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Bacteriology

Total questions: 175

Worksheet time: 3hrs 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

area of biologic science that comprises three distinct but highly interrelated disciplines: classification, nomenclature and identification of organisms.

a)

Phylogeny

b)

Taxonomy

c)

Bacteriology

d)

Microbiology

2.

This method of classification combines the traditional genotypic, phenotypic, and phylogenetic or evolutionary relationships into a general purpose classification system.

a)

Epigenetic Taxonomy

b)

Motaxonomic

c)

Polyphasic Taxonomy

d)

Phylogenic Taxonomy

3.

Hallmark of diagnostic microbiology

a)

Taxonomy

b)

Phylogeny

c)

Epigenetic

d)

DNA G + C content

4.

Method for organizing microorganisms into groups or taxa based on similar morphologic, physiologic, and genetic traits.

a)

Genus

b)

Taxon

c)

Classification

d)

Family

5.

First to use lens to observe the smallest unit of tissues

a)

Anton Van Leeuwenhoek

b)

Robert Hooke

c)

John Snow

d)

Mimiyuuuh

6.

First to observe and accurately describe bacteria and protozoa

a)

Robert Hooke

b)

John Snow

c)

Jose Rizal

d)

Anton Van Leewenhoek

7.

Process by which a microorganism's key features are delineated.

a)

Genotypic Characteristics

b)

Microbial Identification

c)

Nomenclature

d)

Taxonomy

8.

Growth of microbiota in or on a body site without the production of damage or notable symptoms.

a)

Symbiosis

b)

Colonization

c)

Taxonomy

d)

Goodluck!

9.

Microorganisms that are commonly found on or in body sites of healthy persons.

a)

Parasitism

b)

Commensalism

c)

Indigenous Microbial Biota

d)

Colonization

e)

Fighting!

10.

Human body cells are examples of this type of cell that contains a nucleus...

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Eukaryotic

c)

Host

d)

Bacteriology

e)

Push pa more!

11.
Bacilli bacteria are what shape?
a)
spiral
b)
rod
c)
round
12.
Spirilla bacteria are what shape?
a)
Rod
b)
Spiral
c)
Round
13.
Cocci bacteria are what shape?
a)
round
b)
rod
c)
spiral
14.

staphylococus and streptococcus are similar in what ways?

a)

both composed of numerous spherical bacterial cells

b)

both composed of single bacteria cells

c)

both gram negative

d)

both extremophiles

e)

Lah ! Di sumuko ?!

15.

An infection that occurs as the result of medical treatment or procedures.

a)

Iatrogenic Infection

b)

Viral Infection

c)

Love Infection

d)

Friendzone CHAR!

e)

Bacterial Infection

16.

Plays a key role in the characterization of organisms that have been cultivated in the laboratory.

a)

Taxonomy

b)

Phylogeny

c)

Microscopy

d)

Sus ! Dali rani noh ?

17.

Light is passed through the sample and then through a series of lenses that bend the light

a)

Light Microscopy

b)

Fluorescene Microscopy

c)

Dark-field Microscopy

d)

Electron Microscopy

18.

The extent to which detail in the magnified object is maintained.

a)

Resolving Power

b)

Magnification

c)

Resolution

d)

Total Magnification

19.

closest distance between two objects that when magnified still allows the two objects to be distinguished from each other

a)

Resolution

b)

Contrast

c)

Resolving Power

d)

Total Magnification

e)

Uy ! Go lang 100 items imong exams !

20.

make objects stand out from the background

a)

Contrast

b)

Resolution

c)

Total Magnification

d)

F.O.C.U.S !!

21.

Aspirate SHOULD NOT be placed in the anticoagulant ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) tube

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

c)

TRALSE

d)

FALUE

22.

Cytocentrifugation or concentration of a sterile body

fluid such as cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) ENHANCES the ability to identify cells in a specimen that may contain small numbers of microorganisms.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

c)

TRALSE

d)

FALUE

23.

provides a mechanism for the rapid presumptive

identification of pathogens

a)

Differential Stain

b)

Decolorization

c)

Gram Stain

d)

Primary Stain

e)

Lah ! Parehas man !

