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WorksheetsCCNA Prep Simulation
Total questions: 103
Worksheet time: 58mins
Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two)
YAML
JSON
EBCDIC
SGML
XML
Which output displays a JSON data representation?
What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two)
Reduced operational costs
Reduced hardware footprint
Faster changes with more reliable results
Fewer network failures
Increased network security
What benefit does controller-based networking provide versus traditional networking?
Moves from a two-tier to a three-tier network architecture to provide maximum redundancy
Provides an added layer of security to protect from DDoS attacks
Allows configuration and monitoring of the network from one centralized point
Combines control and data plane functionality on a single device to minimize latency
Which purpose does a northbound API serve in a controller-based networking architecture?
Communicates between the controller and the physical network hardware
Reports device errors to a controller
Generates statistics for network hardware and traffic
Facilitates communication between the controller and the applications
What are two southbound APIs? (Choose two )
OpenFlow
Thrift
CORBA
DSC
NETCONF
How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?
Cisco DNA Center device management can deploy a network more quickly than traditional campus device management
Traditional campus device management allows a network to scale more quickly than with Cisco DNA Center device management
Cisco DNA Center device management can be implemented at a lower cost than most traditional campus device management options
Traditional campus device management schemes can typically deploy patches and updates more quickly than Cisco DNA Center device management
Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible? (Choose two)
Adapters that support all families of Cisco IOS software
SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment
Customized versions for small, medium, and large enterprises
REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively with Cisco DNA Center
Modular design that is upgradable as needed
Drag and drop the characteristics of networking from the left onto the correct networking types on the right
1-4-5-2-3-6
1-2-3-4-5-6
1-5-6-2-3-4
6-3-2-4-5-1
Drag drop the descriptions from the left on to the correct configuration-management technologies on the right. Select and Place:
2-3-4-6-1-5
1-2-3-4-5-6
4-6-2-3-1-5
1-5-4-6-2-3
What is an advantage of Cisco DNA Center versus traditional campus device management?
It supports numerous extensibility options including cross-domain adapters and third-party SDKs.
It supports high availability for management functions when operating in cluster mode
It enables easy autodiscovery of network elements m a brownfield deployment
It is designed primarily to provide network assurance
Which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast address rather than a unicast address?
2000::/3
FC00::/7
FE80::/10
FF00::/12
Router R1 must send all traffic without a matching routing-table entry to 192.168.1.1. Which configuration accomplishes this task?
Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two)
The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN
The two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router
Each router has a different IP address both routers act as the default gateway on the LAN, and traffic is load balanced between them
The two routers synchronize configurations to provide consistent packet forwarding
The two routed share the same IP address, and default gateway traffic is load-balanced between them
R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which route is installed?
Route with the lowest cost
Route with the next hop that has the highest IP
Route with the shortest prefix length
Route with the lowest administrative distance
Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 Fa0/0 cannot ping router R3 Fa0/1. Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?
Set the default network as 20.20.20.0/24
Set the default gateway as 20.20.20.2
Configure a static route with Fa0/1 as the egress interface to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network
Configure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network
A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP, by default, which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2?
port-to-multipoint
broadcast
point-to-point
nonbroadcast
Which MAC address is recognized as a VRRP virtual address?
0000.0C07.AC99
0007.C070.AB01
0005.3711.0975
0000.5E00.010a
Refer to Exhibit. An engineer is configuring the NEW York router to reach the Lot interface of the Atlanta router using interface Se0/0/0 as the primary path. Which two commands must be configured on the New York router so that it can reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router via Washington when the link between New York and Atlanta goes down? (Choose two)
ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::1
ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012:1 5
ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::2
ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2023:2 5
ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2023::3 5
What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating state route? (Choose two)
to automatically route traffic on a secondary path when the primary path goes down
to route traffic differently based on the source IP of the packet
to enable fallback static routing when the dynamic routing protocol fails
to support load balancing via static routing
to control the return path of traffic that is sent from the router
Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is running three different routing protocols. Which route characteristic is used by the router to forward the packet that it receives for destination IP 172.16.32.1?
Longest prefix
metric
cost
administrative distance
Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors, one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor and the other is an EIGRP neighbor. What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table?
20
90
110
115
An engineer configured an OSPF neighbor as a designated router. Which state verifies the designated router is in the proper mode?
