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CLINICAL PARASITOLOGY

Total questions: 200

Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

All of the Following are true about Parasitology except:

a)

Area of biology concerned with the phenomenon of dependence of one living organism on another

b)

Study of parasites, their hosts & relationship between them.

c)

the study of living organisms, divided into many specialized fields that cover their morphology, physiology, anatomy, behavior, origin, and distribution

2.

All are true about Pre-patent period except:

a)

Initiated by early trophozoite ring stage

b)

Interval of infection to the time it is already detectable in blood

c)

the time from the moment of exposure to an infectious agent until signs and symptoms of the disease appear.

d)

Can be seen in the microscope

3.

Symbiosis is following except:

a)

Parasite & host are both harmed

b)

Similar relationship among diff. species

c)

Host & parasite dependent upon each other

4.

Parasite benefits w/out causing harm to host

a)

Commensalism

b)

Parasitism

c)

Mutualism

5.

Parasitism is

a)

Parasite & host benefits

b)

Parasite benefits

Host is harmed

c)

Parasite benefits

Host is not harmed

6.

Both parasite & host benefits

a)

Symbiosis

b)

Mutualism

c)

Commensalism

d)

Parasitism

7.

Agent who carries & transmits an infectious pathogen into another living organism

a)

Parasite

b)

Host

c)

Vector

8.

(2) Route of infection

a)

Common: fecal - oral

b)

carries blood containing the digested nutrients from the entire gastrointestinal tract

c)

Pathway to which pathogens enter the body & cause disease.

9.

Timelapse by the time the infection is acquired until 1st on-set sign of clinical manifestation

a)

Incubation period

b)

Prepatent period

10.

Prepatent period

a)

Period of transmission of disease until parasitic infection

b)

Timelapse by the time the infection is acquired until 1st on-set sign of clinical manifestation

c)

Period of parasitic infection until the demonstration of the infective stage of the parasite

11.

Parasite needs final host

a)

Indirect life cycle

b)

Direct life cycle

12.

Indirect life cycle

a)

Parasite needs final host

b)

Parasite needs intermediate host

13.

Parasite attains sexual maturity

a)

Reservoir host

b)

Intermediate host

c)

Definitive host

d)

Paratenic host

14.

Asexual multiplication takes place

a)

Resevoir host

b)

Final host

c)

Intermediate host

d)

Paratenic hosy

15.

Parasite does not develop further to later stage

a)

Definitive host

b)

Paratenic host

c)

Reservoir host

16.

Parasite lives in a host to continue its life cycle

a)

Intermediate host

b)

Paratenic host

c)

Reservoir host

17.

Greek word for "WORMS"

a)

Flukes

b)

Namatodes

c)

Platyhelminths

d)

Helminths

18.

Platyhelminths

a)

Flatworms

b)

Roundworms

c)

Tapeworms

19.

Nematodes

a)

Flatworms

b)

Roundworms

20.

Parasites that may exist on large/small intestine

a)

Extraintestinal parasites

b)

Intestinal parasites

21.

Extraintestinal parasites could be found on except:

a)

Blood

b)

Liver

c)

Stomach

d)

Lungs

e)

Muscle

22.

(2) are correct

a)

Infection; ectoparasites

b)

Infestation; endoparasites

c)

Endoparasites:infection

d)

Ectoparasites;infestation

23.

Endoparasites except

a)

Pinworm

b)

Cestodes

c)

Tapeworm

d)

Cryptosporidium

e)

Arthropods

24.

(2) Classification of platyhelminths

a)

Tapeworms / trematodes

b)

Trematodes / flukes

c)

Cestodes / flukes

d)

Tapeworms / cestodes

25.

Nematodes bases are

a)

Elongated

b)

Shortened

26.

Parasite that causes infestation

a)

Protozoans

b)

Nematodes

c)

Cestodes

d)

Ectoparasites

27.

Parasites that causes infection

a)

Endoparasites

b)

Ectoparasites

28.

