wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

CST REVIEW Exam #8

Total questions: 175

Worksheet time: 1hrs 27mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following refers to the process of isolating the surgical site from the rest of the body?

a)

Surgical draping

b)

Skin preparation

c)

Aseptic technique

d)

Patient positioning

2.

What is the standard temperature in an operating room?

a)

15 to 19 degrees C (59 to 66 degrees F)

b)

20 to 24 degrees C (68 to 75 degrees F)

c)

25 to 29 degrees C (77 to 84 degrees F)

d)

30 to 34 degrees C (86 to 93 degrees F)

3.

Which of the following skin preparation products provide a rapid decrease in the level of microorganisms?

a)

Alcohol and Iodine

b)

Iodine and chlorhexidine

c)

Alcohol and chlorhexidine

d)

Chlorhexidine and peroxide

4.

What is used to lubricate the donor site and reduce friction from the Dermatome

a)

Bacitracin ointment

b)

Iodophor solution

c)

Petrolatum gel

d)

Mineral oil

5.

Which of the following is an example of proper sterile technique when performing the prep for a split-thickness skin graft

a)

Donor site first

b)

Recipient site first

c)

Donor site only

d)

Recipient site only

6.

What procedure is performed to correct a chronic celebral ischemia?

a)

Rhizotomy

b)

Cranioplasty

c)

Arteriography

d)

Endarterectomy

7.

According to the rule of Nines, what percentage is assigned to the front and back of the trunk

a)

27%

b)

18%

c)

41/2 %

d)

1%

8.

How many milliliters are equal to 2 ounces

a)

25

b)

60

c)

30

d)

50

9.

Which term describes the following coping mechanism: "A patient tries to give excuses as to why he or she has a particular illness"?

a)

Regression

b)

Rationalization

c)

Denial

d)

Repression

10.

Bleeding in a pediatric trauma patient must be controlled to prevent _________.

a)

Brachial plexus injury

b)

Infiltration

c)

Distension

d)

Severe hypovolemia

11.

During abdominal procedures on patients who are obese, what procedure might additionally be performed due to newly identified pathology?

a)

Pancreatectomy

b)

Whipple

c)

Cholecystectomy

d)

Splenectomy

12.

The ___________ is the number one organ injured in a motor vehicle accident.




a)

Heart

b)

Liver

c)

Spleen

d)

Abdominal aorta

13.

What is used to create a pathway for electrical current to be returned from the patient back to the ESU?

a)

Bovie cord

b)

Grounding pad

c)

Ground wire

d)

Conducting gel

14.

Which machine found in the decontamination room uses cavitation?

a)

Ultrasonic washer

b)

Washer sterilizer

c)

Dry heat

d)

Flash sterilizer

15.

Which is the most commonly transmitted bacteria in the operating room?

a)

Candida albicans

b)

Cornebacterium jeikeium

c)

Staphlococcus aureus

d)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

16.

Gas gangrene and cellulitis is caused by which microorganism?




a)

Klebsiella pneumoniae

b)

Pasteurella multocida

c)

Clostridium perfringens

d)

E. coli

17.

The scope used for visualization of a fetus in utero is called a(n) _____________.

a)

Laryngoscope

b)

Fetoscope

c)

Hysteroscope

d)

Colonoscope

18.

Items are counted in which order for every procedure?

a)

Sharps, sponges, instruments

b)

Instruments, sharps, sponges

c)

Sponges, instruments, sharps

d)

Sponges, sharps, instruments

19.

In most vascular procedure, heparin is administer to the patient prevent the formation of blood cloth. Once the procedure is completed, the surgeon might request that _______ be administer to the patient to reverse the effect of the heparin

answer choices

a)

Naloxone ( Narcan )

b)

Protamine Sulfate

c)

Vitamin K

d)

Papaverine

20.

Which of the following anesthetic agent is administer intravenously ?

answer choices

a)

Enflurane (Ethrane )

b)

Nitrous oxide

c)

Propofol ( Diprivan )

d)

Methoxyflurane ( Pentran

21.

Which of the following is a topic hemostatic agent ?

answer choices

a)

Oxidized cellulose ( Surgicel )

b)

Protamine Sulfate

c)

Lidocaine ( Xylocaine )

d)

Heparin

22.

Which of the following scopes is use to visualize the trachea and removal of a foreign body from the bronchi ?

answer choices

a)

Flexible bronchoscope

b)

Rigid bronchoscope

c)

Mediastinoscope

d)

Laparoscope

23.

Carmen ,the CST in room 5, is in the middle of a thoracotomy , the surgeons request a clamp to grasp the lung tissue . The CST in the scrub role prepares to hand to hand the surgeon:

answer choices

a)

Satinsky

b)

Duval

c)

Lahey

d)

Mixter

24.