24.

preserves the morphology of host cells, as well as bacteria, and is especially useful for examining bloody specimens

a)

Mordant

b)

Counterstain

c)

Methanol Fixation

d)

Alcohol Fixation

25.

applied after the crystal violet to chemically bond the alkaline dye to the iodine, forming a CV-I complex and cross-linking the complex in the bacterial cell wall

a)

Primary Stain

b)

Methanol

c)

Mordant

d)

Gram-negative

26.

stain the colorless gram-negative bacteria pink

or red

a)

Safranin

b)

95% Methanol

c)

Mordant

d)

Iodine

27.

extensive teichoic acid cross-links contribute to the ability of GRAM-POSITIVE organisms to resist alcohol decolorization

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

c)

BAYOT KAPOY

d)

TF

28.

What is a bacterial colony?

a)

solidifying gel-like agent used for growth media

b)

a technique used to thin out bacterial growth

c)

a visible clump of bacterial growth on an agar plate separate from other areas of growth

d)

a population of microorganisms grown under well-defined conditions

29.

What is a bacterial culture?

a)

solidifying gel-like agent used for growth media

b)

a technique used to thin out bacterial growth into separate areas

c)

a visible clump of bacterial growth on an agar plate separate from other areas of growth

d)

a population of microorganisms grown under well-defined conditions

30.

Cultural morphology refers to...

a)

the physical shape and appearance of the bacterial growth on an agar plate

b)

the presence of a bacterial colony

c)

a pure culture that contains only one type of bacteria

d)

a procedure performed under sterile conditions

31.

Which cellular morphology appears as a small circle?

a)

coccus

b)

bacillus

c)

spirillium

32.

Which cellular morphology appears as elongated, oval, or "rod" shaped?

a)

coccus

b)

bacillus

c)

spirillium

33.

This type of bacteria forms long chains...

a)

micrococcus

b)

diplococcus

c)

staphylococcus

d)

streptococcus

34.

This type of bacteria forms in large bunches like grapes...

a)

micrococcus

b)

diplococcus

c)

staphylococcus

d)

streptococcus

35.

A procedure in which all cells are stained the same color...

a)

simple stain

b)

differential stain

c)

primary stain

d)

counterstain

36.

A staining technique used to categorize cells based on how they react to dyes in certain stains.

a)

simple stain

b)

differential stain

c)

primary stain

d)

counterstain

37.

Gram - bacteria will take the color of which stain?

a)

simple stain

b)

differential stain

c)

primary stain

d)

counterstain

38.

Gram + bacteria will take the color of which stain?

a)

simple stain

b)

differential stain

c)

primary stain

d)

counterstain

39.

What chemical is used as the primary stain in a Gram stain?

a)

crystal violet

b)

iodine

c)

alcohol

d)

safranin

40.

What chemical is used as the counterstain during Gram staining?

a)

crystal violet

b)

iodine

c)

alcohol

d)

safranin

41.

What is Gram's Iodine used for during Gram staining?

a)

primary stain

b)

counterstain

c)

fixative / mordant

d)

decolorizer

42.

Which best describes the bacteria shown in the picture?

a)

Gram - streptococcus

b)

Gram - bacillus

c)

Gram + streptococcus

d)

Gram + bacillus

43.

What teichoic acid containing macromolecule in the cell wall does the primary stain bind to in Gram + bacteria?

a)

sucrose

b)

peptidoglycan

c)

lipids

d)

protein

44.

The E. Coli bacteria pictured can be classified as...

a)

Gram + bacillus

b)

Gram - bacillus

c)

Gram + streptococcus

d)

Gram - staphylococcus

45.