The following are parasites causing infection except:

a)

Giardia lamblia

b)

Wuchereria bancrofti

c)

Ctenocephalides canis

d)

Toxoplasma gondii

29.

Parasites that may exist onLARGE/SMALL INTESTINE

a)

Intestinal parasites

b)

Extraintestinal parasites

30.

Parasites that may exist onLUNGS, LIVER, BLOOD OR MUSCLE

a)

Intestinal parasites

b)

Extraintestinal parasites

31.

Nematodes bases are

a)

Elongated

b)

Shortened

32.

Which is not an example of a zoonotic disease?

a)

Lyme Disease

b)

Toxoplasmosis

c)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa(human infection from plants)

33.

Nematodes are

a)

Monoecious

b)

Diecious

34.

Does nematodes have alimentary canal?

a)

Present & complete

b)

Incomplete

c)

None

35.

Nematode buccal cavity

a)

Absent

b)

Present

36.

Nematodes head end:

a)

With suckers; no hooks

b)

No suckers; with hooks

c)

With suckers & hooks

d)

No suckers & hooks

37.

Trematode bases

a)

Elongated

b)

Shortened segmented

c)

Leaf-like unsegmented

38.

Trematode sexes

a)

Monoecious

b)

Diecious

39.

Trematode alimentary canal

a)

Absent

b)

Incomplete; no anus

c)

Incomplete; no duodenum

d)

Present & Complete

40.

Trematode buccal cavity

a)

Present

b)

Absent

41.

Trematode head end:

a)

With suckers & hooks

b)

No suckers & hooks

c)

With suckers; no hooks

d)

No suckers ; with hooks

42.

Not a commensal intestinal amoeba

a)

E.coli

b)

E.hartmani

c)

E.gingivalis

d)

E.nana

e)

E.butchlii

43.

Cestode bases

a)

Shortened segmented

b)

Curved longated

c)

Leaf-like unsegmented

d)

Tape-like segmented

44.

Cestode sexes

a)

Polygamous

b)

Diecious

c)

Monoecious

45.

Cestodes

Alimentary canal; Buccal cavity

a)

Absent;Present

b)

Both present

c)

Present ;Absent

d)

Both absent

46.

Cestodes head end:

a)

With suckers; often with hooks

b)

Often without suckers; with hooks

c)

Suckers & hooks both absent

47.

Postulated 2 morphologically indistinguishable species of E.histolytica

a)

Carolus Linnaeus

b)

Emile Brumpt

c)

Francesco Redi

d)

Ronald Ross

48.

All are used for distinguishing

E.dispar

E.histolytica

E.moshkovskii

except:

a)

PCR

b)

RFLP

c)

thick and thin blood films

d)

Monoclonal body typing

49.

Pseusopod-forming non-flagellated protozoan parasite

a)

E.histolytica

b)

E.dispar

c)

E.nana

50.

Most invasive of entamoeba spp.,

Strict anaerobe And causes liver abscess & colitis

a)

E. histolytica

b)

E. coli

c)

E.gingivalis

51.

Entamoeba histolytica

Outer membrane ; endoplasmic reticulum

a)

Triple coat; granulated

b)

Thin coat ; well developed

c)

Fuzzy coat; not well developed

52.

Stages of development of E.histolytica

a)

Trophozoite

Pre cyst

Metacyst

Metacystic trophozoite

b)

Pre cyst

Metacyst

Metacystic trophozoite

Trophozoite

53.

E.histolytica trophozoite

a)

Pre cyst- excystation

Meta cyst- quadrinucleated

Metacystic trophozoite- found in large intestine

b)

Pre cyst- quadrinucleated

Meta cyst- found in large intestine

Metacystic trophozoite-excystation

54.

Size:10um

Shape:dependent on pseudopodia

Motility: unidirectional & progressive

Nucleus: 1

a)

E.histolytica troph

b)

E.histolytica cyst

c)

E.nana troph

d)

E.nana cyst

55.