Name this siccssors

a)

Suture scissors

b)

Staple remover

c)

Bandage scissors

d)

Tenotomy scissors

25.

Name the Retractor

a)

Langenbeck

b)

Weitlaner

c)

Deaver

d)

Malleable

26.

What is the most suitable suture to fix the mesh in an open inguinal repair surgery?

a)

Prolene 0

b)

Vicryl 1

c)

Prolene 2-0

d)

catgut 3-0

27.

The power drill or saw used to divide bone with side to side cutting action is a /an:

answer choices

a)

Reciprocating saw

b)

Rotary drill

c)

Oscillating saw

d)

Drill reamer

28.

The surgeon performing a total knee replacement will be using a cemented prosthesis. What instrument should the surgical technologist hand to the surgeon to remove excess polymethylmethacrylate ?

answer choices

a)

Lambotte osteotome

b)

Key elevator

c)

Curette

d)

Chisel and mallet

29.

Which of the following instrument is not used in a otorhinolaryngology surgery ?

answer choices

a)

Rosen

b)

Baron

c)

Frazier

d)

Poole

30.

Which of the following instrument should be included in a TURBT set-up ?

answer choices

a)

Lithotrite

b)

Urethrotome

c)

Resectoscope

d)

Randall

31.

When a patient with a gunshot wound or other infected traumatic wound is brought back to surgery for a secondary closure, which type of wound healing would this falls under ?

answer choices

a)

First intention

b)

Second intention

c)

Third intention

d)

Maturation

32.

To eliminate anticipated dead space, what might the surgeon request ?

answer choices

a)

Montgomery straps

b)

Pressure dressing

c)

Extra suture material

d)

Postoperative injection

33.

Which of the following suture is used during an hemorrhoidectomy ?

answer choices

a)

3-0 prolene

b)

3-0 chromic gut

c)

2-0 polydioxanone

d)

2-0 Silk

34.

Which of the following drain serve has a venue for exit of fluids by capillary action ?

answer choices

a)

Pezzer

b)

Jackson Pratt

c)

Penrose

d)

Hemovac

35.

Carmen, is scheduled to do a Bankart procedure, she anticipates that --------------- is the suture of choice for this procedure .

answer choices

a)

# 2 nonabsorbable

b)

0 absorbable

c)

1-0 nonabsorbable

d)

2-0 absorbable

36.

What type of dressing is often used for pediatric patients ?

answer choices

a)

Pressure

b)

Skin closure tapes

c)

Bulky

d)

Collodion

37.

The item that uses ultrasonic energy to cut and coagulates simultaneously is the :

answer choices

a)

CUSA

b)

LASER

c)

Harmonic Scalpel

d)

Cryotherapy unit

38.

Continuous suture is also referred to as ( n ):

answer choices

a)

Running stich

b)

Purse string

c)

Retention suture

d)

Buried suture

39.

Carmen the ST in room 8, is preparing for a abdominal hysterectomy, she knows that the patient will be place in ---------------- position and that there is a need of a ------------------ may be applied over the acromion process.

answer choices

a)

Trendelenburg - shoulder braces

b)

Trendelenburg - footboard

c)

Reverse Trendelenburg - shoulder brace

d)

Reverse Trendelenburg - footboard

40.

15 minutes postoperatively a patient experience rash and redness of skin and constricted bronchioles causing dyspnea,. Which of the following condition would the patient be suspected of experiencing ?

answer choices

a)

Cardiac arrest

b)

Anaphylactic reaction

c)

Malignant hyperthermia

d)

Pulmonary embolism

41.

Who is responsible for coordinating the post-operative transfer of the anesthetized patient to a stretcher ?

answer choices

a)

ST in the scrub role

b)

Surgeon

c)

ST in circulator role

d)

Anesthesia

42.

Who is responsible for protecting an unsplinted fracture during transfer and positioning of the patient ?

answer choices

a)

Circulator nurse

b)

Anesthesia

c)

First assistant

d)

Attending surgeon

43.

To maintain control of the gurney, the patient should be transported to the O.R in :

answer choices

a)

According to the surgeon orders

b)

Base on the patient request

c)

Head first

d)

Feet first

44.

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when cutting suture?

a)

Avoiding the knot

b)

Using sharp scissors

c)

Opening the scissors wide when cutting

d)

Tagging the end of suture to be cut with a hemostat

45.

On the way into the operating room, a terminally ill patient tells the nurse, "No matter what happens, it will be okay." Which of the Five Stages of Grief is the patient MOST likely in?

a)

Denial

b)

Bargaining

c)

Depression

d)

Acceptance

46.