Exchange
2-way
Full
Init
Refer to Exhibit. The loopback1 interface of the Atlanta router must reach the loopback3 interface of the Washington router. Which two static host routes must be configured on the NEW York router? (Choose two)
Ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::1
Ipv6 route 2000::3/128 2023::3
ipv6 route 2000::3/128 s0/0/0
ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::2
ipv6 route 2000::1/128 s0/0/1
Refer to the exhibit. A router reserved these five routes from different routing information sources. Which two routes does the router install in its routing table? (Choose two)
RIP route 10.0.0.0/30
iBGP route 10.0.0.0/30
OSPF route 10.0.0.0/30
EIGRP route 10.0.0.1/32
OSPF route 10.0.0.0/16
Which two minimum parameters must be configured on an active interface to enable OSPFv2 to operate? (Choose two)
OSPF area
OSPF MD5 authentication key
IPv6 address
OSPF process ID
OSPF stub flag
By default, how Does EIGRP determine the metric of a route for the routing table?
It uses the bandwidth and delay values of the path to calculate the route metric
It uses a default metric of 10 for all routes that are learned by the router
it uses a reference Bandwidth and the actual bandwidth of the connected link to calculate the route metric
it counts the number of hops between the receiving and destination routers and uses that value as the metric
Refer to the exhibit. How does router R1 handle traffic to 192.168.10.16?
It selects the IS-IS route because it has the shortest prefix inclusive of the destination address
It selects the EIGRP route because it has the lowest administrative distance
It selects the OSPF route because it has the lowest cost
It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address
Refer to the exhibit. What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID?
10.10.1.10
10.10.10.20
172.16.15.10
192.168.0.1
Refer to the exhibit. How does the router manage traffic to 192.168.12.16?
It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address
It chooses the OSPF route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.
It load-balances traffic between all three routes
It chooses the EIGRP route because it has the lowest administrative distance
Refer to the exhibit. Which route type is configured to reach the internet?
floating static route
host route
default route
network route
What is the primary purpose of a First Hop Redundancy Protocol?
It allows directly connected neighbors to share configuration information
It allows a router to use bridge priorities to create multiple loop-free paths to a single destination
It reduces routing failures by allowing Layer 3 load balancing between OSPF neighbors that have the same link metric
It reduces routing failures by allowing more than one router to represent itself, as the default gateway of a network
Refer to the exhibit. Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship. what is the reason for the problem?
The OSPF router IDs are mismatched
Router2 is using the default hello timer
The network statement on Router1 is
The OSPF process IDs are mismatched.
A packet is destined for 10.10.1.22. Which static route does the router choose to forward the packet?
Ip route 10.10.1.0 255.255.255.240 10.10.255.1
Ip route 10.10.1.16 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1
Ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1
ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.254 10.10.255.1
How does HSRP provide first hop redundancy?
It load-balances traffic by assigning the same metric value to more than one route to the same destination m the IP routing table
It load-balances Layer 2 traffic along the path by flooding traffic out all interfaces configured with the same VLAN
It forwards multiple packets to the same destination over different routed links n the data path
It uses a shared virtual MAC and a virtual IP address to a group of routers that serve as the default gateway for hosts on a LAN
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration issue is preventing the OSPF neighbor relationship from being established between the two routers?
R2 is using the passive-interface default command
R1 has an incorrect network command for interface Gi1/0
R2 should have its network command in area 1
R1 interface Gi1/0 has a larger MTU size
Refer to the exhibit. Which path is used by the router for internet traffic?
209.165.200.0/27
10.10.10.0/28
0.0.0.0/0
10.10.13.0/24
Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two)
The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image
The ip domain-name command must be configured on the switch
IP routing must be enabled on the switch
A console password must be configured on the switch
Telnet must be disabled on the switch
What event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?
A TCP connection has been torn down
An interface line has changed status
A certificate has expired
An ICMP connection has been built
Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router?
Configure the version of SSH
Configure VTY access
Create a user with a password
Assign a DNS domain name
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configured NAT translations and has verified that the configuration is correct. Which IP address is the source IP?
10.4.4.4
10.4.4.5
172.23.103.10
172.23.104.4
What are two roles of the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)? (Choose two)
The DHCP server offers the ability to exclude specific IP addresses from a pool of IP addresses
The DHCP client can request up to four DNS server addresses
The DHCP server assigns IP addresses without requiring the client to renew them
The DHCP server leases client IP addresses dynamically
The DHCP client maintains a pool of IP addresses it can assign
Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism? (Choose two)
It drops lower-priority packets before it drops higher-priority packets
It can identify different flows with a high level of granularity
It guarantees the delivery of high-priority packets
It can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up
It supports protocol discovery.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator configures four switches for local authentication using passwords that are stored in a cryptographic hash. The four switches must also support SSH access for administrators to manage the network infrastructure. Which switch is configured correctly to meet these requirements?
