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Cisco - ITN7 - Module 1 - 3 Review

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which are types of servers? (Choose two)

a)

File

b)

Web

c)

Discount

d)

Intermediary

e)

WLAN

2.

True or False: In a peer to peer network, a device can be both a client and a server.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

Having no centralized administration is an example of a disadvantage of what type of networking?

a)

Peer-to-peer

b)

Client-Server

c)

Wireless

d)

WAN

4.

Data is encoded over glass fibers using what method?

a)

Electrical impulses

b)

Light waves

c)

Frequencies of electromagnetic waves

d)

String theory

5.

Which are criteria for selecting network media?

a)

Distance

b)

Environment

c)

Cost

d)

Color

e)

Density

6.

What does SOHO stand for?

a)

Small Office Home Office

b)

Small Organization Heavy Operation

c)

Signal Often Has Outages

d)

Some Only Have Operators

7.

If a network has infrastructure providing access to users in a small geographic area, what kind of network is it?

a)

LAN

b)

WAN

c)

Metro-E

d)

WLAN

8.

What is the name for a private collection of LANs and WANs that are internal to a company and only accessible to the organization's members?

a)

Intranet

b)

Extranet

c)

Internet

d)

Botnet

9.

What is the name for a network that provides secure access to individuals who work for a separate organization than the one that owns the network?

a)

Intranet

b)

Extranet

c)

Internet

d)

Botnet

10.

Which internet access method uses coaxial cable?

a)

DSL

b)

Cable

c)

Dial-Up

d)

Cellular

11.

Which internet access method provides high bandwidth over telephone lines?

a)

DSL

b)

Cable

c)

Dial-Up

d)

Satellite

12.

Which internet access method requires a clear line of sight?

a)

DSL

b)

Cable

c)

Dial-Up

d)

Satellite

13.

Which network architecture characteristic protects from outside attacks?

a)

Fault Tolerance

b)

Scalability

c)

Quality of Service

d)

Security

14.

Which network architecture characteristic limits the impact of a failure by limiting the number of devices affected?

a)

Fault Tolerance

b)

Scalability

c)

Quality of Service

d)

Security

15.

Which network architecture characteristic allows the network to expand quickly to support new users with out degrading services to existing users?

a)

Fault Tolerance

b)

Scalability

c)

Quality of Service

d)

Security

16.

Which service would require QoS?

a)

IP telephone

b)

File transfer

c)

Email

d)

Encryption

17.

When ensuring only the intended recipient can read the data delivered we are referring to which goal of network security?

a)

Confidentiality

b)

Integrity

c)

Availability

d)

Authentication

18.

When ensuring that the data has not been altered during transmission we are referring to what goal of network security?

a)

Confidentiality

b)

Integrity

c)

Availability

d)

Authentication

19.

What technology allows the existing electrical wiring to provide network access?

a)

Powerline Networking

b)

Electrical Access Networking (EAS)

c)

EMF

d)

Power On Demand System (PODS)

20.

What is an internal threat to a network?

a)

DoS

b)

Lost Device

c)

Zero-Dat Attack

d)

Adware

21.

What are two basic security components for a small office network? (Choose Two)

a)

Antivirus

b)

Firewall

c)

Intrusion Detection System

d)

Access Control List

e)

Intrusion Prevention System

22.

For the command entry: show running-config, What part of the command structure is "show"?

a)

command

b)

attribute

c)

keyword

d)

prompt

23.

For the command entry: show running-config, What part of the command structure is "running-config"?

a)

command

b)

attribute

c)

keyword

d)

prompt

24.

Why should telnet only be used in limited applications?

a)

It is not secure

b)

It is difficult to setup

c)

It is no longer supported

d)

It costs more for the feature

25.

When in privileged Exec mode, what mode is one level lower?

a)

user Exec

b)

global configuration

c)

line configuration

d)

interface configuration

26.

When in privileged Exec mode, what mode is one level higher?

a)

user Exec

b)

global configuration

c)

line configuration

d)

interface configuration

27.

What does the prompt look like for privileged Exec mode?

a)

S1>

b)

S1#

c)

S1(config)#

d)

S1(config-if)#

28.

Which command moves you to the next lower level?

a)

exit

b)

end

c)

Ctrl+E

d)

Ctrl+D

29.

What key is pressed to scroll forward one page?

a)

space

b)

enter

c)

tab

d)

esc

30.

What key is pressed to scroll forward one page?

a)

space

b)

enter

c)

tab

d)

esc

31.

When typing a command and you want the system to finish your partial entry, you press which key?

a)

tab

b)

enter

c)

space

d)

esc

32.

To scroll through your previously entered commands you can press which key?

a)

up arrow

b)

tab

c)

right arrow

d)

space

33.

To use the break sequence when running a ping command you press which keys?

a)

Ctrl-Shift-6

b)

Ctrl-C

c)

Ctrl-Z

d)

Ctrl-E

34.

Which hostname is valid? (Choose two)

a)

Fl-1-SW-1

b)

Floor1!

c)

FL-1-SW

d)

Fl 1 SW

e)

FL(1)SW(1)

35.

This code secures which mode?

a)

user Exec

b)

privileged Exec

c)

Virtual Terminal

d)

global configfuration

36.

This code secures which mode?

a)

user Exec

b)

privileged Exec

c)

virtual terminal

d)

global configuration

37.

This code secures what?

a)

user Exec

b)

privileged Exec

c)

virtual terminal

d)

global configuration

38.

Which code encrypts your plaintext passwords?

a)

service password-encryption

b)

encrypt password all

c)

secure password

d)

password-secure encryption

39.

Where is the running-configuration stored?

a)

RAM

b)

NVRAM

c)

Flash

d)

HDD

40.

