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Mid Block 1.1

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The structures that cap the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes are called

a)

Centromeres

b)

Histones

c)

Motorists’ spindles

d)

Telomeres

2.

Which one of the following tissues is composed of cellular sheets that line the cavities of organs and cover the body surface?

a)

Connective tissue

b)

Epithelial tissue

c)

Muscle tissue

d)

Nerve tissue

3.

the most efficient control of eukaryotic gene expression is achieved at the level:

a)

Post translation

b)

Post transcription

c)

Replication

d)

Transcription initiation

4.

If the cell membrane is pierced the cell membrane will undergo which of the following phenomenon:

a)

Collapse

b)

Expand

c)

Reseal

5.

Which one of the following is the first step to select P-drug?

a)

Define the diagnosis

b)

Specify therapeutic objective

c)

Give information, instructions and warning

6.

Which term describe the lysosome digest its own components:

a)

Autophagy

b)

Hypertrophy

c)

Atrophy

7.

Ruffled border is surrounded with clear cytoplasmic zone and has highly actin filament, is characteristic for??

a)

Osteoclast

b)

Osteocytes

c)

Osteoblast

8.

Which of the following is an example of stratified squamous epithelium?

a)

Blood vessels lining

b)

Epidermis of skin

c)

Mouth mucous membrane

d)

Salivary glands excretory ducts lining

9.

Healing of large, gaping wound takes place by which of the following:

a)

Callus formation

b)

First intention

c)

Granuloma formation

d)

Second intention

10.

Type of cells involved in the process of laying down new bone?

a)

Osteoblast

b)

Osteoclasts

c)

Osteocyte

11.

Solute move down the concentration gradient by using carrier protein in...

a)

Facilitated diffusion

b)

Primary active transport

c)

Second active transport

d)

Simple diffusion

12.

Which patient has eosinophilia?

a)

Patient 1

b)

Patient 2

c)

Patient 3

d)

Patient 4

13.

Which of the following foramina contains spinal cord meninges and cerebrospinal fluid?

a)

Intervertebral

b)

Vertebral

14.

The translation occur in which site:

a)

Inner membrane of nuclear envelop

b)

Inner membrane of mitochondria

c)

Nucleolus

d)

Ribosomes

15.

A 52 old man, with a high fever, cough with reproductive yellowish sputum for 2 days. On examination he is febrile, his chest auscultation revealed crackles in both lung bases, chest x-ray showed patchy pulmonary infiltrate. Thoracentesis ridded 500 ml of cloudy fluid. Which inflammatory cell are more likely to be seen in

sputum examination?

a)

Macrophage

b)

Mast cells

c)

Neutrophils

d)

Small lymphocyte

16.

Teenager girl with a history of repeated eruption of painful pustules on the face is due to which of the following?

a)

A cut inflammation

b)

Allergy to cosmetics

c)

Chronic inflammation

d)

Sunburn

17.

What is related to monocytes differentiation?

a)

Macrophage

b)

Basophils

18.

What is the main function of mitochondria?

a)

ATP production

b)

Protein synthesize

c)

Intracellular digestion

d)

Phospholipid synthesize

19.

Monocyte differentiate into which of the following types of cell:

a)

B lymphocyte

b)

Macrophage

c)

Mesenchymal cell

d)

Plasma cell

20.

Which of blood component promote blood clotting?

a)

Basophiles

b)

Lymphocyte

c)

Platelet

21.

Which one of the following tissues is composed of cellular sheets that line the cavities of organs and cover the body surface?

a)

Connective tissue

b)

Epithelial tissue

c)

Nerve tissue

22.

What is the structure that binds epithelial cells with the underlying basal lamina?

a)

Anchoring fibrils of collagen 7

b)

Desmosome

c)

Hemidesmosome

23.

Which of the following cartilages is characterized by more acidophilic matrix?

a)

Elastic

b)

Fibro

c)

Hyaline

24.

Which one of types of the cells is involved in process of lining new bone?

a)

Osteoblasts

b)

Osteocytes

c)

Osteoclasts

25.

Which one of the following is most abundant inorganic material on the bone?

a)

Calcium hydroxide

b)

Magnesium

c)

Potassium

26.

What type of the joint is between two vertebral?

a)

Fibrous joint

b)

Cartilaginous joint

c)

Synovial joint

27.

Which of the following curves is an exaggeration of the normal thoracic curve?

a)

Kyphosis

b)

Lordosis

c)

Scoliosis

28.

Antagonist characterize as:

a)

Has an affinity and efficacy.

b)

Has an efficacy without affinity.

c)

Has affinity without efficacy.

d)

Duplicate the effect.

29.

In treating a patient with hypertension, the first step for choosing p-drug is:

a)

Cost

b)

Efficacy

c)

Safety

30.

Which is the correct characteristic of the plasma membrane?

a)

Non-polar tail which is hydrophobic

b)

Non-polar tails outward

c)

The phospholipids are monolayer

d)

Non polar head is amphipathic

31.