E.histolytica trophozoite (4)

a)

Found in lumen & glandular crypts of colon in the tissue

b)

Surrounded by a layer of achromatic globules

c)

Active & vegetative

d)

MOT: fecal-oral route

e)

Invasive form

56.

3 main processes that govern the pathogenic effect

a)

Lipogenesis

b)

Cytoadherence

c)

Cytolysis

d)

Proteolysis

57.

Attachment to cell

a)

Cytoadherence

b)

Lipolysis

c)

Proteolysis

58.

Cell breakdown

a)

Cytolysis

b)

Cytoadherence

59.

Breakdown of proteins

a)

Proteolysis

b)

proteoglycan

60.

Clinical manifestation of E.histolytica in the intestine (2)

a)

Intestinal lesion

b)

Ameboma

c)

Amebiasis

d)

Hepatic amebiasis

61.

Ameboma

a)

Granulomatous mass

b)

Apple-core lesion

c)

Sequela of an amebic ulcer

d)

Flask-shaped ulcer

62.

One of the clinical manifestation of E.histolytica in the liver is early liver abscess and 4 others

a)

Diffuse amebic hepatitis

b)

Hepatic amebiasis

c)

Ameboma

d)

Amebic hepatitis

e)

Amebic abscess

63.

Whipworm

a)

Hymenolepis nana

b)

Entamoeba dispar

c)

Fasciola hepatica

d)

Trichuris trichiura

64.

Threadworm

a)

Taenia solium

b)

Strongyloides stercoralis

c)

Taenia saginata

d)

Ascaris lumbricoides

65.

Giant intestinal roundworm

a)

Ascaris lumbricoides

b)

Dipylidium caninum

c)

Enterobius vermicularis

d)

Hymenolepis nana

66.

Pinworm

a)

Fasciolopsis buski

b)

Schistosoma mansoni

c)

Enterobius vermicularis

d)

Clonorchis sinensis

67.

Cat and dog tapeworm

a)

Taenia solium

b)

Dipylidium caninum

c)

Taenia saginata

d)

Diphylobothrium latum

68.

Fish tapeworm

a)

Taenia solium

b)

Dipylidium caninum

c)

Taenia saginata

d)

Diphylobothrium latum

69.

Dwarf tapeworm

a)

Hymenolepis nana

b)

Clonorchis sinensis

c)

Paragonimus westermani

d)

Entamoeba dispar

70.

Large intestinal fluke

a)

Trichuris trichiura

b)

Fasciolopsis buski

c)

Schistosoma japonicum

d)

Enterobius vermicularis

71.

Sheep liver fluke

a)

Fasciola hepatica

b)

Schistosoma japonicum

c)

Strongyloides stercolaris

d)

Fasciolopsis buski

72.

Chinese liver fluke

a)

Clonorchis sinensis

b)

Hymenolepis nana

c)

Entamoeba dispar

d)

Paragonimus westermani

73.

Blood fluke

a)

Entamoeba dispar

b)

Schistosoma mansoni

c)

Enterobius vermicularis

d)

Schistosoma japonicum

74.

Oriental lung fluke

a)

Ascaris lumbricoides

b)

Hymenolepis nana

c)

Paragonimus westermani

d)

Schistosoma haematobium

75.

This parasite is transmitted by Sandfly and causes infection of the visceral organs.

a)

T. brucei

b)

T.cruzi

c)

L. tropica

d)

L. donovani

76.

A protozoan parasite with bilateral symmetry, 4 pairs of flagella and causes Traveller's diarrhea.

a)

G. lamblia

b)

T. vaginalis

c)

T. hominis

d)

B. malayi

77.

The smallest tapeworm that infects man and can become an adult.

a)

D. latum

b)

T. saginata

c)

E. granulosus

d)

H. nana

78.

The findings of ingested RBCs in a trophozoite identifies what parasite?

a)

E. histolytica

b)

E. coli

c)

D. fragilis

d)

E. nana

79.