Which command should you enter to configure a device as an NTP sever?
ntp server
ntp peer
ntp authenticate
ntp master
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer deploys a topology in which R1 obtains its IP configuration from DHCP. If the switch and DHCP server configurations are complete and correct. Which two sets of commands must be configured on R1 and R2 to complete the task? (Choose two)
R1(config)# interface fa0/0
R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 198.51.100.100
R2(config)# interface gi0/0
R2(config-if)# ip helper-address 198.51.100.100
R1(config)# interface fa0/0
R1(config-if)# ip address dhcp
R1(config-if)# no shutdown
R2(config)# interface gi0/0
R2(config-if)# ip address dhcp
R1(config)# interface fa0/0
R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 192.0.2.2
Which function docs an SNMP agent perform?
It sends information about MIB variables in response to requests from the NMS
it coordinates user authentication between a network device and a TACACS+ or RADIUS server
it requests information from remote network nodes about catastrophic system events
a.it manages routing between Layer 3 devices in a network
Drag and drop the descriptions of file transfer protocols from the left onto the correct protocols on the right. Select and Place
1-4-5-2-3-6
1-4-6-5-2-3
2-3-6-1-4-5
1-2-3-4-5-6
Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI? (Choose two)
Management interface settings
QoS settings
SSID
Profile name
Ip address of one or more access points
Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers?
Autonomous
Lightweight
Bridge
Mobility express
A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone?
It tags the traffic with the native VLAN
It tags the traffic with the default VLAN
It drops the traffic
It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged
Refer to the exhibit. Which command provides this output?
show ip route
show ip interface
show interface
show cdp neighbor
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants VLAN 67 traffic to be untagged between Switch 1 and Switch 2 while all other VLANs are to remain tagged. Which command accomplishes this task?
Switchport access vlan 67
Switchport trunk allowed vlan 67
Switchport private-vlan association host 67
Switchport trunk native vlan 67
Refer to the exhibit. What commands are needed to add a subinterface to Ethernet0/0 on R1 to allow for VLAN 20, with IP address 10.20.20.1/24?
R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0
R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20
R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0
R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20
R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20
R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0
R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20
R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0
R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0
R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0
How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification, user services and access control?
Authorization provides access control and authentication tracks user services
Authentication identifies users and accounting tracks user services
Accounting tracks user services, and authentication provides access control
Authorization identifies users and authentication provides access control
Which two command sequences must you configure on a switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two.)
interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1
channel-group 10 mode on
interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1
channel-group 10 mode active
interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1
channel-group 10 mode auto
interface port-channel 10
switchport
switchport mode trunk
interface port-channel 10
no switchport
ip address 172.16.0.1.255.255.255.0
Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?
Bronze
Platinum
Silver
Gold
Refer to Exhibit. How does SW2 interact with other switches in this VTP domain?
It processes VTP updates from any VTP clients on the network on its access ports
It receives updates from all VTP servers and forwards all locally configured VLANs out all trunk ports
It forwards only the VTP advertisements that it receives on its trunk ports
It transmits and processes VTP updates from any VTP Clients on the network on its trunk ports
Which statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is true?
To pass client traffic two or more ports must be configured
The EtherChannel must be configured in “mode active”.
When enabled, the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps
One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic
What is a difference between RADIUS and TACACS+?
RADIUS is most appropriate for dial authentication, but TACACS+ can be used for multiple types of authentication
TACACS+ encrypts only password information and RADIUS encrypts the entire payload
TACACS+ separates authentication and authorization, and RADIUS merges them
RADIUS logs all commands that are entered by the administrator, but TACACS+ logs only start, stop, and interim commands
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is tasked with configuring a voice VLAN. What is the expected outcome when a Cisco phone is connected to the GigabitEthernet 3/1/4 port on a switch?
The phone and a workstation that is connected to the phone do not have VLAN connectivity.
The phone sends and receives data in VLAN 50, but a workstation connected to the phone sends and receives data in VLAN 1
The phone sends and receives data in VLAN 50, but a workstation connected to the phone has no VLAN connected
The phone and a workstation that is connected to the phone send and receive data in VLAN 50
Refer to the exhibit. Which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged frame is received on the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface?
