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Worksheets

BMET Course 108

Total questions: 297

Worksheet time: 5hrs 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What term is used to describe the maximum number of clock cycles that a CPU can handle in a given period of time?

a)

clock speed

b)

speed

c)

cycle speed

d)

Speedy Gonzales

2.

what term is used for

"An individual 1 or 0"

a)

Bit

b)

Byte

c)

Word

d)

Sentence

3.

what term is used for

"8 bits"

a)

Bit

b)

Byte

c)

Word

d)

Sentence

4.

what term is used for

"16 bits"

a)

Bit

b)

Byte

c)

Word

d)

Sentence

5.

What is the name given to the set of wires used by the CPU to communicate with the Memory Controller Chip (MCC)?

a)

Data Bus

b)

Address Bus

c)

Street Address

d)

Cables

6.

What is the purpose of cache memory?

a)

Holds program and data currently being used by the CPU

b)

Holds programs and data not currently being used by the CPU

c)

Preloads as many instructions as possible and keeps copies of frequently used instructions

7.

The delay in a RAM stick's response time is called its ____ and refers to ____

a)

Latency; Column Address Strobe

b)

Latency; Speed

c)

Delay; Column Address Strobe

d)

Delay; Speed

8.

To ensure maximum stability is a system, choose RAM sticks that match in

a)

Technology

b)

Capacity

c)

Speed

d)

Latency

e)

LEDs

9.

Motherboard form factors are industry standardized shapes and layouts that apply to what three computer components?

a)

Case

b)

Motherboard

c)

Power Supply

d)

Keyboard

10.

What type of connection does a PCIe device have to the CPU so that it does not have to wait for other devices?

a)

NorthBridge - Single Stream

b)

SouthBridge - Dual Stream

c)

EastWestBridge - Bilateral Stream

d)

EinsteinRosenBridge - BiFrost

11.

The typical PC Power supply has at least 3 types of connectors that plug into peripherals. What are they?

a)

Molex

b)

Mini

c)

Sata

d)

Cheez

12.

Faster rotational speeds in an HDD typically translate into better performance, but also produce what negative effect?

a)

Shorter lifespan

b)

Loud noises

c)

Excess heat

d)

A false sense of confidence

e)

Existentialism

13.

SSDs are available in what three form factors?

a)

Size of the drive

b)

Physical Space

c)

Type of connection interface

d)

Pizza

14.

List four types of trash files that might typically be found in a hard drive which would be cleaned up while performing disk cleanup

a)

Recycle bin

b)

Temp Internet Files

c)

Download Program Files

d)

Temp files

e)

Garbage

15.

Designed to be the new universal standard USB connector

a)

USB-C

b)

DB25

c)

Ethernet Cable

d)

eSATA

e)

Coaxial or HDMI

16.

25 pin D-shell connector used for connection to printers

a)

USB-C

b)

LPT or DB25

c)

Ethernet Cable

d)

eSATA

e)

Coaxial or HDMI

17.

Commonly used for internet cable modem

a)

USB-C

b)

RG-6

c)

Ethernet Cable

d)

eSATA

e)

Coaxial or HDMI

18.

Extends the SATA bus at full speed to an external connection and used for external hard drives

a)

USB-C

b)

DB25

c)

Ethernet Cable

d)

eSATA

e)

Coaxial or HDMI

19.

Carries both sound and video on one cable

a)

USB-C

b)

DB25

c)

Ethernet Cable

d)

eSATA

e)

HDMI

20.

What device handles all the communication between the CPU and the monitor?

a)

Interrupt Request

b)

Driver

c)

System Software

d)

User

e)

Video Card / Display adapter

21.

The three sub-pixels of each pixel on an LCD screen are:

a)

Red

b)

Blue

c)

Green

d)

Yellow

22.

Current LCD monitors utilize ____ technology

a)

Cold Cathode Fluorescent Lamps

b)

OLED

c)

Sharks

d)

Resolution

23.

Older LCD monitors utilize ____ technology

a)

Cold Cathode Fluorescent Lamps

b)

OLED

c)

Sharks

d)

Resolution

24.

There are over 400 varieties of these

a)

Cold Cathode Fluorescent Lamps

b)

OLED

c)

Sharks

d)

Resolution

25.

____ describes the number of pixels on a display

a)

Cold Cathode Fluorescent Lamps

b)

OLED

c)

Sharks

d)

Resolution

26.

Four Steps of Computing

a)

Input

b)

Processing

c)

Output

d)

Storage

e)

Printing

27.

Four basic computer components

a)

System Unit

b)

CPU

c)

Random Access Memory

d)

Hard Drive

e)

Soft Drive

28.

Simply carries data

Internal CPU bus

EDB carries data from CPU and rest of the computer

a)

Data Bus

b)

Address Bus

c)

memory controller chip

d)

Clock

e)

Cache

29.

Unidirectional Bus

Has a specific destination

a)

Data Bus

b)

Address Bus

c)

Wait state / pipeline stall

d)

Clock

e)

Cache

30.

places single row of RAM on EDB

or

places contents of EDB on single row of RAM

a)

Data Bus

b)

Address Bus

c)

memory controller chip

d)

Clock

e)

Cache

31.

Chip and Speed

a)

Data Bus

b)

Address Bus

c)

memory controller chip

d)

Clock

e)

Cache

32.

Static RAM (SRAM) that pre-loads as many instructions as possible and keeps copies of frequently used instructions

a)

Data Bus

b)

Address Bus

c)

memory controller chip

d)

Clock

e)

Cache

33.

A time where the CPU pipeline is stalled waiting on RAM for data or instruction

a)

Data Bus

b)

Address Bus

c)

Wait state / pipeline stall

d)

Clock

e)

Cache

34.

Logical core to appear as physical core

Increasing processing efficiency

a)

Hyper-threading

b)

Virtualization

c)

x86

d)

x64

e)

16 exabytes

35.

Running more than one computer system within a single unit using the same hardware

a)

Hyper-threading

b)

Virtualization

c)

x86

d)

x64

e)

16 exabytes

36.

32 bit systems are referred to as _____

a)

Hyper-threading

b)

Virtualization

c)

x86

d)

x64

e)

16 exabytes

37.

64 bit systems are referred to as _____

a)

Hyper-threading

b)

Virtualization

c)

x86

d)

x64

e)

16 exabytes

38.

64 wires enable the address bus to address ____

a)

Hyper-threading

b)

Virtualization

c)

x86

d)

x64

e)

16 exabytes of RAM

39.