It results when an infected individual becomes his own direct source of infection.

a)

Autoinfection

b)

Hyperinfection

c)

Superinfection

80.

All of the following are transmitted orally, except:

a)

Taenia spp.

b)

Spirometra spp.

c)

Hookworms

d)

A. lumbricoides

81.

Congenital transmission is associated to what parasite?

a)

Hookworm

b)

Strongyloides

c)

T. gondii

d)

Cryptosporidium

82.

All of the following has higher degree of sensitivity in detecting intestinal parasites, except:

a)

DFS

b)

Kato thick

c)

Kato katz

d)

FECT

83.

What is the function of ventral sucker seen in trematodes?

a)

Attachment

b)

Reproduction

c)

Feeding

d)

Vegetation

84.

A stool culture technique that is used to cultivate the hookworms and thread worm:

a)

Kato katz

b)

Harada mori

c)

Kato thick

d)

FECT

85.

In COPT test, what is the possible positive result?

a)

Agglutination

b)

Bubble formation

c)

Bleb formation

d)

Precipitin line

86.

"Monkey face" looking parasite:

a)

E. nana

b)

G. lamblia

c)

T. vaginalis

d)

E. dispar

87.

This parasite is known as the "Malaria of the East".

a)

I. belli

b)

T. cruzi

c)

B. microti

d)

D. fragilis

88.

Mosquito vector of Malaria in the Philippines is

a)

Aedes aegypti

b)

Anopheles flavirostris

c)

Culex quinquefasciatus

d)

Mansonia annulata

89.

The habitat is the large intestine

a)

Entamoeba gingivalis

b)

Entamoeba histolytica

c)

Giardia lamblia

d)

Naegleria fowleri

90.

Anchovy sauce-like materials is associated with

a)

Amoebic colitis

b)

Amoebiasis cutis

c)

Pulmonary amoebiasis

d)

Amoebic liver abscess

91.

The pathogenic stage of Entamoeba histolytica to man has

a)

pseudopodia

b)

Ingested RBC

c)

both

d)

neither

92.

Frank dysentery in Amoebiasis is frequently present with the involvement of the

a)

brain

b)

cecum

c)

liver

d)

recto-sigmoid region

93.

Which species of Plasmodium may readily be identified when crescent-shaped gametocytes are found in stained blood films?

a)

P. falciparum

b)

P. malariae

c)

P. ovale

d)

P. vivax

94.

For which of the following diseases is close contact with an infected human host the most important mechanism of transmission?

a)

Schistosomiasis

b)

Toxoplasmosis

c)

Trichinosis

d)

Trichomoniasis

95.

Which stage of Taenia saginata is usually infective for humans?

a)

Cysticercus larva

b)

Embryonated egg

c)

Filariform larva

d)

Rhabditiform larva

96.

Decontamination of drinking water, fruits, and vegetables before consumption is necessary in countries without well developed public sanitation. Which of the following diseases would probably be least affected by that kind of precaution?

a)

Amebiasis

b)

Ascariasis

c)

Filariasis

d)

Giardiasis

97.

Cysts are the infective stage of this intestinal flagellate.

a)

Balantidium coli

b)

Dientamoeba fragilis

c)

Entamoeba coli

d)

Giardia lamblia

98.

Many parasites have different stages of growth within different hosts. The host where the sexual reproductive stage of the parasites exists is called the

a)

Commensal

b)

Definitive host

c)

Intermediate host

d)

Vector

99.

Which of the following findings in a peripheral blood smear is especially associated with tissue-invading helminths but may also be found in a variety of allergic conditions and other diseases?

a)

Leukopenia

b)

Lymphocytosis

c)

Neutropenia

d)

Eosinophilia

100.

Which species of malaria parasite usually has ameboid trophozoites and produces small reddish dots in the red blood cell cytoplasm?

a)

Plasmodium knowlesi

b)

Plasmodium falciparum

c)

Plasmodium malariae

d)

Plasmodium vivax

101.