Which of the following is used to oxygenate and circulate blood?

a)

Doppler ultrasound

b)

Defibrillator

c)

Extracorporeal bypass

d)

Autotransfuser

47.

Which of the following structures is separated first when a paramedian incision is performed?

a)

Peritoneum

b)

Transverse abdominis

c)

External oblique

d)

Rectus abdominis

48.

An appendectomy incision closed using a suture is considered to be which of the following types of wound closure?

a)

Primary intention

b)

Secondary intention

c)

Tertiary intention

d)

Third intention

49.

Which of the following is a surgical instrument designed for retracting?

a)

Potts

b)

Penfield

c)

Lowman

d)

Gelpi

50.

What is the desired effect of the atropine sulfate when used as a preoperative medication?

a)

Drowsiness

b)

Pain relief

c)

Decreased anxiety

d)

Drying of secretions

51.

If the VII cranial nerve is severed, which of the following is the result?


I

a)

Loss of hearing

b)

Loss of vision

c)

Facial paralysis

d)

mpairment of eye muscles

52.

The most common congenital cardiac anomaly in the cyanotic group is :

answer choices

a)

Tricuspid atresia

b)

Tetralogy of Fallot

c)

Patent ductus arteriosus

d)

Truncus arteriosus

53.

Which of the following surgical procedures would a chest tube and a under water- seal drainage system is expected to be used:

answer choices

a)

AAA

b)

Cardiac pacemaker

c)

Lung wedge resection

d)

Vena Cava Umbrella Insertion

54.

All of the following statements regarding the heart are true EXCEPTS:

answer choices

a)

The right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the vena cava

b)

The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the pulmonary vein

c)

The left ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood into the systematic circulation

d)

The right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood to the pulmonary artery

55.

During a AAA repair the surgeon asks for a vascular clamp to occluded the aorta . The CST prepares to pass a :

answer choices

a)

Bulldog clamp

b)

Duval clamp

c)

Satinsky clamp

d)

Allen clamp

56.

While working in a peripheral vascular procedures, Kevin the CST is aware of the possibility of embolus formation .

Which of the following should be in the room in the event that this happens ?

answer choices

a)

Swan-Ganz

b)

Fogarty

c)

Levin

d)

Groshong

57.

A pediatric patient have been found to have strabismus. Which equipment will the CST likely have and his Mayo setup ?

answer choices

a)

Rat tooth forceps, Potts scissors

b)

Bayonet forceps/ speculum

c)

0.12 mm forceps / Army Navy retractor

d)

Caliper , muscle hook

58.

Which of the following scissors would most likely used for dissection during strabismus surgery ?

answer choices

a)

Metzenbaum

b)

Jorgenson

c)

Tenotomy

d)

Westcott

59.

Angel , the CST is preparing to do a keratoplasty ,he should make sure that the donor grafts are in the room and the------- is on the sterile field.

answer choices

a)

Trephine

b)

Phacoemulsification

c)

Doppler

d)

Nerve stimulator

60.

Dacryocystorhinostomy involves the anatomy of

answer choices

a)

Cornea

b)

Retina

c)

Lacrimal sac

d)

choroid

61.

It serves as the window of the eye

answer choices

a)

Cornea

b)

Iris

c)

Retina

d)

choroid

62.

Which of the following drug is used for detecting foreign bodies or corneal abrasions ?

answer choices

a)

Tetracaine hydrochloride

b)

Fluorescein

c)

Xylocaine

d)

Wydase

63.

When assisting with the closure of a skin incision and operating the skin stapler, the surgical technologist in the scrub role is placing the staples through which two layers?

a)

Cuticular and subcuticular

b)

Subicular and subcutaneous

c)

Subcuticular and subcutaneous

d)

Subcutaneous and fascia

64.

Which of the following layers are transected when a subcostal flank incision is used for a nephrectomy?

a)

Pre-peritoneal fat

b)

Linea alba

c)

Oblique muscles

d)

Rectus abdominis muscle

65.

In preparation for a cranial aneurysm, which of the following pieces of equipment would MOST likely be used?

a)

Microscope

b)

Cryoprobe

c)

Jordan day drill

d)

Crutchfield tongs

66.

Which of the following examples illustrates UNSAFE technique for disposing of contaminated sharps?

a)

Used suture needles and scalpel blades are removed from the needle counter and individually placed in the biohazard sharps container.

b)

Used suture needles and scalpel blades remain in the needle counter and the closed needle counter is placed in the biohazard sharps container.

c)

The biohazard sharps container is located as close as possible to the area in which the items were used.

d)

Disposable surgical blades are removed from knife handles with a needle holder or other instrument.