Gives a CPU the ability to process multiple commands or multiple parts of a command at the same time

a)

Multi-core Processing

b)

Integrated Memory Controller (IMC)

c)

Integrated Graphics Processing Unit (GPU)

d)

Package

e)

Zero Insertion Force (ZIF)

40.

Enables faster control over the RAM and shared cache

a)

Multi-core Processing

b)

Integrated Memory Controller (IMC)

c)

Integrated Graphics Processing Unit (GPU)

d)

Package

e)

Zero Insertion Force (ZIF)

41.

Video processing portion of the computer

a)

Multi-core Processing

b)

Integrated Memory Controller (IMC)

c)

Integrated Graphics Processing Unit (GPU)

d)

Package

e)

Zero Insertion Force (ZIF)

42.

defines how the CPU looks physically and how it connects to the computer

a)

Multi-core Processing

b)

Integrated Memory Controller (IMC)

c)

Integrated Graphics Processing Unit (GPU)

d)

Package

e)

RAM

43.

Prevents CPU damage at installation

a)

Multi-core Processing

b)

Integrated Memory Controller (IMC)

c)

Integrated Graphics Processing Unit (GPU)

d)

Package

e)

Zero Insertion Force (ZIF)

44.

Stores programs and data currently being used by the CPU

a)

Multi-core Processing

b)

Integrated Memory Controller (IMC)

c)

Integrated Graphics Processing Unit (GPU)

d)

Package

e)

RAM

45.

Made of MOSFETs and Flip Flops

Does not need refresh

Used for Cache

Expensive

a)

Static RAM

b)

Dynamic RAM

c)

Synchronous DRAM

46.

Made of MOSFETs and Capacitors

Needs refresh

Used for Main system memory

Less Expensive

a)

Static RAM

b)

Dynamic RAM

c)

Synchronous DRAM

47.

Motherboard Form factors - 12"x13"

a)

AT

b)

ATX

c)

Micro ATX

d)

Extended ATX

48.

Motherboard Form factors - 9.6"x9.6"

a)

AT

b)

ATX

c)

Micro ATX

d)

Extended ATX

49.

Motherboard Form factors - 12"x9.6"

a)

AT

b)

ATX

c)

Micro ATX

d)

Extended ATX

50.

Where does the BIOS store all of its changeable settings?

a)

RAM

b)

ROM

c)

CMOS

d)

SSD

51.

What is a file stored on the PC hard drive that contains all of the commands necessary to talk to whatever device it was written to support?

a)

Device Driver

b)

Random Access Memory

c)

Cache

d)

Read Only Memory

52.

BIOS utilizes the bootstrap loader to pass ops to the computer OS, whereas UEFI utilizes ____ for the same task

a)

Boot Manager

b)

Safe mode with networking

c)

Safe mode

d)

Normal mode

53.

What are the three basic parts of a hard drive?

a)

Platters

b)

Read/Write Heads

c)

Actuator Arm

d)

Magnets

54.

Hard drive storage is broken up into tiny sectors known as:

a)

Blocks

b)

Cells

c)

Tasks

d)

Parity

55.

All network technologies break data transmitted between computers into smaller pieces called _____

a)

Frames

b)

Collision Domain

c)

Hub

d)

Switch

56.

A group of nodes that have the capability of sending frames at the same time as each other, resulting in collisions

a)

Frames

b)

Collision Domain

c)

Hub

d)

Switch

57.

Transmits same data

a)

Frames

b)

Collision Domain

c)

Hub

d)

Switch

58.

Transmits data Point to Point

a)

Frames

b)

Collision Domain

c)

Hub

d)

Switch

59.

Within the transport layer, TCP communication breaks data into chunks

a)

Segments

b)

Data gram

c)

Network/Host ID

d)

Router

e)

MAC Address

60.

Within the transport layer, UDP communication breaks data into chunks

a)

Segments

b)

Data gram

c)

Network/Host ID

d)

Router

e)

MAC Address

61.

An IPv4 address is composed of two parts

a)

Segments

b)

Data gram

c)

Network/Host ID

d)

Router

e)

MAC Address

62.

To connect on LAN to another LAN which type of networking device must be utilized?

a)

Segments

b)

Data gram

c)

Network/Host ID

d)

Router

e)

MAC Address

63.

Address Resolution Protocol is used by a router to determine the ____ for a computer that has a local IP address

a)

Segments

b)

Data gram

c)

Network/Host ID

d)

Router

e)

MAC Address

64.

The two ways a computer can receive an IP address is

a)

Statically/Dynamically

b)

Discover

c)

Offer

d)

Request

e)

Acknowledgement

65.

Four steps of the DHCP process

a)

Statically/Dynamically

b)

Discover

c)

Offer

d)

Request

e)

Acknowledgement

66.

What are the two types of number systems used in computing

a)

Binary

b)

Hexadecimal

c)

Decimal

d)

Octal

67.

SRAM that preloads as many instructions as possible and keeps copies of frequently used instructions

a)

Cache

b)

RAM

c)

Hard Drive

68.

SRAM that preloads as many instructions as possible and keeps copies of frequently used instructions

a)

Cache

b)

RAM

c)

Hard Drive

d)

Wait state

69.

A time where the CPU pipeline is stalled waiting on RAM for data or instruction

a)

Cache

b)

RAM

c)

Hard Drive

d)

Wait state

70.

x86 processors support ____ of RAM

a)

4GB

b)

16EB

c)

64-bit

d)

32-bit

71.

x64 processors support ____ of RAM

a)

4GB

b)

16EB

c)

64-bit

d)

32-bit

72.

Industry-standardized shapes and layouts that enable motherboards to work interchangeably with cases and power supplies of the same

a)

Form factors

b)

Matched sets

c)

Static RAM

d)

Dynamic RAM

73.

RAM is required to be installed in

a)

Form factors

b)

Matched sets

c)

Static RAM

d)

Dynamic RAM

74.

what is the latest, fastest, and most popular expansion bus

a)

PCI

b)

PCIe

c)

SSD

d)

Hard drive

75.

Power supply in the US require AC power in the range of

a)

110-120V

b)

60-80V

c)

220-240V

d)
76.

Power supply in the rest of the world require AC power in the range of

a)

110-120V

b)

60-80V

c)

220-240V

d)
77.

What number comes after 999,999?

a)

110-120V

b)

60-80V

c)

220-240V

d)
78.

ATX standard voltage levels are:

a)

+5

b)

-5

c)

-12

d)

+12

e)

+3.3

79.