Select all that describes the photo

a)

Gram positive cocci in clusters

b)

Decolorizer used is Acid Alcohol

c)

Possibly Streptococci

d)

Primary Stain is Safranin

46.
What is the flagella used for?
a)
eating
b)
reproduction
c)
movement
d)
communicating
47.
The bacteria cell has a nucleus.
a)
True
b)
False
48.
Name this bacteria shape
a)
coccus
b)
bacillus
c)
spirillum
49.
Bacteria are unicellular
a)
True
b)
False
50.
All bacteria are harmful to humans
a)
True
b)
False
51.
Prokaryotes are unlike all other organisms in that their cells 
a)
do not have a nucleus
b)
have organelles
c)
have cell walls
d)
have ribosomes
52.
Which of the following is a carbohydrate covering used for protection and attachment?
a)
Cell Wall
b)
Cell Membrane
c)
Capsule
d)
Flagella
53.
Bacteria are considered non-living.
a)
True
b)
False
54.
Both prokaryotes and eukaryotes have membrane bound organelles.
a)
True
b)
False
55.
Only Eukaryotes have a nucleus
a)
True
b)
False
56.

Gram stain takes full advantage of the

waxy content of the cell walls to maximize detection

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

c)

Char ! Umabot dito

57.

Kinyoun Acid-fast Method requires heat to allow the primary stain (carbolfuchsin) to enter the wax-containing cell wall

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

58.

Phase-contrast microscopy DOES USE a fixed smear preparation

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

59.

raised to a higher energy level after absorbing ultraviolet (excitation) light

a)

Flurophores

b)

Methylene Blue

c)

Methanol

d)

Mordant

60.

When the dye molecules return to their normal, lower energy state, they release excess energy in the form of visible light.

a)

Quenching

b)

Photobleaching

c)

Fluorescence

d)

Immunofluorescence

61.

permanent loss of fluorescence as a result of

chemical damage to the fluorochrome

a)

Quenching

b)

Epifluorescence

c)

Immunofluorescence

d)

Photobleaching

62.

result of the transfer of the light energy to nearby molecules in the sample such as free radicals, salts of heavy metals, or halogens

a)

Quenching

b)

Epifluorescence

c)

Immunofluorescence

d)

Photobleaching

63.

Fluorochrome acridine orange does not bind to nucleic acid.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

64.

The waxy mycolic acids in the cell walls of mycobacteria

have an affinity for:

a)

Acridine Orange

b)

Auramine-Rhodamine

c)

Calcofluor White

65.

The mycobacterial cells appear bright pink or red against a greenish background

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

66.

The cell walls of fungi will bind the stain:

a)

Acridine Orange

b)

Auramine-Rhodamine

c)

Calcofluor White

67.

the condenser does not allow light to pass directly through the specimen but directs the light to hit the specimen at an oblique angle

a)

Electron Microscopy

b)

Dark-Field Microscopy

c)

Phase-Contrast Microscopy

d)

Bright-Field Microscopy

68.

grow at the bottom of the broth tube

a)

Semi-solid Medium

b)

Agarose

c)

Anaerobes

d)

Aerobes

69.

grow near the surface

a)

Agarose

b)

Semi-solid Medium

c)

Anaerobes

d)

Aerobes

70.

The most common solidifying agent, has the unique property of melting at high temperatures (95°C) but resolidifying after the temperature falls below 50°C

a)

Agar

b)

Anaerobes

c)

Aerobes

d)

Agarose

71.

The agarose-containing medium forms a stable solid gel referred to as:

a)

Agar

b)

Anaerobes

c)

Aerobes

d)

Agarose

72.

The resulting bacterial population is

considered to be derived from a single bacterial cell and is

known as:

a)

Agar

b)

Pure Colony

c)

Esculin

d)

Bile

73.

This media type is used to enhance the growth

of a particular bacterial pathogen from a mixture of organisms by providing specific nutrients for the organism’s growth.

a)

Enrichment Media

b)

Nutritive Media

c)

Selective Media

d)

ZzZZzzZz

74.

_______ media contain specific nutrients required for the growth of particular bacterial pathogens that may be present alone or with other bacterial species in a patient specimen.

a)

Enrichment Media

b)

Nutritive Media

c)

Selective Media

d)

Kaya pAh ?!

75.

_______ media contain one or more agents that are inhibitory to all organisms except those chosen by the specific growth condition or chemical.

a)

Enrichment Media

b)

Nutritive Media

c)

Selective Media

76.

_______ media contain nutrients that support growth

of most nonfastidious organisms without giving any particular organism a growth advantage

a)

Enrichment Media

b)

Nutritive Media

c)

Selective Media

77.