67.

If a routine surgical procedure was performed without consent, the surgeon committed

a)

Assault.

b)

Battery.

c)

Malpractice.

d)

Liability

68.

During the intraoperative phase, which of the following activities can be completed by both sterile and non-sterile members of the surgical team?

a)

Caring for the specimen

b)

Maintaining the patient's operative record

c)

Clearing residual blood from the surgical field

d)

Maintaining the sterile field and neutral zone

69.

Which of the following procedures is used to visualize the cystic, hepatic, and common ducts?

a)

Barium enema

b)

Cholangiography

c)

Intravenous pyelography

d)

Upper gastrointestinal series

70.

Which of the following retractors should the surgical technologist have available to provide exposure to the patellar tendon while harvesting the graft for an ACL repair?

a)

Senn

b)

RicHayeshardson

c)

Fukuda

d)

Hayes

71.

During dissection of the cystic duct in an open cholecystectomy, which of the following instruments is necessary?

a)

Ochsner forceps

b)

Jennings retractor

c)

Mixter clamp

d)

O'Sullivan-O'Connor retractor

72.

The primary purpose of a local anesthetic is to

a)

Lower skin temperature

b)

Reduce fear and anxiety

c)

Block peripheral nerve receptors

d)

Decrease bleeding

73.

Which of the following is the correct skin preparation for a female patient undergoing a right mastectomy with possible axillary dissection?

a)

Shoulder, upper arm and extending down to the elbow, axilla, chest to the table line, and to the left shoulder

b)

Base of the neck, shoulder, scapula, chest to midline, and circumference of upper arm down to the elbow

c)

Entire arm, shoulder, axilla, including the hand

d)

Chin to umbilicus and laterally to the table line

74.

Which of the following diagnostic procedure is used to determine abnormalities , tumor ,disc herniation or other problems associated with spinal structures?

answer choices

a)

MRI

b)

Fluoroscopy

c)

Myelography

d)

Angiography

75.

Which of the following is describes has a lateral shape of the spine ?

answer choices

a)

Lordosis

b)

Kyphosis

c)

Scoliosis

d)

Swayback

76.

The patient in room 6 is scheduled for a ventriculoatrial shunt placement. The distal end of the shunt may be place in the right atrium .The proximal end of the shunt should be place in the:

answer choices

a)

Dura mater

b)

Ventricle

c)

Pia mater

d)

Cerebellum

77.

During a craniotomy, the first closing count should be done before the ------------------ is closed

answer choices

a)

Galea

b)

Pia matter

c)

Dura matter

d)

Arachnoid

78.

The congenital defect where the vertebrae do not close leaving the spinal cord unprotected is

answer choices

a)

Myelomeningocele

b)

Spina Bifida

c)

Arteriovenous malformation

d)

Meniere's disease

79.

A lumbar puncture removes cerebral spinal fluid from:

answer choices

a)

Subarachnoid space

b)

the epidural space

c)

The lateral ventricle of the brain

d)

The space between C- 1 and C- 2

80.

The middle layer of the meninges is:

answer choices

a)

Pia

b)

Dura

c)

Arachnoid

d)

Neurilemma

81.

ACL graft material that is taken from a cadaver is known as a ( n )

answer choices

a)

Grafton

b)

Xenograft

c)

Allograft

d)

Autograft

82.

The freeing up of an entrapped nerve is referred to as a/ an:

answer choices

a)

Neuropexy

b)

Kyphosis

c)

Neurolysis

d)

Kyphoplasty

83.

Casting material can be made from all of the following material EXCEPT:

answer choices

a)

Hydroxyapatite

b)

Gypsum

c)

Anhydrous calcium sulfateimpregnated

d)

Fiberglass

84.

All of the following is concerning polymethylmethacrylate used use on the surgical field include all of the following EXCEPT:

answer choices

a)

Room and temperature setting would affect the setting time

b)

Contac of the polymer and your skin may cause dermatitis

c)

Avoid excessive exposure to the vapors produced during mixer of the polymer and the powder

d)

Polymethylmethacrylate should prepare at the beginning of the case, so it is ready at the desired time

85.

Exsanguination of a limb before tourniquet inflation is accomplish with wrapping the elevated extremity with--------

answer choices

a)

Kling

b)

Esmarch

c)

Stockinette

d)

Webril

86.

The tourniquet is contraindicated if:

answer choices

a)

Patient circulation to the distal part of the extremity is poor

b)

Patient is elderly

c)

Patient is obese

d)

Patient has epidural anesthesia

87.