Supplies AC power during power sags or outages throughout the use of a battery backup system

a)

Uninterruptible Power Supply

b)

Surge Protector

c)

HDD

d)

AC power

80.

SATA 3.0 supports what speed?

a)

1.5 Gb/s

b)

3.0 Gb/s

c)

6.0 Gb/s

81.

Removable media

a)

CD

b)

DVD

c)

Blu-ray

d)

Elephant-ray

82.

USB 3.0 and 3.1 are what color?

a)

Red

b)

Blue

c)

Green

d)

Yellow

83.

USB 3.0 is what speed?

a)

1.5 Mbps

b)

12 Mbps

c)

480 Mbps

d)

5 Gbps

e)

10 Gbps

84.

USB 3.1 is what speed?

a)

1.5 Mbps

b)

12 Mbps

c)

480 Mbps

d)

5 Gbps

e)

10 Gbps

85.

Used to connect to a video device such as a monitor

BC the cable carries an analog signal, signal quality will degrade

a)

HD15 (VGA)

b)

RG-59 Connector

c)

RG-6 (F) Connector (Coaxial)

d)

High Def Media Interface (HDMI)

e)

Display Port (Dport)

86.

Commonly used for low power video and RF signals on equipment such as surveillance cameras

a)

HD15 (VGA)

b)

RG-59 Connector

c)

RG-6 (F) Connector (Coaxial)

d)

High Def Media Interface (HDMI)

e)

Display Port (Dport)

87.

Commonly used for cable television and internet cable modem connections

a)

HD15 (VGA)

b)

RG-59 Connector

c)

RG-6 (F) Connector (Coaxial)

d)

High Def Media Interface (HDMI)

e)

Display Port (Dport)

88.

Carries both sound and video on one cable

a)

HD15 (VGA)

b)

RG-59 Connector

c)

RG-6 (F) Connector (Coaxial)

d)

High Def Media Interface (HDMI)

e)

Display Port (Dport)

89.

Primarily used to connect a video source to a display device

Also carries audio and USB

a)

HD15 (VGA)

b)

RG-59 Connector

c)

RG-6 (F) Connector (Coaxial)

d)

High Def Media Interface (HDMI)

e)

Display Port (Dport)

90.

Color receptors RGB possible values

a)

0 - 255

b)

0 - 155

c)

15 - 355

d)

-25 - 175

91.

LCD facts

a)

most common type of computer display

b)

work on polarity of light

c)

Original Computer monitor

d)

Also known as Cold Cathode Fluorescent lights

92.

Programs that instruct the CPU how to perform various basic functions such as booting and also provides instructions to the CPU on how to communicate with the basic hardware of the system

a)

Basic Input Output Services (BIOS)

b)

Complimentary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS)

c)

Power-On Self-Test (POST)

d)

Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI)

93.

Acts as a clock to store date and time

a)

Basic Input Output Services (BIOS)

b)

Complimentary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS)

c)

Power-On Self-Test (POST)

d)

Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI)

94.

Errors are represented as beep codes

a)

Basic Input Output Services (BIOS)

b)

Complimentary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS)

c)

Power-On Self-Test (POST)

d)

Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI)

95.

Last program that is run by the BIOS

a)

Bootstrap Loader

b)

Normal

c)

Safe Mode

d)

Safe Mode with Networking

96.

Manages all of the hardware and devices attached to the system

a)

Device Manager

b)

Windows Firewall

c)

Command Line Interface

d)

Device Installation

97.

Security application built into windows operating systems to protect from the "outside world"

a)

Device Manager

b)

Windows Firewall

c)

Command Line Interface

d)

Device Installation

98.

Types of Networks

a)

Personal Area Network (PAN)

b)

Local Area Network (LAN)

c)

Wide area Network (WAN)

d)

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

e)

Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN)

99.

Smallest and most basic

Managed by one person

i.e. Cell phone

a)

Personal Area Network (PAN)

b)

Local Area Network (LAN)

c)

Wide area Network (WAN)

d)

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

e)

Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN)

100.

Most common

Connects groups of computers across short distances

a)

Personal Area Network (PAN)

b)

Local Area Network (LAN)

c)

Wide area Network (WAN)

d)

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

e)

Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN)

101.

Allows computers to be remotely connected to each other over one large network to communicate even when they are miles apart.

a)

Personal Area Network (PAN)

b)

Local Area Network (LAN)

c)

Wide area Network (WAN)

d)

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

e)

Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN)

102.

Creates a virtual point-to-point connection allowing a user to access a private network remotely

a)

Personal Area Network (PAN)

b)

Local Area Network (LAN)

c)

Wide area Network (WAN)

d)

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

e)

Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN)

103.

Two network models

a)

OSI 7-layer

b)

TCP/IP

104.

Generic model that fits into all protocols

a)

OSI 7-layer

b)

TCP/IP

105.

Has 4 layers


Transmission Control Protocol / Internet Protocol

a)

OSI 7-layer

b)

TCP/IP

106.

OSI 7 Layer Model:

(1) Defines the method of moving data between computers

(2) Cabling and Hubs

a)

Physical

b)

Data Link

c)

Network

d)

Transport

e)

Session

107.

OSI 7 Layer Model:

(1) Puts data onto the Transport Media

(2) Controlled by the Network Interface Card (NIC)

a)

Physical

b)

Data Link

c)

Network

d)

Transport

e)

Session

108.

TCP/IP

Which two layers of the OSI model are combined in Layer 1?

a)

Physical

b)

Data Link

c)

Network

d)

Transport

e)

Session

109.

What is IEEE

a)

Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers

b)

an expression that is used when someone is just plain old hurtin.

c)

People who shout this have asserted their dominance they are people who are funny but also ...

110.

Most common type of LAN media

Communicate using MAC addresses

MAC addresses are 48-bit values represented by hexadecimal

a)

Link Layer: IEEE 802.3

b)

Internet Layer: Internet Protocol (IP)

c)

Transport Layer: Transport Control Protocol (TCP)

d)

Transport Layer: User Diagram Protocol (UDP)

e)

Internet Layer: Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)

111.

Works at Layer 2 (TCP/IP) or Layer 3 (OSI model)


IPv4 (32-bit) or IPv6 (128-bit)

a)

Link Layer: IEEE 802.3

b)

Internet Layer: Internet Protocol (IP)

c)

Transport Layer: Transport Control Protocol (TCP)

d)

Transport Layer: User Diagram Protocol (UDP)

e)

Internet Layer: Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)

112.