Species identification of an immature amebic cyst can be very difficult. The presence of a large glycogen mass is

sometimes seen in

a)

Dientamoeba fragilis

b)

Endolimax nana

c)

Entamoeba coli

d)

Entamoeba histolytica

102.

The duration of the Erythrocytic-Schizogonic Cycle is 72 hours

a)

Benign tertian malaria

b)

Malignant tertian malaria

c)

Quartan malaria

d)

All of the above

103.

Sub-tertian Malaria is cause by

a)

Plasmodium vivax

b)

Plasmodium malariae

c)

Plasmodium falciparum

d)

Plasmodium ovale

104.

Associated with Entamoeba gingivalis

a)

Trichomonas hominis

b)

Trichomonas vaginalis

c)

Trichomonas tenax

d)

All mentioned

105.

Produces Ziemann’s dot

a)

Plasmodium falciparum

b)

Plasmodium malariae

c)

Plasmodium ovale

d)

Plasmodium vivax

106.

The most commonly involved organ in Hydatid Disease is the

a)

liver

b)

lungs

c)

kidney

d)

brain

107.

Taeniasis solium is produced after ingestion of the

a)

Cysticercoid larvae

b)

Cysticercus bovis

c)

Cysticercus cellulosae

d)

Taenia egg

108.

Taenia saginata is associated with

a)

Cat

b)

Dog

c)

Cattle

d)

Pig

109.

Produces Ocular cysticercosis to man

a)

Dipylidium caninum

b)

Hymenolepis diminuta

c)

Taenia saginata

d)

Taenia solium

110.

Bothriocephalus anemia is associated with

a)

iron deficiency anemia

b)

microcytic hypochromic

c)

pernicious anemia

d)

megaloblastic anemia

111.

The infective stage of Diphyllobothrium latum to man to produce adult infection is the

a)

cysticercoid larva

b)

procercoid larva

c)

sparganum larva

d)

cysticercus larva

112.

Hookworms

a)

Necator americanus

b)

Ancylostoma caninum

c)

Neither

d)

Both

113.

Cutaneous larva migrans

a)

Nonhuman hookworms

b)

Human hookworm

114.

Causative agent of Uncinariasis

a)

Ascaris lumbricoides

b)

Neisseria gonorrhea

c)

Ancylostoma duodenale

d)

Necator americanus

115.

Old world hookworm

a)

Ancylostoma caninum

b)

Ancylostoma duodenum

c)

Ancylostoma braziliense

d)

Ancylostoma americanus

116.

Habitat of necator americanus

a)

Duodenum only

b)

Ileum only

c)

Duodenum & jejunum

d)

Jejunum & proximal ileum

117.

Preferred route of infection for Ancylostomiasis

a)

Oral

b)

Percutaneous

c)

Rectal

d)

Sexual contact

118.

Preferred route of infection for Ancylostomiasis

a)

Oral

b)

Percutaneous

c)

Rectal

d)

Sexual contact

119.

Definitive host of Ancylostoma braziliense

a)

Pig

b)

Horse

c)

Cat

d)

Dog

120.

Treatment of cutaneous larva migrans

a)

Fluorocyanide

b)

Aspirin

c)

Thiobendazole

d)

Thionalangkasi

121.

Laboratory diagnosis of Strongyloides stercoralis: What will you see in duodenal fluid/sputum?

a)

Filariform larva

b)

Rhabditiform larva

c)

Adult worm

d)

Egg

122.

Other names of Enterobius vermicularis EXCEPT

a)

Pinworm

b)

Seat worm

c)

Stand worm

d)

Society worm

123.

Postulated 2 morphologically indistinguishable species of E.histolytica

a)

Carolus Linnaeus

b)

Emile Brumpt

c)

Francesco Redi

d)

Ronald Ross

124.

Disease caused by E. vermicularis

a)

Enterobiasis

b)

Oxyuriasis

c)

Both

d)

Neither

125.

Egg is D shaped or lop-sided appearance

a)

E. vermicularis

b)

A. duodenale

c)

T. cati

d)

S. stercoralis

126.