At what point should the surgeon be informed of the time of the tourniquet application ?

answer choices

a)

After 15 minutes, then after 5 minutes

b)

After 1 hour, then every 15 minutes

c)

After 2 hours, then every hour

d)

After 3 hours , then every 15 minutes

88.

In which of the following procedures would a tourniquet be contraindicated ?

answer choices

a)

Tendon repair, child

b)

Arthroscopy, adult

c)

Bunionectomy

d)

Gangrenous amputation

89.

A common donor site for a autogenous bone graft is

answer choices

a)

Femur

b)

Pelvis

c)

Ilium

d)

Ischium

90.

If a pediatric patient has a pneumothorax, there is an accumulation of air in the -------

answer choices

a)

Esophagus

b)

Bronchial tree

c)

Pleural cavity

d)

abdomen

91.

A blood born pathogen that puts health care workers at particular risk is --------

answer choices

a)

Hepatitis C

b)

Staphylococcus aureus

c)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

d)

All helminths

92.

Low level disinfection may be appropriate for

answer choices

a)

Semicritical items

b)

Critical items

c)

Microsurgical instruments

d)

GI instruments

93.

Ana is preparing for a vesicovaginal fistula. Which of the following type of instrument is used for exploring fistulas ?

answer choices

a)

Probing instrument

b)

Viewing instrument

c)

Clamping instrument

d)

Grasping instrument

94.

Carmen the CST is preparing for a pediatric surgical intervention, the she should :

answer choices

a)

Request a longer time for the procedure

b)

Anticipate the need for more irrigation fluids

c)

Request a cryotherapy unit

d)

Anticipate the use of warming devices ( Bair Hugger )

95.

Carlos the ST is preparing for a thyroidectomy .Which of the following instrument tray should be available in the room ?

answer choices

a)

Tracheostomy

b)

Plastic reconstructive

c)

Tonsil and adenoidectomy

d)

Laryngoscope

96.

Which of the following blade is used for a Tonsillectomy ?

answer choices

a)

15

b)

10

c)

11

d)

12

97.

Uvulapalatopharyngoplasty is the surgical procedure performed to treat :

answer choices

a)

Chronic sinusitis

b)

Sleep apnea

c)

Meniere disease

d)

Nasal polys

98.

For which of the following surgical procedure is a nerve stimulator included in the set- up

answer choices

a)

Parotidectomy

b)

Uvulapalatopharyngoplasty

c)

Lingual tonsilectomy

d)

Myringotomy

99.

Is the surgical procedure performed to removed irreversibly damage mucosa of the maxillary sinus

answer choices

a)

Septoplasty

b)

Cadwell Luc

c)

Functional endoscopic sinus surgery

d)

Ethmoidectomy

100.

Which of the following surgical procedure may be performed to treat hypercalcemia ?

answer choices

a)

Thyroidectomy

b)

Parathyroidectomy

c)

Parotidectomy

d)

Thyroglossal duct cystectomy

101.

which of the following provides lubrication for coitus and his open into the vaginal orifice ?

answer choices

a)

Labia minora

b)

Labia majora

c)

Bartholin gland

d)

Clitoris

102.

The tissue that covers the bone and provides movement to the skeletal system is

answer choices

a)

Ligaments

b)

Tendons

c)

Muscle

d)

Periosteum

103.

The second pair of cranial nerves is associated with which of the following ?

answer choices

a)

Smell

b)

Speech

c)

Sight

d)

Balance

104.

The space between the cochlea and the semicircular canals of the inner ear is the

answer choices

a)

Labyrinth

b)

Anterior cavity

c)

Vestibule

d)

Auricle

105.

Failure of an organ to develop properly is called

answer choices

a)

Atresia

b)

Hypoplasia

c)

Aplasia

d)

Anaplasia

106.

For which of the following surgical procedures would an Baron suction most likely be used ?

answer choices

a)

Myringotomy

b)

Tonsillectomy

c)

Craniotomy

d)

Stamey

107.

During a Transnasal hypophysectomy , which of the following specialist creates the accesses to the tumor ?

answer choices

a)

Neurosurgeon

b)

Otolaryngologist

c)

Ophthalmologist

d)

Cardiologist

108.

Kevin, The CST in room 7 is assigned to scrub in a knee arthroscopy, he anticipates that ---------------solutions can be used during the procedure.

answer choices

a)

Glycine / normal saline

b)

Ringer's / normal saline

c)

Sorbitol / Ringer's

d)

normal saline / Sorbitol

109.

During a cataract extraction , the CST knows that the following would be needed to keep the cornea moist

answer choices

a)

Mannitol

b)

Miochol

c)

Chymar

d)

BSS

110.