To differentiate LANs from one another, each computer on the same LAN must share a very similar IP address

a)

Network IDs

b)

Routers

c)

Subnet Masks

d)

Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)

e)

Special IP Addresses

113.

Known as the Default Gateway

a)

Network IDs

b)

Routers

c)

Subnet Masks

d)

Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)

e)

Special IP Addresses

114.

To determine whether or not the traffic is going to to the local LAN, the system will compare the recipients binary IP address and the senders binary IP address with the ____

a)

Network IDs

b)

Routers

c)

Subnet Masks

d)

Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)

e)

Special IP Addresses

115.

through which TCP/IP networks match an IP address with a MAC address

a)

Network IDs

b)

Routers

c)

Subnet Masks

d)

Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)

e)

Special IP Addresses

116.

127.0.0.0/8

... for loopback testing

a)

Network IDs

b)

Routers

c)

Subnet Masks

d)

Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)

e)

Special IP Addresses

117.

Parts of the TCP "three way handshake"

a)

Synchronize (SYN)

b)

Acknowledge (ACK)

c)

Finished (FIN)

d)

Production (PROD)

118.

Separates data into Data-Grams

a)

Link Layer: IEEE 802.3

b)

Internet Layer: Internet Protocol (IP)

c)

Transport Layer: Transport Control Protocol (TCP)

d)

Transport Layer: User Diagram Protocol (UDP)

e)

Internet Layer: Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)

119.

Automatically assigns IP addressing information to clients who join a network


67 - Clients send data to Servers

68 - Servers send data to Clients

a)

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

b)

Domain Name System (DNS)

c)

Network Time Protocol / Simple Network Time Protocol (NTP/SNTP)

d)

Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)

120.

Translate common names like www.google.com (used to navigate the internet) to their corresponding IP addresses

a)

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

b)

Domain Name System (DNS)

c)

Network Time Protocol / Simple Network Time Protocol (NTP/SNTP)

d)

Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)

121.

Two ways to define network topology

a)

Physical

b)

Logical

c)

Emotional

d)

Psychological

122.

Topologies:

Any break in network will bring the entire network down

a)

Bus

b)

Ring

c)

Star

123.

Topologies:

Uses a single cable for each computer that connects it to central device

a)

Bus

b)

Ring

c)

Star

d)

Mesh (fully or partially)

124.

Topologies:

Every computer connects directly to every other computer

a)

Bus

b)

Ring

c)

Star

d)

Mesh (fully or partially)

125.

RG-6 Cable

a)

Coaxial Caple

b)

Twisted Pair

c)

Fiber-optic Cable

126.

RJ-45 connector

a)

Coaxial Caple

b)

Twisted Pair

c)

Fiber-optic Cable

127.

Uses LEDs or Lasers

a)

Coaxial Caple

b)

Twisted Pair

c)

Fiber-optic Cable

128.

Has 4 parts:

Core

Cladding

Buffer

Insulating Jacket

a)

Coaxial Caple

b)

Twisted Pair

c)

Fiber-optic Cable

129.

three most common types of fiber optic connectors

a)

ST

b)

SC

c)

LC

d)

LT

130.

No fire protection

Creates noxious fumes when burned

General use cable

a)

Polyvinyl Chloride (PVC)

b)

Plenum

131.

rated for use in drop-ceilings and vertical runs between floors of buildings

Costs 3-5x more

a)

Polyvinyl Chloride (PVC)

b)

Plenum

132.

Central device in a network that allows multiple devices to connect to a single point and any incoming packet is sent out on all connected ports

a)

10BaseT / Hub

b)

Bridged Ethernet

c)

Switch

133.

Can only support a max of 10% of all packets lost due to collision before networks begin to fail

a)

10BaseT / Hub

b)

Bridged Ethernet

c)

Switch

134.

Creates Point-to-Point connections between two nodes

Allows Full duplex mode

CSMA/CD is no longer required

a)

10BaseT / Hub

b)

Bridged Ethernet

c)

Switch

135.

defines how wireless devices communicate and how to secure that communication

a)

IEEE 802.11

b)

IEEE 802.3

c)

IEEE 802.23

d)

IEEE 802.15

136.

Wireless nodes connect to a central WAP creating a wireless star topology

Most commonly used

a)

Infrastructure

b)

2.4 GHz

c)

5 GHz

d)

CSMA/CA

137.

450 Mbps or 600 Mbps

very crowded

better range

a)

Infrastructure

b)

2.4 GHz

c)

5 GHz

d)

CSMA/CA

138.

1300 Mbps

less congested

shorter waves cannot penetrate walls

a)

Infrastructure

b)

2.4 GHz

c)

5 GHz

d)

CSMA/CA

139.

Collisions are avoided rather than detected

a)

Infrastructure

b)

2.4 GHz

c)

5 GHz

d)

CSMA/CA

140.

Mac address filtering limits access to a wireless network based on the physical address of the wireless NIC. If you have been "blacklisted," what happened to you?

a)

You get priority access

b)

You have been denied access

c)

You are an accepted user stored in the WAP

141.

802.11ac

a)

Multiple in - Multiple Out (MIMO)

b)

Multiple-User Multiple in - Multiple Out (MU-MIMO)

c)

Transmit Beamforming

142.

Designed to take incoming data and convert it into a type of data usable by the computer

a)

Modems

b)

Network Interface Cards

c)

Hubs

d)

Bridges

e)

Switches

143.

Communicate with the device's operating system (in Frames) to pass data back and forth which is called the Logical Link Control (LLC)

Can be hard-wired or wireless

a)

Modems

b)

Network Interface Cards

c)

Hubs

d)

Bridges

e)

Switches

144.

Central device in a 10BaseT network that allows multiple devices to connect to a single point and has an internal segment that connects those devices electrically.

Considered OSI Layer-1

a)

Modems

b)

Network Interface Cards

c)

Hubs

d)

Bridges

e)

Switches

145.

Connecting too many devices together in a 10BaseT collision domain causes network degradation

Maximum of 10% packet loss

Piece of network hardware that connects 2+ ethernet segments while separating them via collision domains

Filter andforward frames between segments based on MAC addresses

Considered OSI Layer-2

a)

Modems

b)

Network Interface Cards

c)

Hubs

d)

Bridges

e)

Switches

146.

Create point to point connections between two nodes

OSI Layer 2 based upon MAC

OSI Layer 3 based upon IP address

a)

Modems

b)

Network Interface Cards

c)

Hubs

d)

Bridges

e)

Switches

147.