One sided transportation of a single molecule across cell membrane is called:

a)

Antiport

b)

Symport

c)

Uniport

32.

A survival mechanism by which deprived nutrition targets cell to digest it own contents by which process?

a)

Autophagy

b)

Heterophony

33.

The commonest cause of death (fetal) in burns patient

a)

Hypovolemic shock

b)

Inhalation injury

c)

Organs failure and sepsis

d)

Pulmonary edema

34.

More intense inflammatory phase is a feature of:

a)

Healing by first intention

b)

Healing by second intention

c)

Remodeling

d)

Scarring

35.

Which one of the following phase of fracture healing appears first?

a)

Bonny callus

b)

Cartilage

c)

Soft callus

d)

Woven bone

36.

Angiogenesis is important for which steps of wound?

a)

Formation of granulation

b)

Information

c)

Scar formation

d)

Remolding

37.

Nucleotide sequence in DNA to which RNA polymerase binds to begin transcription is called:

a)

Enhancer

b)

Exon

c)

Promoter

d)

Silencer

38.

During transcription, the growing RNA chain is extended by one nucleotide at a time in which of the following direction?

a)

5’end to 3’ end

b)

3’ end to 5’ end

c)

Both directions

39.

Which of the patterns of gene expression can transmit the cell memory from the parent to the daughter cell without altering the actual neclutide sequence of the DNA?

a)

DNA modifications

b)

DNA replication

c)

Positive feedback loop

d)

RNA replication

40.

What does the term GENOME refer to?

a)

All of the expressed in an organism.

b)

The set of genes turned on in an organism, tissue, or cell.

c)

The total genetic information in an organ's dna.

41.

The enzyme responsible for unwinding DNA during replication:

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

Helicase

d)

Ligase

42.

In centrifugation, the platelets segregate in which part of tube?

a)

Buffy coat.

b)

Lower part.

c)

Upper part.

43.

Which of the following is a characteristic appearance of basophils?

a)

Granular covers nucleus.

b)

Granular in the periphery.

44.

What type of epithelia functions in facilitated the molecules and transport them?

a)

Simple squamous epithelium.

b)

Simple cuboidal epithelium.

c)

Simple columnar epithelium.

45.

Which type of cartilage makes up of epiglottis?

a)

Elastic.

b)

Fibrocartilage.

c)

Hyaline.

46.

Which of the following acts as a sensor that detects mechanical stresses on bone?

a)

Osteoblasts.

b)

Osteoclasts.

c)

Osteocytes.

d)

Osteoprogenitor cells.

47.

What is the first step of endochondral ossification?

a)

Collar formation.

b)

Osteocyte hypertrophy.

48.

Which of the following is the nearest zone to diaphysis?

a)

Resting zone.

b)

Calcification zone.

c)

Ossification zone.

d)

Proliferating zone.

49.

Langerhans cells are found mostly in which of the following layers:-

a)

Clear.

b)

Granular.

c)

Spinous.

d)

Basal.

50.

Which one of the following ligaments is the most commonly injured?

a)

Anterior talofibular.

b)

Calcenofibular.

c)

Tibiocalcenean.

51.

Integrity of which of the following ligaments can be examined by talar tilt test

a)

Anterior tibiotalar.

b)

Calcenofibular.

c)

Posterior talofibular.

d)

Tibiocalcenean.

52.

Which of the cell components lack cholesterol?

a)

Glycolipid.

b)

Phospholipid.

53.

The movement of water across the cell membrane within its concentration gradient.

a)

Facilitated diffusion.

b)

Osmosis.

c)

Primary active transport.

d)

Secondary active transport.

54.

At which of the following level can gene expressions start it regulation in eukaryotes?

a)

Destruction of mRNA.

b)

Passage of mRNA.

c)

Rate of protein synthesis through membrane.

d)

RNA splice.

55.

What are the features of full agnostic drugs?

a)

Affinity and high efficacy.

b)

Affinity without efficacy.

c)

Just efficacy.

d)

Affinity with low efficacy.

56.

Pharmacokinetics is defined as:

a)

The effect of the drug on the human body.

b)

The effect of the human body on the drug.

c)

The study of genetic influence.

57.

Which adaptation occurs in the cell changing columnar to squamous or squamous to columnar?

a)

Autophagy.

b)

Metaplasia.

c)

Atrophy.

d)

Hypertrophy.

58.

Which of the following mechanism is largely responsible for cell necrosis?

a)

Ca efflux.

b)

Enzymatic digestion.

c)

Fat deposition.

d)

Water imbibition.

59.

Irreversible injury in ischemia is due to:

a)

Increase aerobic respiration

b)

Increase Ca++ ions in the cytoplasm.

c)

Increase intracellular pH.

d)

Mitochondrial shrinkage.

60.

Which tissue is more sensitive of radiation?

a)

Bone marrow.

b)

Brain.

c)

Liver.

d)

Thyroid.

61.

Which are the earliest cells accumulate in the inflammation?

a)

Lymphocyte.

b)

Neutrophils.

c)

Eosinophils.

d)

Monocytes.