Laboratory diagnosis of Enterobius vermicularis by demonstration of eggs or adults in what technique

a)

Direct fecal smear

b)

Sputum test

c)

Graham scotch tape swab

d)

Harada Mori technique

127.

Visceral larva migrans

a)

Enterobiasis

b)

Toxocariasis

c)

Filariasis

d)

Ancylostomiasis

128.

These are sheathed filarial worms EXCEPT

a)

Loa Loa

b)

Onchocerca volvulus

c)

Wuchereria bancrofti

d)

Brugia malayi

129.

Malayan filariasis

Translate Tweet

a)

Brugia

b)

Wuchereria

c)

Mansonella

d)

Moira

130.

Eye worm

a)

Onchocerca

b)

Loa loa

c)

Brugia

d)

Wuchereria

131.

River blindness

a)

Necator

b)

Enterobius

c)

Toxoplasma

d)

Onchocerca

132.

Ozzard filarial

a)

Ancylostoma

b)

Mansonella

c)

Trichinella

d)

Ascaris

133.

Calabar of fugitive swelling

a)

Toxocara cati

b)

Brugia malayi

c)

Loa loa

d)

Hookworm

134.

Cochin-China diarrhea

a)

Pinworm

b)

Hookworm

c)

Seatworm

d)

Threadworm

135.

Usual habitat of Strongyloides stercoralis

a)

Appendix

b)

Small intestine

c)

Stomach

d)

Large intestine

136.

ABOVE the knee elephantiasis

a)

Loa loa

b)

Brugia malayi

c)

Wuchereria bancrofti

d)

Both brugia & wuchereria

137.

BELOW the knee elephantiasis

a)

Loa loa

b)

Brugia

c)

Wuchereria

d)

Both Brugia and Loa loa

138.

Diurnal periodicity

a)

Loa loa

b)

Brugia

c)

Wuchereria

d)

Strongyloides

139.

Capillaria philippinensis is 1st reported in Ilocos Norte. It is transmitted through small fish. Example of small fish are these EXCEPT

a)

Birut

b)

Bagsit

c)

Bagsang

d)

Bebelab

140.

Mystery disease

a)

Pinworm

b)

Muscle round worm

c)

Pudoc worm

d)

Threadworm

141.

Lemon shape

a)

Giardia

b)

Trichuris

c)

Ascaris

d)

Capillaria

142.

Habitat: Lung

a)

Paragonimus

b)

Giardia

c)

Fasciola

d)

Schistosoma

143.

No respiratory or circulatory system

a)

Nematodes

b)

Cestodes

c)

Trematodes

d)

Flagellates

144.

Specimen of choice for the recovery of Schistosoma haematobium

a)

First morning urine

b)

Random urine

c)

24-hour urine

d)

Catheterized urine

145.

Outermost layer of fertilized decorticated Ascaris lumbricoides ova

a)

Lipoidal vitelline

b)

Lecithin granules

c)

Glycogen layer

d)

Albuminoid layer

146.

Common name for Trichuris trichiura?

a)

Thread worm

b)

Guinea worm

c)

Giant intestinalroundworm

d)

Whip worm

147.

Common name for Ascaris lumbricoides?

a)

Thread worm

b)

Guinea worm

c)

Giant intestinal roundworm

d)

Whip worm

148.

Common name for Dracunculus medinensis

a)

Thread worm

b)

Guinea worm

c)

Giant Intestinalroundworm

d)

Whip worm

149.

Common name for Strongyloides stercoralis?

a)

Thread worm

b)

Guinea worm

c)

Giant intestinalroundworm

d)

Whip worm

150.

Common name for Trichinella spiralis?

a)

Pudoc's worm

b)

Pin worm

c)

Trichina worm

d)

Rat Lung worm

151.

Common name for Angiostrongyloides cantonensis?

a)

Pudoc's worm

b)

Trichina worm

c)

Pin worm

d)

Rat lung worm

152.