Kevin the ST , was call to do a ORIF of the ulna . Which of the following type of bone would he be working on ?

answer choices

a)

Flat bone

b)

Irregular bone

c)

Short bone

d)

Long bone

111.

The patient in room 7 is scheduled for a rhytidectomy. In which of the following position she will be place in ?

answer choices

a)

Lateral

b)

Dorsal recumbent

c)

Prone

d)

Fowler's

112.

While performing a parotidectomy, which structure most be identified and preserve before removing the gland ?

answer choices

a)

Carotid artery

b)

Thyroid gland

c)

Facial Nerve

d)

Sternomastoid muscle

113.

which of the following catheter is used in patients with obstructed or narrowing urethra

answer choices

a)

Red rubber

b)

2 way Foley

c)

Coude

d)

3 way Foley

114.

A patient is complaining of nauseas, fever and severe back pain ,the patient was previously diagnose with hyperparathyroidism. The patient most likely suffers from

answer choices

a)

Kidney stones

b)

Glomerulonephritis

c)

Hydrocele

d)

Chordee

115.

Which procedures includes a prep from the mid abdomen to toes , with the affected leg prep

answer choices

a)

Aortoiliac bypass

b)

Femoral popliteal by pass

c)

Aortofemoral bypass

d)

Abdominal aortic aneurysm

116.

The vial the circulating nurse his holding is label 75 mg per 1 cc. The surgeon wants 150mg of the medication. The ST will draw up

answer choices

a)

.75 cc

b)

1.5 cc

c)

2 cc

d)

none of the above

117.

which action would invalidate the inform consent for surgery ?

answer choices

a)

The nurse explains the procedure and the benefit to the patient

b)

The CST serves as a witness to the consent

c)

The surgeon obtains the consent

d)

An illiterate patient signs with a mark

118.

Res ipsa loquitur is a Latin term concerning :

answer choices

a)

Patients right

b)

The AST motto

c)

Doing no harm

d)

Negligence

119.

Movement around the sterile field should be

answer choices

a)

Out of normal traffic flows

b)

Keep to a minimum

c)

Done freely

d)

Constricted to the anesthesia personal

120.

If a surgical blade is broken during a procedure ,how should the ST handle the count?

answer choices

a)

The St should discard the sharp in the sharp container

b)

The count should reflect all parts of the broken blade

c)

The count should remain the same, with the pieces count as one

d)

The circulator nurse will remove the blade from the room

121.

which of the following is an example of universal precaution?

answer choices

a)

Sterilization of equipment

b)

Adecuate draping of the surgical field

c)

Adecuate skin preparation of the surgical site

d)

Proper handling of sharps

122.

What is the recommended range of intra-abdominal pressure in an adult patient when using the insufflator during the laparoscopic procedure

a)

8-11 mm Hg

b)

12-15 mm Hg

c)

16-19 mm Hg

d)

20-23 mm Hg

123.

When placing ring handled instruments in an instrument ray you should

a)

Arrange the instruments in the order of their use

b)

Lock handles to prevent damage during sterilization

c)

Unlock the handles and open the instruments

d)

Arrange the instruments in alphabetical order

124.

The relative humidity of the central service department should be

a)

Less than 35

b)

Less than 60

c)

Less than 50

d)

Less than 75

125.

The suffix -rrhea means

a)

Flow, discharge

b)

Breathing

c)

To pour

d)

Birth, labor

126.

Syncope is a sudden loss of

a)

Blood pressure

b)

Consciousness

c)

Vision

d)

Hearing

127.

A robotic arm with Cartesian geometry refers to what kind of movement?

a)

Plane polar coordinate

b)

Articulated geometry

c)

Degrees of Freedom

d)

X,Y, and Z axes

128.

Which of the following joints is fused during a triple arthrodesis?

a)

Cuneiform

b)

Metacarpal phalangeal

c)

Acromioclavicular

d)

Calcaneocuboid

129.

The upper chambers of the heart are called the

a)

Ventricles

b)

Atria

c)

Myocardium

d)

Pericardium

130.

The heel bone of the foot is called the

a)

Metatarsal

b)

Tarsal

c)

Phalanges

d)

Calcaneus

131.

What joint is formed by the articulation of the mandible with the glenoid fossa of the temporal bone?

a)

Articular tubercle

b)

Temporomandibular joint

c)

Mental foramen

d)

Ramu

132.

What three bones fuse together to create the pelvis?

a)

Ilium, ischium, pubix

b)

Trapezium, capitate, hamate

c)

Calcaneus, navicular, cuboid

d)

Patella, humerus, pectoral

133.

Which type of surggery often requires the use of packing?

a)

Rectal

b)

Chest

c)

Neck

d)

Knee

134.