Smears used as the tool for preparation of swabs from thick liquid or semisolid specimens such as feces

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

78.

“Thin” specimens of fluids such as urine, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), and transudates should not be dropped but spread on the slide.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

79.

an excellent method for preparing nonviscous fluids such

as CSF and bronchoalveolar lavage fluids

a)

Smear

b)

Gram Stain

c)

Centrifugation

d)

Cytocentrifugation

80.

A cytocentrifuge with an opened bowl is preferred for microbiology.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

81.

directed toward coloring the forms and shapes present

a)

Simple Stain

b)

Differential Stain

c)

Probe-mediated Stain

d)

WRONG DECISION TO CREATE THIS QUIZZZ !!

82.

directed specifically at identification of an organism

a)

Simple Stain

b)

Differential Stain

c)

Probe-mediated Stain

83.

directed toward coloring specific components of the elements present

a)

Simple Stain

b)

Differential Stain

c)

Probe-mediated Stain

84.

Purulence with red blood cells, neutrophils, protein background, and necrosis reflects acute inflammation.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

85.

Mononuclear cells, including lymphocytes, monocytes, and macrophages, reflect chronic inflammation.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

86.

partial lysing of RBCs in an SBA plate around and under the

colony that results in a green discoloration of the medium

a)

α-Hemolysis

b)

β-Hemolysis

87.

complete clearing of erythrocytes in SBA around or under the colonies because of the complete lysis of RBCs

a)

α-Hemolysis

b)

β-Hemolysis

88.

is a hazy blanket of growth on the surface that extends

well beyond the streak lines

a)

CHOC Agar

b)

Swarming

c)

Margin

d)

MAGIC !

89.

P. aeruginosa color pigment

a)

Blue

b)

Pink

c)

Green

d)

Yellow

e)

Red

90.

Serratia rubidaea color pigment

a)

Green

b)

Yellow

c)

Bright Red

d)

Brick Red

91.

Chromobacterium violaceum color pigment

a)

Brown-black

b)

Purple

c)

Pink

d)

Yellow

92.

Kluyvera spp. color pigment

a)

Brick Red

b)

Green

c)

Blue

d)

Purple

93.

Prevotella melaninogenica color pigment

a)

Brown-Black

b)

Brick Red

c)

Bright Red

d)

White

94.

serve as a transport enzyme that facilitates entry of the lactose molecule across the bacterial plasma membrane

a)

β-galactoside permease

b)

β-galactosidase

c)

Lactose

d)

Lactose Fermenters

95.

the enzyme that hydrolyzes lactose into glucose and galactose

a)

β-galactoside permease

b)

β-galactosidase

c)

Lactose

d)

Lactose Fermenters

96.

The end product of carbohydrate fermentation

a)

Acid

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Protein

d)

Methanol

97.

He proposed a contagium vivum as a possible cause of infections disease.

a)

Von Plenciz (1762)

b)

Fracastorius of Verona (1546)

c)

Edward Jenner

d)

Robert Hooke

98.

The term microbiology was given by:

a)

Francesco Redi

b)

Antonie Van Leeuwenhoek

c)

Sedillot

d)

Louis Pasteur

99.

The term microbe was first used by

a)

Antonie Van Leeuwenhoek

b)

Francesco Redi

c)

Sedillot

d)

Louis Pasteur

100.

“Father of microbiology”

a)

Louis Pasteur

b)

Sedillot

c)

Antonie Van Leeuwenhoek

d)

Francesco Redi

101.

father of bacteriology and protozoology (protistology)

a)

Antonie Van Leeuwenhoek

b)

Francesco Redi

c)

Louis Pasteur

d)

John Needham

102.

The ancient belief in spontaneous generation was first of all challenged by _______, who carried out a series of experiments on decaying meat and its ability to produce maggots spontaneously.

a)

John Snow

b)

Lazzaro Spallanzani

c)

Francesco Redi

d)

Nicolas Appert

103.

He boiled beef broth for longer period, removed the air from the flask and then sealed the container. Followed incubation no growth was observed by him in these flasks. He showed that the heated nutrients could still grow animalcules when exposed to air by simply making a small crack in the neck.

a)

Francesco Redi

b)

John Needham

c)

Jeffree Star

d)

Lazzaro Spallanzani

104.

