.

Yellow brown granules that stains blue using a Prussian blue stain is a

a)

Bilirubin crystal

b)

Hemosiderin crystal

c)

Glitter cell

d)

Lipid

80.

The presence of dysmorphic rbc in a urine sample is suggestive of

a)

Glomerular bleeding

b)

Upper UTI

c)

Lower UTI

d)

Urethritis

81.

What analyte is measured in ascitic fluid of puncture or rupture of the bladder is suspected

a)

BUN

b)

SGPT

c)

Protein

d)

SGOT

82.

The pleural fluid: serum cholesterol ratio of an exudative effusion

a)

>0.03

b)

>0.06

c)

>0.09

d)

>12.0

83.

This/These are effusions that form as a result of systemic disorders that disrupts the balance in the regulation of fluid filtration and reabsorption

a)

Transudates

b)

Exudates

c)

Both

d)

Neither

84.

The color of health hazard quadrant in the NFPA hazardous material classification

a)

Blue

b)

Red

c)

White

d)

Yellow

85.

What type of fire extinguisher is used for flammable organic materials

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

86.

An extinguisher for electrical components

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

87.

The proper way of storing reagent strip

a)

Humidified adequately

b)

Stored in a refrigerator

c)

Stored in tightly capped container

d)

Protected from dark

88.

Wt floors heavy boxes and patients are classified as

a)

Physical hazard

b)

Chemical Hazard

c)

Ergonomic hazard

d)

Fire hazard

89.

A guideline that stated " all body fluids and moist body substances shall be considered as potentially infectious"

a)

BSI

b)

UP

c)

OSHA

d)

SP

90.

A type of respirator that must be worn involving processing of mycobacterium

a)

N93

b)

N94

c)

N95

d)

N96

91.

These are round or conical tube with no preservative used on automated instruments

a)

Yellow UA plus

b)

Cherry red tube

c)

Boric acid

d)

Lithium heparin

92.

Preservative/s incorporated in gray culture and sensitivity tube

a)

Boric acid

b)

Soidum biurate

c)

Sodium formate

d)

All of the given choices

93.

Sodium fluoride inhibit the test for

a)

Glucose

b)

Blood

c)

Leukocyte

d)

All of the given choices

94.

The type of sample used in Albumin excretion rate

a)

First morning

b)

24 hr

c)

Random

d)

Afternoon

95.

Time span suitable for evaluation of urobilinogen

a)

8am - 10am

b)

10am - 12pm

c)

12pm - 2pm

d)

2pm - 4pm

96.

Methods to be used in pediatric patients

a)

Midstream

b)

Suprapubic

c)

24hr

d)

First moning

97.

VB2 in the Stamey mears stands for

a)

Midstream urine

b)

Initial voided

c)

Post prostatic massage specimen

d)

Random urine

98.

The urine temperature in drug testing must be taken within

a)

2 mins

b)

3 mins

c)

4 mins

d)

5 mins

99.

The specimen used for micral test

a)

First morning

b)

Random

c)

24 hour

d)

None of the given choices

100.

Advisable for quantitative analysis of porphyrins and porphobilinogen

a)

Sodium carbonate

b)

Saccomano

c)

Thymol

d)

Formalin