Which of the following terms refers to sever hypertension in the pregnant female?

a)

Placenta pervia

b)

Dystocia

c)

Prolapse of umbilical cord

d)

Eclampsia

135.

The Gram stain differentiates between

a)

Viruses

b)

Bacteria

c)

Protozoa

d)

Plants

136.

A radiopaque contrast media used in surgery is

a)

Cefazolin

b)

Lugol's solution

c)

Hypaque meglumine

d)

Acetic acid

137.

Which of the following is an inhalation agent?

a)

Ketamin hydrocholoride

b)

Propfol

c)

Methohexital sodium

d)

Halothane

138.

Which of the following instrument should be on a set-up for a TURP ?

answer choices

a)

Lithotrite

b)

Urethrotome

c)

Resectoscope

d)

Gaylor biopsy forceps

139.

What is most likely position for the patient undergoing a radical prostatectomy ?

answer choices

a)

Trendelenburg

b)

Lithotomy

c)

Reverse Trendelenburg

d)

Lateral

140.

All of the following are treatment for urinary calculi EXCEPT

answer choices

a)

Cystoscopy with lithotripsy

b)

Extracorporeal shock lithotripsy

c)

Let it pass

d)

Simple nephrectomy

141.

Which of the following procedure could be done either to a male or female ?

answer choices

a)

TURP

b)

TURBT

c)

Hydrocelectomy

d)

Orchiectomy

142.

A Pereyra needle is used for which of the following procedure ?

answer choices

a)

Nephrectomy

b)

Prostatectomy

c)

Bladder neck suspension

d)

Cystectomy

143.

The most common incision for a unilateral nephrectomy is:

answer choices

a)

Flank or lumbar

b)

Pfannenstiel

c)

Transabdominal

d)

Transthoracic

144.

The most common telescope used for cystoscopy include:

answer choices

a)

20 and 30 degree scopes

b)

15 and 30 degree scopes

c)

15 and 17 degree scopes

d)

30 and 70 degree scopes

145.

During a kidney transplantation the, blood vessel are irrigated with-------to prevent blood from clothing in the lumen

answer choices

a)

Cephazolin

b)

Pitressin

c)

Heparin sodium

d)

Bupivacaine

146.

When performing a right colectomy, The surgeon most likely remove portions of which of the following

answer choices

a)

Jejunum and duodenum

b)

Ascending and transverse colon

c)

Transverse and descending colon

d)

Sigmoid and rectum

147.

During a open repair of an indirect hernia, Which of the following drains should a surgical technologist have available to pass the surgeon once the spermatic cord has been dissected?

answer choices

a)

Malecot

b)

T-tube

c)

Jackson- Pratt

d)

Penrose

148.

During a Whipple procedure which of the following structure of the gastrointestinal track is not involved ?

answer choices

a)

Distal stomach

b)

Duodenum

c)

Spleen

d)

Pancreas

149.

The cyst with a track located in the intergluteal fold is called?

answer choices

a)

Hemorrhoidal cyst

b)

Pilonidal cyst

c)

anal cyst

d)

Sacral cyst

150.

The patient in room 5 is diagnosed with pyloric stenosis , Which surgical procedure will be perform ?

answer choices

a)

Total gastrectomy

b)

Pyloromyotomy

c)

Billroth I

d)

Pyloroplasty

151.

The ampulla of Vater is the area in the duodenum where the----------- duct and the---------- duct come together

answer choices

a)

Cystic duct; common bile duct

b)

Cystic duct; hepatic duct

c)

Cystic duct ; pancreatic duct

d)

Common bile duct and pancreatic duct

152.

When both, direct and indirect hernia are present, this is referred to a:

answer choices

a)

femoral hernia

b)

Volvulus

c)

Indirect hernia

d)

Pantaloon

153.

For the patient undergoing a marsupialization of a Bartholin's cyst , how will the " pouch " be created ?

answer choices

a)

Cyst wall lining is turned out and suture to vaginal mucosa

b)

Vaginal mucosa is incised and a pouch is created

c)

Pouch is created by suturing mesh to the vaginal wall

d)

Mucosa is excised from an unaffected area a sutured to the affected area to create a pouch

154.

Which of the following scissors is most likely to be found in a hysterectomy tray ?

answer choices

a)

Jamison

b)

Potts- Smith

c)

Reynolds

d)

Jorgenson

155.

The procedure commonly performed for the treatment of uterine descensus or prolapse is:

answer choices

a)

Total abdominal hysterectomy

b)

Vaginal hysterectomy

c)

Total abdominal hysterectomy with , bilateral salpingectomy

d)

Supracervical hysterectomy

156.