He proposed that tiny organisms the animalcules arose spontaneously on his mutton gravy. He covered the flasks with cork as done by Redi and even heated some flasks. Still the microbes appeared on mutton broth.

a)

Francesco Redi

b)

Lazzaro Spallanzani

c)

John Needham

d)

Ignaz Semmelweis

105.

He was a French wine maker who showed that soups and liquids can be preserved by heating them extensively in thick champagine bottles.

a)

Lazzaro Spallanzani

b)

Nicolas Appert

c)

Goerge Schroeder

d)

Ignaz Semmelweis

106.

were the two persons who showed a growing awareness of the mode of disease transmission

a)

Schulze

b)

Theodor Schwan

c)

John Snow

d)

Geroge Schroeder

e)

Ignaz Semmelweis

107.

Two German scholars viewed that air was the source of microbes and sought to prove this by passing air through hot glass tubes or strong chemicals into boiled infusions in flasks. The infusion in both the cases remained free from the microbes.

a)

Ignaz Semmelweis

b)

Schulze

c)

Theodor Von Dusch

d)

Theodor Schwan

e)

George Schroeder

108.

were the first to introduce the idea of using cotton plugs for plugging microbial culture tubes

a)

Darwin

b)

Theodor Von Dusch

c)

Schulze

d)

George Schroeder

e)

John Tyndall

109.

in his book, ‘Origin of the Species’ showed that the human body could be conceived as a creature susceptible to the laws of nature.

a)

Darwin

b)

Nicolas Appert

c)

Louis Pasteur

d)

Robert Koch

e)

John Tyndall

110.

He conducted experiments in an aseptically designed box to prove that dust indeed carried the germs. He discovered highly resistant bacterial structure, later known as endospore, in the infusion of hay. Prolonged boiling or intermittent heating was necessary to kill these spores, to make the infusion completely sterilized.

a)

Louis Pasteur

b)

John Tyndall

c)

Robert Koch

d)

Fanne Eilshemius Hesse

111.

He gave the first direct demonstration of the role of bacteria in causing disease. He was a german physician who first of all isolated anthrax bacillus (Bacillus anthracis, the cause of anthrax) in 1876. He perfected the technique of isolating bacteria in pure culture. He also introduced the use of solid culture media in 1881 by using gelatin as a solidifying agent. In 1882 he discovered Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

a)

Louis Pasteur

b)

Robert Koch

c)

Fanne Eilshemius Hesse

d)

Lord Joseph Lister

112.

one of Koch’s assistant first proposed the use of agar in culture media

a)

Fannie Hesse

b)

Richard Petri

c)

Fanne Eilshemius Hesse

d)

Lord Joseph Lister

113.

A famous English surgeon is known for his notable contribution to the antiseptic treatment for the prevention and cure of wound infections.

a)

Louis Pasteur

b)

Buknoy

c)

Lord Joseph Lister

d)

Edward Jenner

114.

He used pus from cowpox scabs to vaccinate people against smallpox.

a)

Emile Roux

b)

Elie Metchnikoff

c)

Edward Jenner

d)

Robert Koch

115.

"Father of Antiseptic surgery"

a)

Edward Jenner

b)

Lord Joseph Lister

c)

Elie Metchnikoff

d)

Emile Roux

116.

both colleagues of Robert Koch, in 1890 discovered tetanus (lock jaw) antitoxin

a)

Emile Roux

b)

Emil Von Behring

c)

Alexandre Yersin

d)

Shibasaburo Kitasato

e)

Paul Ehrlich

117.

the two notable French bacteriologists demonstrated the production of toxin in filtrates of broth cultures of the diphtheria organism

a)

Shibasaburo Kitasato

b)

Alexandre Yersin

c)

Gerhard Domagk

d)

Therese Trefonel

e)

Emile Roux

118.

in 1904 found that the dye Trypan Red was active against the trypanosome that causes African sleeping sickness and could be used therapeutically. This dye with antimicrobial activity was referred to as a ‘magic bullet’.

a)

Gerhard Domagk

b)

Sakahiro Hata

c)

Alexander Fleming

d)

Paul Ehrlich

e)

Waksman

119.