A specific frame called a Bridge Protocol Data Unit (BPDU) was developed to allow ____ to communicate with each other

a)

Modems

b)

Network Interface Cards

c)

Hubs

d)

Bridges

e)

Switches

148.

Communication sent from one node to another

a)

Unicast

b)

Broadcast

c)

Multicast

d)

Managed

e)

Unmanaged

149.

Communication sent from one node to all nodes

a)

Unicast

b)

Broadcast

c)

Multicast

d)

Managed

e)

Unmanaged

150.

Communication sent from one node to a group of nodes

a)

Unicast

b)

Broadcast

c)

Multicast

d)

Managed

e)

Unmanaged

151.

Any switch that you can access and configure

a)

Unicast

b)

Broadcast

c)

Multicast

d)

Managed

e)

Unmanaged

152.

Simple switches with no configuration capability

a)

Unicast

b)

Broadcast

c)

Multicast

d)

Managed

e)

Unmanaged

153.

needs Gen Prin of Net Routers (pg 104) - I'm going to bed

a)

Yes

b)

Pick the other one

154.

Which is NOT part of the home router

a)

FTP Protocol

b)

DHCP Server

c)

WAP

d)

Firewall

e)

Switch

155.

Basic routing table contains the following information

a)

Destination

b)

Next Hop

c)

Interface

d)

Metric (Cost)

e)

Routes

156.

Two most common forms of Network Address Translation (NAT)

a)

Dynamic NAT

b)

Port Address Translation

c)

Static NAT

d)

File Transfer NAT

157.

Characteristics of Dynamic NAT

a)

one-to-one

b)

Pooled NAT

c)

One-to-Many

d)

Most Common

158.

Characteristics of Port Address Translation

a)

one-to-one

b)

Pooled NAT

c)

One-to-Many

d)

Most Common

159.

This allows route metrics to accurately change with network conditions

a)

Dynamic routing

b)

Static routing

160.

Potential security risk

a)

Dynamic routing

b)

Static routing

c)

Managed Devices

161.

Devices that can be configured for use and all configurations are similar

a)

Dynamic routing

b)

Static routing

c)

Managed Devices

162.

Server Form Factors

a)

Tower Servers

b)

Rack Servers

c)

Blade Servers

d)

Knife Servers

163.

Main reason for additional processing power in servers

a)

Parity

b)

Virtualization

c)

Server Network Interface Card

d)

Teaming / Bonding

164.

Mechanism for detecting errors (larger than 1 bit) in memory

a)

Parity

b)

Virtualization

c)

Server Network Interface Card

d)

Teaming / Bonding

165.

Needed for: Redundancy,

need to connect 2 diff networks,

Load balancing,

Separating network traffic

a)

Parity

b)

Virtualization

c)

Server Network Interface Card

d)

Teaming / Bonding

e)

Server Operating Systems

166.

NICs are combined together to form one network card

a)

Parity

b)

Virtualization

c)

Server Network Interface Card

d)

Teaming / Bonding

167.

Provide a central interface to manage users, implement security, and other admin tasks

a)

Parity

b)

Virtualization

c)

Server Network Interface Card

d)

Teaming / Bonding

e)

Server Operating Systems

168.

Server Roles

a)

Domain Controller

b)

Database server

c)

File Server

d)

Infrastructure Server

e)

Order Pizza

169.

Server roles

a)

Print Server

b)

Web server

c)

E-mail server

d)

Dynamic HCP server

e)

Covid server

170.

Server roles

a)

DNS server

b)

Dynamic HCP Server

c)

ExGF finder

d)

Print Server

e)

Depanda server

171.

Server role Categories

a)

Directory services

b)

Infrastructure services

c)

Application services

d)

Dating services

172.

Store, organize, and supply information about a network and its resources

a)

Directory services

b)

Infrastructure services

c)

Application services

d)

Dating services

173.

Provide support services for network clients

a)

Directory services

b)

Infrastructure services

c)

Application services

d)

Dating services

174.

Provide communication services, operating environments, or programming interfaces for specific applications

a)

Directory services

b)

Infrastructure services

c)

Application services

d)

Dating services

175.

A group of computers controlled by a computer Windows Server

a)

Windows Domain

b)

Active Directory Domain Services (ADDS)

c)

Server Virtualization

d)

Remote Access

e)

Dynamic Host Config Protocol (DHCP) and

Domain Name System (DNS)

176.

Network admin often dedicate for a specific task.

Provides easy redundancy.

a)

Windows Domain

b)

Active Directory Domain Services (ADDS)

c)

Server Virtualization

d)

Remote Access

e)

Dynamic Host Config Protocol (DHCP) and

Domain Name System (DNS)

177.

Simplest form of a database

a)

Text Database

b)

Regional database programs

c)

Desktop Database programs

d)

Non-relational database programs

178.

most common form of a database system

a)

Text Database

b)

Regional/Relational database programs

c)

Desktop Database programs

d)

Non-relational database programs

179.

Refers to the amount of data

a)

Volume

b)

Velocity

c)

Variety

180.

Refers to the speed of data processing

a)

Volume

b)

Velocity

c)

Variety

181.

Refers to the type of data

a)

Volume

b)

Velocity

c)

Variety

182.

Designed for large numbers of transactions by a large number of users (i.e. online banking or airline ticket booking)

a)

Online Transactional Processing (OLTP)

b)

Online Analytical Processing (OLAP)

183.

Enable users to analyze data from multiple perspectives. Used to find trends or complex number crunching. (i.e. sales reporting and budgeting/forecasting)

a)

Online Transactional Processing (OLTP)

b)

Online Analytical Processing (OLAP)

184.

Consolidated data storage types

a)

Storage Area Networks (SAN)

b)

Network Attached Storage (NAS)

c)

Local Area Networks (LAN)

d)

Broadband Attached Storage (BAS)

185.

Disk Striping

No data protection

a)

RAID 0

b)

RAID 1

c)

RAID 5

d)

RAID 6

e)

RAID 10

186.

Disk Mirroring / Duplexing

Same data on 2 disks

a)

RAID 0

b)

RAID 1

c)

RAID 5

d)

RAID 6

e)

RAID 10

187.

Disk Striping with Distributed Parity

Requires at least 3 drives

Supports the loss of a single drive

a)

RAID 0

b)

RAID 1

c)

RAID 5

d)

RAID 6

e)

RAID 10

188.

Disk Striping with Extra Parity

Supports the loss of 2 drives

a)

RAID 0

b)

RAID 1

c)

RAID 5

d)

RAID 6

e)

RAID 10

189.