The frame is processed in VLAN 5
The frame is processed in VLAN 11
The frame is processed in VLAN 1
The frame is dropped
Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions should be made about this configuration? (Choose two )
The designated port is FastEthernet 2/1
This is a root bridge
The spanning-tree mode is Rapid PVST+
The spanning-tree mode is PVST+
The root port is FastEthernet 2/1
A network engineer must create a diagram of a multivendor network. Which command must be configured on the Cisco devices so that the topology of the network can be mapped?
Device(Config)#lldp run
Device(Config)#cdp run
Device(Config-if)#cdp enable
Device(Config)#flow-sampler-map topology
Which two commands were used to create port channel 10? (Choose two)
Int range g0/0-1
channel-group 10 mode active
Int range g0/0-1
channel-group 10 mode desirable
Int range g0/0-1
channel-group 10 mode passive
Int range g0/0-1
channel-group 10 mode passive
Int range g0/0-1
channel-group 10 mode on
What is a difference between local AP mode and FlexConnet AP mode?
Local AP mode creates two CAPWAP tunnels per AP to the WLC
FiexConnect AP mode fails to function if me AP loses connectivity with the WLC
FlexConnect AP mode bridges the traffic from the AP to the WLC when local switching is configured
Local AP mode causes the AP to behave as if it were an autonomous AP
What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast command?
It immediately enables the port in the listening state
It immediately puts the port into the forwarding state when the switch is reloaded
It minimizes spanning-tree convergence time
It enables BPDU messages
How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC?
The access point must directly connect to the WLC using a copper cable
The access point must not be connected to the wired network, as it would create a loop
The access point must be connected to the same switch as the WLC
The access point has the ability to link to any switch in the network, assuming connectivity to the WLC
What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding?
Frames are sent to all ports, including those that are assigned to other VLANs
Frames are sent to every port on the switch that has a matching entry in MAC address table
Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN except from the originating port
Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints?
TCP uses synchronization packets, and UDP uses acknowledgment packets
UDP uses SYN, SYN ACK and FIN bits in the frame header while TCP uses SYN, SYN ACK and ACK bits
UDP provides reliable message transfer and TCP is a connectionless protocol.
TCP uses the three-way handshake and UDP does not guarantee message delivery.
Refer to the exhibit. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must add a subnet for a new office that will add 20 users to the network. Which IPv4 network and subnet mask combination does the engineer assign to minimize wasting addresses?
10.10.225.48 255.255.255.240
10.10.225.32 255.255.255.240
10.10.225.48 255.255.255.224
10.10.225.32 255.255.255.224
An engineer must configure a/30 subnet between two routers. Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria?
interface e0/0
description to HQ-A370:98968
ip address 10.2.1.3 255.255.255.252
interface e0/0
description to HQ-A370:98968
ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.248
interface e0/0
description to HQ-A370:98968
ip address 172.16.1.4 255.255.255.248
interface e0/0
description to HQ-A370:98968
ip address 209.165.201.2 255.255.255.252
Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?
Allow multiple companies to each use the same address without conflicts
Provides a direct connection for hosts from outside of the enterprise network
Ensues that NAT is not required to reach the internet with private range addressing
Enable secure communications to the internet for all external hosts
What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two)
Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber
A BNC connector is used for fiber connections
The glass core component is encased in a cladding
Fiber connects to physical interfaces using Rj-45 connections
The data can pass through the cladding
What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated?
The seventh bit of the original MAC address of the interface is inverted
The interface ID is configured as a random 64-bit value
The characters FE80 are inserted at the beginning of the MAC address of the interface
The MAC address of the interface is used as the interface ID without modification
What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture?
Each device is separated by the same number of hops
It provides variable latency
It provides greater predictability on STP blocked ports
Each link between leaf switches allows for higher bandwidth
Which type of ipv6 address is publicly routable in the same way as ipv4 public addresses?
Multicast
Unique local
Link-local
Global unicast
Which 802.11 frame type is association response?
Management
Protected frame
Control
Action
Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization. Which two standard designs are recommended? (Choose two.)
5GHz provides increased network capacity with up to 23 nonoverlapping channels
5GHz channel selection requires an autonomous access point
Cells that overlap one another are configured to use nonoverlapping channels
Adjacent cells with overlapping channels use a repeater access point
For maximum throughput, the WLC is configured to dynamically set adjacent access points to the channel
What are two fundamentals of virtualization? (choose two)
The environment must be configured with one hypervisor that serves solely as a network manager to monitor SNMP traffic
It allows logical network devices to move traffic between virtual machines and the rest of the physical network
It allows multiple operating systems and applications to run independently on one physical server
It allows a physical router to directly connect NICs from each virtual machine into the network
It requires that some servers, virtual machines and network gear reside on the Internet
How does Cisco DNA Center gather data from the network?