Ehrlich in collaboration with ________, introduced the drug Salvarsan (arsenobenzol) as a treatment for syphilis caused by Treponema pallidum.

a)

Louis Pasteur

b)

Waksman

c)

Gerhard Domagk

d)

Sakahiro Hata

e)

Edward Tyndall

120.

in 1935 experimented with numerous synthetic dyes and reported that Prontosil, a red dye used for staining leather, was active against pathogenic, Streptococci and Staphylococci in mice even though it had no effect against that same infectious agent in a test tube. He was awarded nobel prize in 1939 for the discovery of the first sulpha drug.

a)

Alexander Fleming

b)

Louis Pasteur

c)

Waksman

d)

Gerhard Domagk

e)

Jacques

121.

The credit for the discovery of this first ‘wonder drug’ penicillin in 1929 goes to:

a)

Johnny Depp

b)

Finlay

c)

Alexander Fleming

d)

Waksman

e)

Robert Koch

122.

received the noble prize in 1952 for his discovery of Streptomycin used in the treatment of tuberculosis, a bacterial disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis that had been discovered by Robert Koch in 1882

a)

Waksman

b)

Robert Koch

c)

Dr. Paul R. Burkholder

d)

Edward Tyndall

e)

Alexander Fleming

123.

are eukaryotic microorganisms that include multicellular molds and unicellular (single‐celled) yeasts.

a)

Fungi

b)

Bacteria

c)

Yeast

d)

Protozoa

124.

are slightly larger than bacteria and are used in alcoholic fermentations and bread making. Certain yeasts such as Candida albicans are pathogenic (disease causing)

a)

Yeast

b)

Protozoa

c)

Fungi

d)

Molds

125.

are relatively simple, prokaryotic organisms whose cells lack a nucleus or nuclear membrane.

a)

Fungi

b)

Bacteria

c)

Molds

d)

Protozoa

126.

______ reproduce by binary fission, have unique constituents in their cell walls, and exist in most environments on earth.

a)

Bacteria

b)

Protozoa

c)

Molds

d)

ICE CREAM BP

e)

Algae

127.

are filamentous, branched fungi that use spores for reproduction. ______ prefer acidic environments, and most live at room temperature under oxygen‐rich conditions. The common mushroom is a fungus.

a)

Yeast

b)

Molds

c)

Protozoa

d)

Algae

128.

______ are eukaryotic, unicellular organisms. _____ exist in an infinite variety of shapes because they have no cell walls.

a)

Protozoa

b)

Algae

c)

Bacteria

d)

Fungi

129.

____ are ultramicroscopic bits of genetic material (DNA or RNA) enclosed in a protein shell and, sometimes, a membranous envelope.

a)

Viruses

b)

Algae

c)

Fungi

d)

Molds

130.

relate to an organism’s genetic makeup, including the nature of the organism’s genes and constituent nucleic acids

a)

Microbial Identification

b)

Genotypic Characteristics

c)

Phenotypic Characteristics

d)

Nomenclature

131.

based on features beyond the genetic level, including both readily observable characteristics and features that may require extensive analytic procedures to be detected

a)

Genotypic Characteristics

b)

Microbial Identification

c)

Phenotypic Characteristics

d)

Taxonomy

132.

are capable of replication independently of the host chromosome

a)

Plasmids

b)

Episomes

c)

Simple Transposon

d)

Composite Transposon

133.

are limited to containing the genes that encode information required for are limited to containing the genes that encode information required for

a)

Replication

b)

Insertion Sequence

c)

Composite Transposon

d)

Replication Fork

134.

are cassettes (grouping of genes) flanked by insertion sequences

a)

Replication

b)

Simple Transposon

c)

RNA polymerase

d)

Composite Transposon

135.

(a specific sequence of approximately 300 base pairs) is recognized by several initiation proteins, followed by the separation of the complementary strands of parental DNA

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Sigma Factors

c)

Origin of Replication

d)

Promoter Sequence

136.