Three possible conditions of a RAID config

a)

Healthy

b)

Ailing

c)

Failed

d)

Bandaging

190.

All drives are working properly

a)

Healthy

b)

Ailing

c)

Failed

d)

Bandaging

191.

One or more drives have failed but the array is still operational

a)

Healthy

b)

Ailing

c)

Failed

d)

Bandaging

192.

One or more drives have failed and all array info is lost

a)

Healthy

b)

Ailing

c)

Failed

d)

Bandaging

193.

Provides shared file storage across LAN

a)

Storage Area Networks (SAN)

b)

Network Attached Storage (NAS)

c)

Local Area Networks (LAN)

d)

Broadband Attached Storage (BAS)

194.

Provide multiple clients with access to the same files.

Easy to Scale.

Enterprise use for Disaster Recovery

a)

Storage Area Networks (SAN)

b)

Network Attached Storage (NAS)

c)

Local Area Networks (LAN)

d)

Broadband Attached Storage (BAS)

e)

Vendor Neutral Archive (VNA)

195.

Used for Disaster Recovery or File Back-up

a)

Storage Area Networks (SAN)

b)

Network Attached Storage (NAS)

c)

Local Area Networks (LAN)

d)

Broadband Attached Storage (BAS)

e)

Vendor Neutral Archive (VNA)

196.

May be set up as a server to operate email, multimedia, database, and print server for small businesses.

a)

Storage Area Networks (SAN)

b)

Network Attached Storage (NAS)

c)

Local Area Networks (LAN)

d)

Broadband Attached Storage (BAS)

e)

Vendor Neutral Archive (VNA)

197.

Used by business that need to store huge amounts of files.

Often store virtual machine images.

Provide fast access and clustering capabilities

a)

High-end or enterprise NAS

b)

Mid-market NAS

c)

Low-end or desktop NAS

198.

Medical images are stored in a format known as ____.

a)

DICOM

b)

PACS

199.

common features include: the ability to recover from accidental data deletion

a)

Storage Area Networks (SAN)

b)

Network Attached Storage (NAS)

c)

Local Area Networks (LAN)

d)

Broadband Attached Storage (BAS)

e)

Vendor Neutral Archive (VNA)

200.

OSI: Physical cabling and hubs

a)

Layer 1

b)

Layer 2

c)

Layer 3

d)

Layer 4

e)

Layer 5

201.

OSI: Data Link controlled by the Network Interface Card (NIC)

a)

Layer 1

b)

Layer 2

c)

Layer 3

d)

Layer 4

e)

Layer 5

202.

OSI: Networks - Packets are created and transported between networks

a)

Layer 1

b)

Layer 2

c)

Layer 3

d)

Layer 4

e)

Layer 5

203.

OSI: Transport - larger pieces are broken to smaller pieces for transport

a)

Layer 1

b)

Layer 2

c)

Layer 3

d)

Layer 4

e)

Layer 5

204.

Four steps to computing

a)

Input

b)

Processing

c)

Output

d)

Storage

e)

Printing

205.

SRAM that preloads as many instructions as possible and keeps copies of frequently used instructions

a)

Cache

b)

Memory Controller Chip

c)

RAM

d)

Hard Drive

206.

A time where the CPU pipeline is stalled waiting on RAM

a)

Cache

b)

Memory Controller Chip

c)

RAM

d)

Hard Drive

e)

Wait State

207.

32 bit systems are referred to as _____

a)

16 EB

b)

4 GB

c)

x86

d)

x64

208.

64 bit systems are referred to as _____

a)

16 EB

b)

4 GB

c)

x86

d)

x64

209.

x86 processors support ____ of RAM

a)

16 EB

b)

4 GB

c)

x86

d)

x64

210.

x64 processors support ____ of RAM

a)

16 EB

b)

4 GB

c)

x86

d)

x64

211.

Running more than one computer system within a single unit using the same hardware

a)

Hyper-threading

b)

Virtualization

c)

x86

d)

x64

e)

16 exabytes

212.

To ensure maximum stability is a system, choose RAM sticks that match in

a)

Technology

b)

Capacity

c)

Speed

d)

Latency

e)

LEDs

213.

Allows for the addition of new hardware to a computer system

a)

Expansion bus

b)

Chipset

c)

Form factor

d)

Motherboard

214.

ATX standard voltage levels are:

a)

+5

b)

-5

c)

-12

d)

+12

e)

+3.3

215.

Supplies AC power during power sags or outages throughout the use of a battery backup system

a)

Uninterruptible Power Supply

b)

Surge Protector

c)

HDD

d)

AC power

216.

The faster the rotational speed,

a)

the faster the read/write process of the drive

b)

the faster the RAM

c)

the better the cookie

d)

The more spherical it is

217.

Set of peripherals for computer

a)

Monitor

b)

Keyboard

c)

Mouse

d)

Speakers

e)

Printer

218.

USB 3.0 and 3.1 are what color?

a)

Red

b)

Blue

c)

Green

d)

Yellow

219.

USB 3.0 is what speed?

a)

1.5 Mbps

b)

12 Mbps

c)

480 Mbps

d)

5 Gbps

e)

10 Gbps

220.

Carries both sound and video on one cable

a)

USB-C

b)

DB25

c)

Ethernet Cable

d)

eSATA

e)

HDMI

221.

Primarily used to connect a video source to a display device

Also carries audio and USB

a)

HD15 (VGA)

b)

RG-59 Connector

c)

RG-6 (F) Connector (Coaxial)

d)

High Def Media Interface (HDMI)

e)

Display Port (Dport)

222.

Color receptors RGB possible values

a)

0 - 255

b)

0 - 155

c)

15 - 355

d)

-25 - 175

223.

LCD facts

a)

most common type of computer display

b)

work on polarity of light

c)

Original Computer monitor

d)

Also known as Cold Cathode Fluorescent lights

224.

Programs that instruct the CPU how to perform various basic functions such as booting and also provides instructions to the CPU on how to communicate with the basic hardware of the system

a)

Basic Input Output Services (BIOS)

b)

Complimentary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS)

c)

Power-On Self-Test (POST)

d)

Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI)

225.

Before the Video Test, the POST will test:

a)

CPU

b)

RAM

c)

Video card

d)

Basic hardware

e)

Peripherals

226.

Allows users to see the status of currently running programs, background services and resource usage information

a)

Task manager

b)

Device manager

c)

Device instalation

d)

Programs and Features

227.