62.

The product of cyclooxygenase which acts for vasoconstriction is:

a)

Lipoxin.

b)

Lipoxygenase.

c)

Prostacyclin.

d)

Throbaxne-A2.

63.

Osteoblasts produce which of the following?

a)

Osteoid.

b)

Calcium.

c)

Monosodium rate.

d)

Pyrophosphate.

64.

Which of the following is a feature of osteoporosis?

a)

Increase susceptibility to fracture.

b)

Formation of subchondral cyst.

c)

Things and fibrillated cartilage.

65.

Regeneration of the injured labile area is characterized by which of the following:

a)

Formation of granulation tissue.

b)

Formation of different tissue.

c)

Formation of same tissue.

66.

Contraction of wounds is mediated by which of the following?

a)

Elastic.

b)

Collagen.

c)

Epithelial cells.

d)

Myofibroblasts.

67.

In centrifuge, buffy coat consist of:

a)

Serum.

b)

Plasma.

c)

RBCs.

d)

Leukocytes.

68.

Which of the following plasma proteins that controls osmotic pressure in the capillaries?

a)

Albumin.

b)

Globulin.

c)

Fibrinogen.

d)

Complement proteins.

69.

What of the following is a characteristic of pseudostratified epithelial?

a)

It is laying on basement membrane.

b)

All nuclei laying at the same level.

c)

It has more than one layer.

70.

One of the following is an example of dense regular connective tissue:

a)

All lymphatic organs except thymus.

b)

Tendon, ligament, aponeurosis.

c)

Submucosa of digastric tract.

d)

Liver, pancreas, kidney.

71.

Multilocular appearance is one of the characteristics of which of the following types of adipose cells (adipocyte)?

a)

Brown adipose.

b)

White adipose.

72.

Which one of the following types of cartilages contain large amount of collagen type 1?

a)

Elastic.

b)

Fibrocartilage.

c)

Hyaline.

73.

What is the first step in endochondral ossification?

a)

Calcification of matrix.

b)

Chondrocytes hypertrophy.

c)

Bone collar.

74.

The function of osteoblast is to produce:

a)

Osteoid.

b)

Calcium

75.

The body of talus forms which of the following articular surfaces of the ankle joint?

a)

Distal.

b)

Proximal.

76.

The integrity of which of the following ligaments can be examined by anterior drawer test?

a)

Anterior tibiotalar.

b)

Tibiocalcenean.

c)

Calcenofibular.

d)

Anterior talofibular.

77.

The abundant lipid in the cell membrane is:

a)

Phospholipid.

b)

Steroid.

c)

Tryglesrol.

d)

Glycolipids.

78.

The ATP Na-K pump will do after getting the energy:

a)

Increase the concentration of K.

b)

Increase the fluidity of the cell membrane.

c)

Make change in conformation of protein.

d)

Increase the mobility of DNA.

79.

Which of the following mediators of inflammation de novo are synthesized by leukocytes in response to stimulus?

a)

Complement.

b)

Histamine.

c)

Kinins.

d)

Prostaglandin.

80.

Pharmacodynamics is defined as:

a)

The effect of the drug on the human body.

b)

The effect of the human body on the drug.

c)

The study of genetic influence.

81.

The ability of drug to bind to its receptor is:

a)

Affinity.

b)

Bioavailability.

c)

Efficacy.

d)

Specificity.

82.

Which of the following activities is example of global health issues?

a)

Eradication of poliomyelitis.

b)

Large scale screen of eyes sight.

c)

Mass dosing of children against worms.

d)

Promotion of hand washing.

83.

Shrinkage in size is a characteristic of:

a)

Atrophy.

b)

Hypertrophy.

c)

Hyperplasia.

d)

Metaplasia.

84.

Ischemic reperfusion cell injury caused by which of these mechanism?

a)

Decrease inflammation.

b)

Increase antioxidants.

c)

Increase ROS regeneration.

d)

Inactivation of complement system.

85.

Which of the following is the commonest cause of fatality in burn patients?

a)

Hypovolemic shock.

b)

Inhalation injury.

c)

Organ system failure due to sepsis.

d)

Pulmonary edema.

86.

Which type of healing needs small granulation and minimal contraction?

a)

First intention.

b)

Second intention.

87.

Complex host protective response to eliminate initial cause of cell injury as well as necrotic cells is done by which of the following?

a)

Hyperplasia.

b)

Hypertrophy.

c)

Inflammation.

d)

Neoplasia.

88.

Which of the following a T-cell derived signal important for the activation of macrophages?

a)

IFN-Gamma.

b)

Nitric oxide.

c)

PAF

d)

ROS

89.

Which one of the following phase of fracture healing appear first?

a)

Bonny callus.

b)

Cartilage.

c)

Soft callus.

d)

Woven bone.

90.

Uninfected, surgically incised wound are characteristics of which of the following?

a)

First intention.

b)

Inflammation.

c)

Second intention.