Network devices use different services like SNMP, syslog, and streaming telemetry to send data to the controller
Devices establish an iPsec tunnel to exchange data with the controller
Devices use the call-home protocol to periodically send data to the controller
The Cisco CU Analyzer tool gathers data from each licensed network device and streams it to the controller
The SW1 interface g0/1 is in the down/down state. Which two configurations are valid reasons for the interface conditions? (choose two)
There is a duplex mismatch
There is a speed mismatch
There is a protocol mismatch
The interface is shut down
The interface is error-disabled
What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two)
The core and distribution layers perform the same functions
The access layer manages routing between devices in different domains
The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail
The core layer maintains wired connections for each host
The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies
A corporate office uses four floors in a building
* Floor 1 has 24 users
* Floor 2 has 29 users
* Floor 3 has 28 users
* Floor 4 has 22 users
Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration?
192.168.0.0/26 as summary and 192.168.0.0/29 for each floor
192.168.0.0/24 as summary and 192.168.0.0/28 for each floor
192.168.0.0/23 as summary and 192.168.0.0/25 for each floor
192.168.0.0/25 as summary and 192.168.0.0/27 for each floor
Which action must be taken to assign a global unicast IPv6 address on an interface that is derived from the MAC address of that interface?
Configure a stateful DHCPv6 server on the network
Enable SLAAC on an interface
Disable the EUI-64 bit process
Explicitly assign a link-local address
What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?
TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol
TCP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol
TCP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol
TCP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol
What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two)
When the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame again
When the cable length limits are exceeded
When one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex
When Carriner Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used
When a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been transmitted
Refer to the exhibit. Which prefix does Router 1 use for traffic to Host A?
10.10.10.0/28
10.10.13.0/25
10.10.13.144/28
10.10.13.208/29
Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right. Select and Place:
1-2-5-4-3
4-3-1-2-5
1-2-3-4-5
5-4-3-2-1
While examining excessive traffic on the network, it is noted that all incoming packets on an interface appear to be allowed even though an IPv4 ACL is applied to the interface. Which two misconfigurations cause this behavior? (Choose two)
The packets fail to match any permit statement
A matching permit statement is too high in the access test
A matching permit statement is too broadly defined
The ACL is empty
A matching deny statement is too high in the access list
Refer to the exhibit. If the network environment is operating normally, which type of device must be connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1?
DHCP client
access point
Router
PC
The service password-encryption command is entered on a router. What is the effect of this configuration?
Restricts unauthorized users from viewing clear-text passwords in the running configuration
Prevents network administrators from configuring clear-text passwords
Protects the VLAN database from unauthorized PC connections on the switch
Encrypts the password exchange when a VPN tunnel is established
An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company’s security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code. Which type of security program is in place?
Physical access control
Social engineering attack
brute force attack
user awareness
In which two ways does a password manager reduce the chance of a hacker stealing a users password? (Choose two.)
It automatically provides a second authentication factor that is unknown to the original user
It uses an internal firewall to protect the password repository from unauthorized access
It protects against keystroke logging on a compromised device or web site
It stores the password repository on the local workstation with built-in antivirus and anti-malware functionality
It encourages users to create stronger passwords
Which WPA3 enhancement protects against hackers viewing traffic on the Wi-Fi network?
TKiP encryption
AES encryption
Scrambled encryption key
SAE encryption
Refer to the exhibit. What configuration on RTR-1 denies SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic?
An engineer must configure a WLAN using the strongest encryption type for WPA2-PSK. Which cipher fulfills the configuration requirement?
WEP
RC4
AES
TKIP
When configuring a WLAN with WPA2 PSK in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI, which two formats are available to select? (Choose two)
ASCII
Base64
Binary
Decimal
Hexadecimal
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of this configuration?
The switch port interface trust state becomes untrusted
The switch port remains administratively down until the interface is connected to another switch
Dynamic ARP inspection is disabled because the ARP ACL is missing
The switch port remains down until it is configured to trust or untrust incoming packets
When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?
IKEv2
IKEv1
MD5
IPSec
Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plaintext on a router or switch?
enable secret
service password-encryption
username Cisco password encrypt
enable password
Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enabled restricts management access from specific networks?
CPU ACL
TACACS
Flex ACL
Radius
Drag and drop the attack-mitigation techniques from the left onto the Types of attack that they mitigate on the right.
3-2-4-1
4-3-1-2
1-2-3-4
3-1-2-4