Common name for Capillaria philippinensis?

a)

Pudoc's worm

b)

Trichina worm

c)

Pin worm

d)

Rat Lung Worm

153.

Common name for Enterobius vermicularis?

a)

Pudoc's worm

b)

Trichina worm

c)

Pin worm

d)

Rat Lung worm

154.

Common name for Loa-loa?

a)

African eye worm

b)

West round worm

c)

Intestinal round worm

d)

Tape worm

155.

Common name for Anisakis spp. ?

a)

Herrings worm

b)

Seal worm

c)

Codworm

d)

AOTA

e)

NOTA

156.

Also known as New world hook worm?

a)

Necator americanus

b)

Ancylostoma duodenale

c)

Ancylostoma americanus

d)

Necator duodenale

157.

Also known as Old world hookworm?

a)

Necator americanus

b)

Ancylostoma duodenale

c)

Ancylostoma americanus

d)

Necator duodenale

158.

Also known as Old world hookworm?

a)

Necator americanus

b)

Ancylostoma duodenale

c)

Ancylostoma americanus

d)

Necator duodenale

159.

What are the three basic morphologic structure?

a)

Eggs, Larvae, Oblique

b)

Eggs, Circle, Larvae

c)

Eggs, Larvae, Adult worms

d)

Eggs, Circle, Transparent

e)

AOTA

160.

It is a thick, transparent and hyaline shell

a)

Eggs

b)

Larvae

c)

Cylindrical

d)

Adult worms

161.

It is long and slender

a)

Eggs

b)

Larvae

c)

Hyaline Shell

d)

Adult worms

162.

What is the habitat of Trichinella spiralis?

a)

Small intestine

b)

Large intestine

c)

Striated muscle

d)

Cecum

163.

Referred to as "Chinese Lantern Ova"

a)

Trichuris trichiura

b)

Trichinella spiralis

c)

Strongyloides stercoralis

d)

Dracunculus medinensis

164.

It is barrel or football shaped with bipolar mucus plug or "Japanese Lantern"

a)

Trichuris trichiura

b)

Trichinella spiralis

c)

Strongyloides stercoralis

d)

Dracunculus medinensis

165.

It is the ONLY nematode ever coughed and vomited

a)

Ascaris lumbricoides

b)

Enterobius vermicularis

c)

Strongyloides stercoralis

d)

Ancylostoma caninum

e)

2 among the choices

166.

What is the symbol of Physician and the serpents believed to represents the Guinea worm?

a)

Cadeceus

b)

Caduceus

c)

Caudeceus

d)

Cauduceus

167.

The mature cyst of Entamoeba histolytica has how many nuclei?

a)

1-2

b)

2

c)

2-3

d)

4

168.

Which of the following organisms preferentially invades reticulocytes?

a)

P.vivax

b)

P.falciparum

c)

P.malariae

d)

P.ovale

169.

What organism is the cause of Kala-Azar?

a)

T. cruzi

b)

L. donovani

c)

T. gambiense

d)

L. braziliensis

170.

A lemond shaped cyst with a nipple at one end belongs to:

a)

Dientamoeba

b)

Giardia

c)

Trichomonas

d)

Chilomastix

171.

How is T. cruzi transmitted?

a)

Sexual contact

b)

Tse tse fly

c)

Ixodes

d)

Reduviid bug

172.

Which of the following parasites is associated with AIDS?

a)

Babesia

b)

Sarcocystis

c)

Cryptosporidium

d)

Isospora belli

173.

In what type of specimen can the atrial flagella survive?

a)

Blood

b)

Stool

c)

Vaginal secretion

d)

Spinal fluid

174.

The helminth infection that can induce the highest rise in eosinophils in peripheral blood is:

a)

Taeniasis

b)

Trichinosis

c)

Trichuriasis

d)

Trichomoniasis

175.

Which malarial organism whose schizont resembles a fruit pie in which the merozoites form a Rosette around malarial pigment?

a)

P. falciparum

b)

P.ovale

c)

P.malariae

d)

P.vivax

176.