Where is the startup-configuration stored?

a)

RAM

b)

NVRAM

c)

Flash

d)

HDD

41.

Which command will copy your running-configuration to the startup-configuration

a)

copy running-config startup-config

b)

copy startup-config running-config

c)

copy running-config RAM

d)

copy running-config NVRAM

42.

If you made changes to the running-config that are not working and want to revert back, you can use which code to revert back to startup-config?

a)

reload

b)

no save

c)

restart

d)

refresh

43.

In order to remotely manage a switch you need to configure which port.

a)

Port 1

b)

VTY Port

c)

Console Port

d)

Port 24

44.

Is an SVI a physical port?

a)

Yes

b)

No

45.

What does this code accomplish?

a)

SVI configuration

b)

prevents the switch from shutting down

c)

makes the switch the default gateway

d)

allows the switch to route the 192.168.1.0 network

46.

What command will show the interface settings in a Cisco device?

a)

show ip interface brief

b)

show cisco interfaces

c)

show all interfaces

d)

show interface

47.

What are the rules that govern the sending of a message called?

a)

Protocols

b)

Encoding

c)

Encapsulation

d)

Sequencing

48.

_______________ is the process of converting information into another acceptable form for transmission.

a)

encoding

b)

protocol

c)

flow control

d)

unicast

49.

___________ defines how much information can e sent and the speed at which it can be delivered. If too much data is sent too quickly, it will be dropped.

a)

Flow Control

b)

Response Timeout

c)

Encoding

d)

Unicast

50.

If a host does not hear a response to a sent message it will use the ____________________ settings to determine how long to wait and what action to take.

a)

Flow Control

b)

Response Timeout

c)

Encoding

d)

Unicast

51.

When a message is sent from one device directly to another device, it is an example of ________________ delivery.

a)

unicast

b)

multicast

c)

broadcast

d)

supercast

52.

When a message is sent from one device to a group of other devices, it is an example of ________________ delivery.

a)

unicast

b)

multicast

c)

broadcast

d)

supercast

53.

When a message is sent from one device to all other devices on the network, it is an example of ________________ delivery.

a)

unicast

b)

multicast

c)

broadcast

d)

supercast

54.

What defines a common format and set of rules for exchanging messages between devices?

a)

Network Protocols

b)

Network Security

c)

Access Method

d)

Interoperability

55.

What are IP, TCP, and HTTP examples of?

a)

Network Communication Protocols

b)

Network Security Protocols

c)

Routing Protocols

d)

Service Discovery Protocols

56.

What are SSH, SSL, and TLS examples of?

a)

Network Communication Protocols

b)

Network Security Protocols

c)

Routing Protocols

d)

Service Discovery Protocols

57.

What are OSPF, RIP, and BGP examples of?

a)

Network Communication Protocols

b)

Network Security Protocols

c)

Routing Protocols

d)

Service Discovery Protocols

58.

What are DNS and DHCP examples of?

a)

Network Communication Protocols

b)

Network Security Protocols

c)

Routing Protocols

d)

Service Discovery Protocols

59.

What is a set of protocols that work together to provide comprehensive network communication services called?

a)

protocol suite

b)

protocol set

c)

protocol group

d)

protocol collective

60.

What is the name of the family of protocols developed by ISO and ITU? It included a seven-layer reference model.

a)

OSI protocols

b)

TCP/IP Protocols

c)

Apple Talk

d)

Novell NetWare

61.

Which protocols operate on the TCP/IP Application Layer? (Choose Three)

a)

DNS

b)

DHCP

c)

FTP

d)

TCP

e)

IPv4

62.

Which protocols operate on the TCP/IP Transport Layer? (Choose Two)

a)

TCP

b)

UDP

c)

FTP

d)

OSPF

e)

POP3

63.

Which protocols operate on the TCP/IP Internet Layer?

a)

IPv4

b)

OSPF

c)

TCP

d)

DNS

e)

FTP

64.

Which protocol is a TCP/IP Network Access Layer protocol?

a)

Ethernet

b)

IPv4

c)

TCP

d)

DNS

65.

What do open standards encourage? (Choose two)

a)

Interoperability

b)

Competition

c)

Ownership

d)

Stagnation

e)

Profit

66.

Which standards organization is responsible for promoting the open development and evolution of internet use throughout the world?

a)

ISOC

b)

IETF

c)

ICANN

d)

IANA

67.

Which standards organization is responsible for overseeing and managing IP address allocation for ICANN?

a)

ISOC

b)

IETF

c)

ICANN

d)

IANA

68.

Which standards organization is responsible for advancing technological standards in the area of electronics?

a)

ISOC

b)

IEEE

c)

IETF

d)

IANA

69.

Which standards organization developed the standard for Ethernet cabling?

a)

ISOC

b)

IEEE

c)

IETF

d)

TIA

70.

Which is the correct order for the OSI Model from top down?

a)

Application, Presentation, Session, Transport, Network, Data Link, Physical

b)

Presentation, Application, Session, Transport, Network, Data Link, Physical

c)

Application, Presentation, Transport, Session, Network, Data Link, Physical

d)

Presentation, Application, Transport, Session, Network, Data Link, Physical

e)

Application, Presentation, Network, Session, Transport, Data Link, Physical

71.

Which TCP/IP layer routes messages through an internetwork?

a)

internet

b)

transport

c)

application

d)

network access

72.

The OSI Network Layer maps directly to which TCP/IP Layer?

(a)  

73.

Placing one PDU inside another PDU is an example of what?

a)

encoding

b)

encapsulation

c)

encryption

d)

encyclopedia

74.

What is the PDU for the transport layer?

a)

segment

b)

packet

c)

frame

d)

data

e)

bits

75.

What is the PDU for the data link layer?

a)

segment

b)

packet

c)

frame

d)

data

e)

bits