When a cluster of genes is under the control of a single promoter sequence, the gene group is referred to as an:

a)

Polycistronic

b)

Operon

c)

Codons

d)

RNA Polymerase

137.

The code consists of triplets of nucleotide bases, referred to as: ________ encodes for a specific amino acid.

a)

Operon

b)

Anticodon

c)

Codon

d)

Ribosomes

138.

its appearance resembles a string of pearls.

a)

Operon

b)

Codon

c)

Polysome

d)

Microsomes

139.

________ is defined as an alteration in the original nucleotide sequence of a gene or genes within an organism’s genome; that is, a change in the organism’s genotype.

a)

Mutagens

b)

Phenotype

c)

Genetic Exchange

d)

Genetic Combination

e)

Mutation

140.

______ is a molecular event that occurs frequently in many varieties of bacteria, including most of the clinically relevant species, and it may involve any portion of the organism’s genome.

a)

Mutation

b)

Genetic Exchange

c)

Recombination

d)

Transformation

141.

_____ involves recipient cell uptake of naked (free) DNA released into the environment when another bacterial cell (i.e., the donor) dies and undergoes lysis.

a)

Genes

b)

Transformation

c)

Transduction

d)

Conjugation

142.

is a second mechanism by which DNA from two bacteria may come together in one cell, thus allowing for recombination. This process is mediated through viruses capable of infecting bacteria.

a)

Transformation

b)

Recombination

c)

Transduction

d)

Conjugation

143.

This process occurs between two living cells, involves cell-to-cell contact, and requires mobilization of the donor bacterium’s chromosome.

a)

Transformation

b)

Transduction

c)

Conjugation

d)

Transposition

144.

When oxidative phosphorylation uses oxygen as the terminal electron acceptor, the process is known as:

a)

Anaerobic Respiration

b)

Oxidation Phosphorylation

c)

Aerobic Respiration

d)

Fueling

145.

are unable to grow in the absence of oxygen

a)

Aerobic

b)

Anaerobic

c)

Strictly Anaerobic Bacteria

d)

Strictly Aerobic Bacteria

e)

Facultative Bacteria

146.

depending on the availability of oxygen

a)

Strictly Anaerobic Bacteria

b)

Facultative Anaerobic Bacteria

c)

Strictly Aerobic Bacteria

d)

Anaerobic Respiration

147.

oxygen is absolutely toxic

a)

Strictly Anaerobic Bacteria

b)

Facultative Anaerobic Bacteria

c)

Anaerobic Respiration

d)

Aerobic Respiration

e)

Strictly Aerobic Bacteria

148.

refers to processes that use final electron acceptors other than oxygen

a)

Anaerobic Respiration

b)

Anabolic Metabolism

c)

Polymmerization

d)

Aerobic Respiration

149.

modification of substances and transport throughout the cell, including internal delivery of molecules, and exocytosis or secretion of other molecules

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

c)

Lysosomes

d)

Golgi Body

e)

Cytoskeleton

150.

process and transport proteins

a)

Nucleus

b)

Lysosomes

c)

Cytoskeleton

d)

Peptidoglycan

e)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

151.

generate energy (ATP)

a)

Nucleus

b)

Golgi Bodies

c)

Cell Wall

d)

Mitochondria

152.

provide an environment for controlled enzymatic degradation of intracellular substances

a)

Peptidoglycan

b)

Lysosomes

c)

Anabolic

d)

Prions

153.

provide a membrane enclosure for chromosomes

a)

Prions

b)

Nucleus

c)

Fusiform

d)

Outer Membrane

154.

which are abnormal infectious proteins, are also not considered living cells

a)

Parasite

b)

Fusisform

c)

Outer Membrane

d)

Porins

e)

Prions

155.

are hairlike, proteinaceous structures that extend from the cell membrane into the external environment; some may be up to 2 um long

a)

Fimbriae

b)

Flagella

c)

Endospore

d)

Nucleoid

156.

________ Flagella

a)

Amphitrichous

b)

Monotrichous

c)

Lophotrichous

d)

Peritrichous

157.

______________ Flagella

a)

Peritrichous

b)

Monotrichous

c)

Amphitrichous

d)

Lophotrichous

158.