The most common and the original network.

Connects groups of computers across short distances.

a)

LAN

b)

PAN

c)

WAN

d)

WLAN

228.

Controlled by the network interface card (NIC)

a)

OSI Layer 1 - Physical

b)

OSI Layer 2 - Data Link

c)

TCP/IP Layer 1 - Link/Network

d)

TCP/IP Layer 2 - Internet

229.

Includes NICs, Hubs, all Connection media.

Include Recipient's MAC address, Sender's MAC address, Data (IP packet), and frame check.

a)

OSI Layer 1 - Physical

b)

OSI Layer 2 - Data Link

c)

TCP/IP Layer 1 - Link/Network

d)

TCP/IP Layer 2 - Internet

230.

Most common type of LAN media.

Systems utilizing the Ethernet protocol communicate using MAC addresses.

a)

OSI Layer 1 - Physical

b)

OSI Layer 2 - Data Link

c)

TCP/IP Layer 1 - Link/Network

d)

TCP/IP Layer 2 - Internet

231.

MAC addresses are unique ___ that are represented by the use of 12 ____ digits.

a)

48-bit; 12 hexadecimal

b)

64-bit; 8 binary

c)

64-bit; 12 hexadecimal

d)

48-bit; 8 binary

232.

Known as the Default Gateway

a)

Network IDs

b)

Routers

c)

Subnet Masks

d)

Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)

e)

Special IP Addresses

233.

To determine if traffic is for the local LAN or if it needs to go to the default gateway and out to the WAN.

a)

Network IDs

b)

Routers

c)

Subnet Masks

d)

Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)

e)

Special IP Addresses

234.

through which TCP/IP networks match an IP address with a MAC address

a)

Network IDs

b)

Routers

c)

Subnet Masks

d)

Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)

e)

Special IP Addresses

235.

Special IP Addresses (for loopback testing)

a)

127.0.0.0/8

b)

10.0.0.0/8

c)

172.16.0.0/16

d)

192.168.0.0/24

236.

Private IP Addresses (for hiding computers from the internet)

a)

127.0.0.0/8

b)

10.0.0.0/8

c)

172.16.0.0/16

d)

192.168.0.0/24

e)

FE80::12:FFFE:1967:AE48

237.

Link-Local Address (has 8 segments)

a)

127.0.0.0/8

b)

10.0.0.0/8

c)

172.16.0.0/16

d)

192.168.0.0/24

e)

FE80::12:FFFE:1967:AE48

238.

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) uses 2 ports:

a)

67 - Used by clients to send data to servers

b)

68 - Used by servers to send data to clients

c)

69 - Used by servers to send data to clients

d)

66 - Used by clients to send data to servers

239.

Translate common names like www.google.com (used to navigate the internet) to their corresponding IP addresses

a)

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

b)

Domain Name System (DNS)

c)

Network Time Protocol / Simple Network Time Protocol (NTP/SNTP)

d)

Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)

240.

Any break in network brings the entire network down

a)

Bus

b)

Ring

c)

Star

d)

Mesh

241.

three most common types of fiber optic connectors

a)

ST

b)

SC

c)

LC

d)

LT

242.

Contains a single conductor surrounded by an insulating jacket, which is surrounded by a braided metal shield

a)

USB-C

b)

DB25

c)

Ethernet Cable

d)

eSATA

e)

Coaxial

243.

Uses an F-Connector

a)

USB-C

b)

DB25

c)

Ethernet Cable

d)

eSATA

e)

Coaxial

244.

Uses LEDs or Lasers

a)

Coaxial Caple

b)

Twisted Pair

c)

Fiber-optic Cable

245.

CSMA/DC causes network degradation.

Maximum of 10% loss before failure.

a)

10BaseT / Hub

b)

Bridged Ethernet

c)

Switch

246.

Creates point-to-point connections between two nodes.

CSMA/DC (Ethernet) is no longer required.

a)

10BaseT / Hub

b)

Bridged Ethernet

c)

Switch

247.

Wireless nodes connect to a central WAP creating a wireless Star Topology.

Most commonly used node.

a)

Infrastructure

b)

2.4 GHz

c)

5 GHz

d)

CSMA/CA

248.

450 Mbps or 600 Mbps

very crowded

better range

a)

Infrastructure

b)

2.4 GHz

c)

5 GHz

d)

CSMA/CA

249.

Mac address filtering limits access to a wireless network based on the physical address of the wireless NIC. If you have been "blacklisted," what happened to you?

a)

You get priority access

b)

You have been denied access

c)

You are an accepted user stored in the WAP

250.

What two 802.11 revisions are compatible with 802.11a?

a)

802.11b

b)

802.11ac

c)

802.11ax

d)

802.11n

251.

Designed to take incoming data and convert it into a type of data usable by the computer

a)

Modems

b)

Network Interface Cards

c)

Hubs

d)

Bridges

e)

Switches

252.

Communicate with the device's operating system (in Frames) to pass data back and forth which is called the Logical Link Control (LLC)

Can be hard-wired or wireless

a)

Modems

b)

Network Interface Cards

c)

Hubs

d)

Bridges

e)

Switches

253.

Arbitrary value that defines the "cost" of using a particular route

a)

Destination

b)

Next Hop

c)

Interface

d)

Metric

e)

Routes

254.

Characteristics of Dynamic NAT

a)

one-to-one

b)

Pooled NAT

c)

One-to-Many

d)

Most Common

255.

Characteristics of Port Address Translation

a)

one-to-one

b)

Pooled NAT

c)

One-to-Many

d)

Most Common

256.

Potential security risk, -> increase security

a)

Dynamic routing

b)

Static routing

c)

Managed Devices

257.

Used to grant access to an internal (private) IP address from an external source

a)

Dynamic routing

b)

Static routing

c)

Managed Devices

d)

Port forwarding

258.

Allows route metrics to accurately change with network conditions

a)

Dynamic routing

b)

Static routing

c)

Managed Devices

d)

Port forwarding

259.

Server Form Factors

a)

Tower Servers

b)

Rack Servers

c)

Blade Servers

d)

Knife Servers

260.

one of the primary reasons servers have a need for additional processing power

a)

Dynamic routing

b)

Static routing

c)

Managed Devices

d)

Port forwarding

e)

Prolific use of virtualization in a network

261.

Compatible with both Serial Attached SCSI (SAS) and Serial AT Attachment (SATA)

a)

SAS connector

b)

SATA connector

262.