What is the ideal temperature at which hold a fecal specimen for any length of time?

a)

Refrigerator

b)

Incubator

c)

Room temperature

d)

Freezer

177.

Also known as the pork tapeworm and the common mode of infection is eating raw pork:

a)

H.nana

b)

T. solium

c)

T.saginata

d)

D. caninum

178.

Which of the following has a falling leaf motility?

a)

Blastocystis hominis

b)

Giardia lamblia

c)

Trichomonas hominis

d)

Chilomastix mesnili

179.

What is the size of the cyst of Entamoeba hartmanni?

a)

10 to 20 um

b)

15 um

c)

< 20 um

d)

< 10 um

180.

Which of the following organism has a sunburst appearance in their egg?

a)

Schistosome spp.

b)

Hymenolepsis spp.

c)

Leishmania spp.

d)

Taenia spp.

181.

Which of the following is the oldest schistosome?

a)

Schistosome haematobium

b)

Schistosome mansoni

c)

Schistosome intercalatum

d)

Schistosome japonicum

182.

It is the largest intestinal fluke:

a)

Faciolopsis buski

b)

Heterophyid fluke

c)

Garrisons fluke

d)

Fasciola hepatica

183.

It harbors asexual/larval stage

a)

Final host

b)

Paratenic host

c)

Reservoir host

d)

Intermediate host

184.

Study of patterns distribution and occurrence of disease:

a)

Incidence

b)

Epidemiology

c)

Prevalence

d)

Eradication

185.

Parasite that lays eggs which hatch before leaving host:

a)

Oviparous

b)

Viviparous

c)

Oviviparous

d)

AOTA

186.

What is the 2nd intermediate host of Diphyllobthrium latum?

a)

Freshwater fish

b)

Crabs

c)

Snail

d)

Copepods

187.

Amebiasis is caused by:

a)

E. hartmanni

b)

E. histolytica

c)

E. coli

d)

E. nana

188.

The eggs of E. granulosus are found in the feces of:

a)

Dogs

b)

Cats

c)

Cattle

d)

Fish

189.

In which specimen are Acanthamoeba and Naegleria usually found?

a)

Blood

b)

Body fluid

c)

Joint fluid

d)

CSF

190.

Which of the following organs of the body is most often involved in extraintestinal amebiasis?

a)

Liver

b)

Intestine

c)

Heart

d)

Pancreas

191.

What is the preferred specific gravity of zinc sulfate solution for the floatation method?

a)

1.01

b)

1.40

c)

1.18

d)

1.05

192.

Which of the following has a shaped like rose thorns?

a)

Schistosoma haematobium

b)

Schistosoma mansoni

c)

Blastocystis hominis

d)

Dientamoeba fragilis

193.

What is the second Intermediate host of F. gigantica?

a)

Snail

b)

Copepads

c)

Aquatic plants

d)

Crabs

194.

A six-hooked embryo is known as:

a)

Strobila

b)

Hexacant

c)

Scolex

d)

Proglottid

195.

Parasite of wading birds, human infection reported through ingestion of sushi:

a)

Acanthocephala spp.

b)

Gongylonema spp.

c)

Eustrongyloides spp.

d)

Anisakis spp.

196.

Which of the following is the only filarial specie confined to new world?

a)

Mansonella streptocerca

b)

Mansonella perstans

c)

Mansonella ozzardi

d)

P. cantonensis

197.

Nematodes

a)

Flatworms

b)

Roundworms

198.

These are protozoa except

a)

Amoeba

b)

Ciliates

c)

Nematodes

d)

Sporozoa

199.

These are flagellates EXCEPT

a)

Giardia

b)

Trichomonas

c)

Leishmania

d)

Cryptosporidium

200.

Trematodes are hermaphroditic EXCEPT

a)

Pancreatic flukes

b)

Intestinal flukes

c)

Blood flukes

d)

Liver flukes

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10th Grade - University