Instrument used to grasp the vaginal mucosa during a Anterior/ Posterior repair include:

answer choices

a)

Hemostatic clamp---criles

b)

Allis clamp

c)

Oschners

d)

Babcocks

157.

Maria is 12 week pregnant ,she is having constant bleeding and is afraid of loosing her baby. Which of the following procedure is done to prevent spontaneous abortion ?

answer choices

a)

Colporrhaphy

b)

Culdocentesis

c)

Stamey procedure

d)

Cerclage

158.

The ST in room 2 is assigned to do a cone biopsy .Which of the following be important to have in the room.

answer choices

a)

Acetic acid

b)

Lugol's solution

c)

Methylene blue

d)

Indigo carmine

159.

A contraindication for hysteroscopy is

answer choices

a)

Lost IUD

b)

Pregnancy

c)

Infertility

d)

Abnormal uterine bleeding

160.

The curette commonly used for endocervical scrapping is a ( n)

answer choices

a)

Kevorkian

b)

Thomas

c)

Bozeman

d)

Loop

161.

The disinfectant that should not be used on lensed instrument do to the potential for loosening the " cement "

around the lens is:

answer choices

a)

Glutaraldehyde

b)

Isopropyl alcohol

c)

Chlorine compound

d)

Phenolic compound

162.

Unwrapped instrument, WITH lumen present , are sterilized for ?

answer choices

a)

3 minutes

b)

4 minutes

c)

10 minutes

d)

15 minutes

163.

Cell destruction by steam sterilization occurs by?

answer choices

a)

Disruption of cellular membrane

b)

Interference with cellular metabolism

c)

Oxidation of cellular protein

d)

Coagulation of cellular protein

164.

Wrappers and peel packs must meet which qualification:

answer choices

a)

Permeable barrier

b)

Appropriate size for the item

c)

Air holes for adequate ventilation

d)

Negative cost to benefit ratio

165.

Which of the following refers to the procedures designed to check for air entrapment within the chamber of a sterilizer ?

answer choices

a)

Bowie Dick test

b)

Air pull test

c)

Sterility validation test

d)

Air pressure test

166.

which of the following substances is used to create gas plasma for sterilization purposes ?

answer choices

a)

Ethylene oxide

b)

Isopropyl alcohol

c)

Hydrogen Peroxide

d)

Ozone

167.

The proper attire for the decontamination room are all of the following EXCEPT ?

answer choices

a)

Impervious gown -back open

b)

Hair cover - Mask

c)

Eye protection- boots with cover

d)

short gloves

168.

For steam sterilization, biological indicator should be placed

answer choices

a)

In the most challenging area of the load

b)

At the center of the load

c)

In the least challenging area of the load

d)

At the top of the load

169.

Which procedure are best perform with the patient in Fowler's position

answer choices

a)

Bristow / Cerclage

b)

Bristow / Bankart

c)

Bankart / Cadwell Luck

d)

Barkart/ Cone biopsy

170.

Which of the following procedure will be perform in the Sims procedure

answer choices

a)

Hysteroscopy

b)

Colonoscopy

c)

Esophagoscopy

d)

Bronchoscopy

171.

Which position most affects the patient's ability to ventilate ?

answer choices

a)

Lithotomy / Fowler's

b)

Supine / beach chair

c)

Lateral / Fowler's

d)

Prone / Trendelenburg

172.

Which of the following anatomical landmarks is used to line up the endoscope for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy using a robotic arm?

a)

Xiphoid process

b)

Mid-chest line

c)

Iliac crest

d)

UMbilicus

173.

The gland located on the front and sides of the trachea below the larynx is the

a)

Pituitary

b)

Thyroid

c)

Thymus

d)

Pineal

174.

In the presence of infection the absorption rate of surgical gut is

a)

Decreased

b)

Terminated

c)

Increased

d)

Tapered

175.

During peripheral vascular procedures papaverine is administered to

a)

Dilate peripheral blood vessels

b)

Constrict peripheral blood vessels

c)

Increase blood flow to the heart

d)

Control intraoperative bleeding

Similar Resources on Wayground

LPN Elimination

180 questions

LPN Elimination

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Love [ENG-VIET Complete] Level 3

170 questions

Love [ENG-VIET Complete] Level 3

quiz

Worksheet

•

KG - Professional Dev...

Around the World [ENG-VIET Complete] Level 3

172 questions

Around the World [ENG-VIET Complete] Level 3

quiz

Worksheet

•

KG - Professional Dev...

цифр тест

180 questions

цифр тест

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

информатика сессия 2

173 questions

информатика сессия 2

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Giai thich -Business Law - Essential words

175 questions

Giai thich -Business Law - Essential words

quiz

Worksheet

•

University