Compatible with only one:

Serial Attached SCSI (SAS) or Serial AT Attachment (SATA)

a)

SAS connector

b)

SATA connector

263.

Needed for: Redundancy,

need to connect 2 diff networks,

Load balancing,

Separating network traffic

a)

Parity

b)

Virtualization

c)

Server Network Interface Card

d)

Teaming / Bonding

e)

Server Operating Systems

264.

NICs are combined together to form one network card

a)

Parity

b)

Virtualization

c)

Server Network Interface Card

d)

Teaming / Bonding

265.

Common roles that servers might perform in a network

a)

Domain controller

b)

Database server

c)

File server

d)

Print server

e)

Infrastructure server

266.

Common roles that servers might perform in a network

a)

Web server

b)

DNS server

c)

Email server

d)

Dynamic server

e)

DHCP server

267.

Server role Categories

a)

Directory services

b)

Infrastructure services

c)

Application services

d)

Dating services

268.

Store, organize, and supply information about a network and its resources

a)

Directory services

b)

Infrastructure services

c)

Application services

d)

Dating services

269.

Provide support services for network clients

a)

Directory services

b)

Infrastructure services

c)

Application services

d)

Dating services

270.

Provide communication services, operating environments, or programming interfaces for specific applications

a)

Directory services

b)

Infrastructure services

c)

Application services

d)

Dating services

271.

A group of computers controlled by a computer Windows Server

a)

Windows Domain

b)

Active Directory Domain Services (ADDS)

c)

Server Virtualization

d)

Remote Access

e)

Dynamic Host Config Protocol (DHCP) and

Domain Name System (DNS)

272.

Network admin often dedicate for a specific task.

Provides easy redundancy.

a)

Windows Domain

b)

Active Directory Domain Services (ADDS)

c)

Server Virtualization

d)

Remote Access

e)

Dynamic Host Config Protocol (DHCP) and

Domain Name System (DNS)

273.

overload when clinicians are exposed to an excessive number of alarms resulting in desensitization

a)

Alarm fatigue

b)

Direct observation

c)

Telemetry Monitoring Systems

d)

Proper risk assessment

274.

Relying too heavily on monitoring equipment should NOT be substituted for

a)

Alarm fatigue

b)

Direct observation

c)

Telemetry Monitoring Systems

d)

Proper risk assessment

275.

PTs with a life threatening arrhythmia should be utilizing

a)

Alarm fatigue

b)

Direct observation

c)

Telemetry Monitoring Systems

d)

Proper risk assessment

276.

Before installing any wireless network or device, _____ must be performed in order to identify potential EMI sources

a)

Alarm fatigue

b)

Direct observation

c)

Telemetry Monitoring Systems

d)

Proper risk assessment

277.

Measurement of respiratory related chest and abdominal movements.

Utilizes two conductive bands.

Contact method of respiration monitoring.

a)

Respiratory Inductance Plethysmography

b)

Impedance Pneumography

c)

Infrared thermography

d)

Ultrasound

e)

Humidity detection

278.

most common form of a database system

a)

Text Database

b)

Regional/Relational database programs

c)

Desktop Database programs

d)

Non-relational database programs

279.

Newest form.

Used to capture, store and manage huge volumes of information from three main sources

a)

Text Database

b)

Regional/Relational database programs

c)

Desktop Database programs

d)

Non-relational database programs

280.

Designed for large numbers of transactions by a large number of users (i.e. online banking or airline ticket booking)

a)

Online Transactional Processing (OLTP)

b)

Online Analytical Processing (OLAP)

281.

Enable users to analyze data from multiple perspectives. Used to find trends or complex number crunching. (i.e. sales reporting and budgeting/forecasting)

a)

Online Transactional Processing (OLTP)

b)

Online Analytical Processing (OLAP)

282.

Disk Striping

No data protection

a)

RAID 0

b)

RAID 1

c)

RAID 5

d)

RAID 6

e)

RAID 10

283.

Disk Striping with Distributed Parity

Requires at least 3 drives

Supports the loss of a single drive

a)

RAID 0

b)

RAID 1

c)

RAID 5

d)

RAID 6

e)

RAID 10

284.

Three possible conditions of a RAID config

a)

Healthy

b)

Ailing

c)

Failed

d)

Bandaging

285.

Provide multiple clients with access to the same files.

Easy to Scale.

Enterprise use for Disaster Recovery

a)

Storage Area Networks (SAN)

b)

Network Attached Storage (NAS)

c)

Local Area Networks (LAN)

d)

Broadband Attached Storage (BAS)

e)

Vendor Neutral Archive (VNA)

286.

May be set up as a server to operate email, multimedia, database, and print server for small businesses.

a)

Storage Area Networks (SAN)

b)

Network Attached Storage (NAS)

c)

Local Area Networks (LAN)

d)

Broadband Attached Storage (BAS)

e)

Vendor Neutral Archive (VNA)

287.

Used by business that need to store huge amounts of files.

Often store virtual machine images.

Provide fast access and clustering capabilities

a)

High-end or enterprise NAS

b)

Mid-market NAS

c)

Low-end or desktop NAS

288.

common features include: the ability to recover from accidental data deletion

a)

Storage Area Networks (SAN)

b)

Network Attached Storage (NAS)

c)

Local Area Networks (LAN)

d)

Broadband Attached Storage (BAS)

e)

Vendor Neutral Archive (VNA)

289.

The amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute

a)

Cardiac output

b)

Tachycardia

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Capnograph

e)

Capnometer

290.

Heart rate is too fast

a)

Cardiac output

b)

Tachycardia

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Capnograph

e)

Capnometer

291.

Heart rate is too slow

a)

Cardiac output

b)

Tachycardia

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Capnograph

e)

Capnometer

292.

Measures Carbon Dioxide concentration at the end of the exhaled breath

a)

Cardiac output

b)

Tachycardia

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Capnograph

e)

Capnometer

293.

FCC designated this as its medical telemetry freq. coordinator.

a)

ASHE

b)

RFID

c)

WLAN

d)

WMTS

294.

runs on 2.4 GHz

Large number of devices utilizing the same freq

a)

ASHE

b)

RFID

c)

WLAN

d)

WMTS

e)

ISM

295.

uses electromagnetic fields

a)

ASHE

b)

RFID

c)

WLAN

d)

WMTS

e)

ISM

296.

30-40 breaths per minute

a)

Infant

b)

Adults

c)

Teenager

297.

12-20 breaths per minute

a)

Infant

b)

Adults

c)

Teenager