_____________ Flagella

a)

Monotrichous

b)

Lophotrichous

c)

Amphitrichous

d)

Peritrichous

159.

Disinfection is a process that kills all forms of microbial life, including bacterial endospores. Sterilization is a process that destroys pathogenic organisms, but not necessarily all microorganisms, endospores, or prions.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

160.

__________ is a method of treating infectious waste. It is the safest method to ensure that no infective materials remain in samples or containers when disposed.

a)

Moist Heat

b)

Incineration

c)

Filtration

d)

Ionizing Filtration

161.

is used to sterilize biohazardous trash and heat-stable objects; an autoclave is used for this purpose.

a)

Moist Heat

b)

Incineration

c)

Dry Heat

d)

Ionizing Radiation

162.

requires longer exposure times (1.5 to 3 hours) and higher temperatures than moist heat (160° to 180°C). It is used to sterilize items such as glassware, oil, petrolatum, or powders.

a)

Moist Heat

b)

Incineration

c)

Dry Heat

d)

Filtration

163.

is the method of choice for antibiotic solutions, toxic chemicals, radioisotopes, vaccines, and carbohydrates, which are all heat sensitive.

a)

Moist Heat

b)

Incineration

c)

Dry Heat

d)

Filtration

164.

Disinfectants used on living tissue (skin) are called:

a)

Antiseptic

b)

Ether-Ethyl Alcohol

c)

Hypochlorite Solution

d)

Ethyl Alcohol

165.

allow room (unsterilized) air to pass into the cabinet and around the area and material within, sterilizing only the air to be exhausted

a)

Class 1 Cabinets

b)

Class 2 Cabinets

c)

Class 3 Cabinets

d)

Class 4 Cabinets

166.

Air coming into and going out of the cabinet is filter sterilized, and the infectious material within is handled with rubber gloves that are attached and sealed to the cabinet

a)

Class 1 Cabinets

b)

Class 2 Cabinets

c)

Class 3 Cabinets

d)

Class 4 Cabinets

167.

sterilize air that flows over the infectious material, as well as air to be exhausted. The air flows in “sheets,” which serve as barriers to particles from outside the cabinet and direct the flow of contaminated air into the filters

a)

Class 1 Cabainets

b)

Class 2 Cabinets

c)

Class 3 Cabinets

d)

Class 4 Cabinets

168.

agents are those most commonly being sought in clinical specimens and used in diagnostic, teaching, and other laboratories

a)

BSL 1

b)

BSL 2

c)

BSL 3

d)

BSL 4

169.

agents are exotic agents that are considered high risk and cause life-threatening disease

a)

BSL 1

b)

BSL 2

c)

BSL 3

d)

BSL 4

170.

agents include those that have no known potential for infecting healthy people and are well defined and characterized

a)

BSL 1

b)

BSL 2

c)

BSL 3

d)

BSL 4

171.

procedures have been recommended for the handling of material suspected of harboring organisms unlikely to be encountered in a routine clinical laboratory and for such organisms as Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Coxiella burnetii, and the mold stages of systemic fungi and for some other organisms when grown in quantities greater than that found in patient specimens

a)

BSL 1

b)

BSL 2

c)

BSL 3

d)

BSL 4

172.

grow in ambient air, which contains 21% oxygen (O2 ) and a small amount (0.03%) of carbon dioxide (CO2 ).

a)

Anaerobes

b)

Aerobes

c)

Microaerophiles

173.

cannot grow in the presence of O2 , and the atmosphere in anaerobe jars, bags, or chambers is composed of 5% to 10% hydrogen (H2 ), 5% to 10% CO2 , 80% to 90% nitrogen (N2 ), and 0% O2

a)

Anaerobes

b)

Aerobes

c)

Capnophiles

d)

Microaerophiles

174.

require increased concentrations of CO2 (5% to 10%) and approximately 15% O2

a)

Anaerobes

b)

Aerobes

c)

Capnophiles

d)

Microaerophiles

175.

grow under reduced O2 (5% to 10%) and increased CO2 (8% to 10%)

a)

Anaerobes

b)

Aerobes

c)

Capnophiles

d)

Microaerophiles