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Air Law

Total questions: 76

Worksheet time: 1hrs 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The governing body of ICAO

a)

ICAO Assembly

b)

ICAO Council

c)

ICAO Secretariat

d)

GCAA

2.

According to the Chicago Convention, aircraft of Contracting States shall have the right to make flights into or in transit non-stop across the territory of other contracting States and to make stops for non-traffic purposes without the necessity of obtaining prior permission. This applies to the following flights:

a)

To aircraft on non-commercial flights only.

b)

To aircraft of scheduled air services only.

c)

To aircraft not engaged in scheduled international air services.

d)

To aircraft engaged in commercial non-scheduled flights only.

3.

For aircraft flying over the high seas, which rules shall be in force?

a)

The rules established by the state of registry of the aircraft.

b)

The rules established under the Convention of international civil aviation.

c)

The rules established by the state of the operator of the aircraft.

d)

The rules established by the state(s) adjacent to the high seas overflown.

4.

Which is the permanent body of ICAO being responsible to the Assembly?

a)

The Air Navigation Commission.

b)

The Secretary General of ICAO.

c)

The Council.

d)

The President of the Assembly

5.

Which of the following ICAO documents contain International Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPS)?

a)

Annexes to the Convention on international civil aviation.

b)

Procedures for Air Navigation Services (PANS).

c)

Regional Supplementary Procedures (SUPPS).

d)

ICAO Technical Manuals.

6.

Annex 14 to the convention on international civil aviation contains SARPS for

a)

Security

b)

Aerodromes

c)

Facilitation

d)

none of the above.

7.

The privilege to land for non-traffic purposes, e.g. refuelling, maintenance is to

following freedom of the air:

a)

2nd freedom.

b)

1st freedom.

c)

3rd freedom.

d)

4th freedom.

8.

Which convention deals with the unification of rules related to damage caused by aircraft to third parties on the surface?

a)

The Rome convention.

b)

The Montreal convention.

c)

The Tokyo Convention

d)

The Guatemala Convention.

9.

For which flights is the article about cabotage in the Convention of Chicago applicable?

a)

For domestic flights.

b)

For national carriers.

c)

For cargo flights.

d)

For international flights.

10.

Annex 17 to the Convention of Chicago covers:

a)

Aerodromes

b)

Facilitation

c)

Operation of aircraft

d)

Security

11.

An airline is planning a flight that will require a Technical landing in a neighboring state. Which freedom of the Air will be exercised ?

a)

4th freedom

b)

1st freedom

c)

3rd freedom

d)

2nd freedom

12.

The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes

a)

standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states, signatory to the Chicago convention.

b)

aeronautical standards adopted by all states.

c)

proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes.

d)

standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states.

13.

The objectives of ICAO was ratified by the :

a)

Warzaw convention 1929

b)

Chicago convention 1944

c)

Geneva convention 1948

d)

Geneva convention 1936

14.

The International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.) was established by the international convention of :

a)

Warsaw

b)

The Hague

c)

Chicago

d)

Montreal

15.
Which ICAO Annex contains Rules of The Air?
a)
Annex 1
b)
Annex 2
c)
Annex 3
d)
Annex 36
16.
What are the basic parts of AIP?
a)
GEN, IGEN, ENR
b)
GEN
c)
GEN, ENR, AD
d)
AD, ENR, IGEN
17.
Where you can find rules for VFR flight?
a)
Annex 1
b)
VFR manual
c)
NOTAMs and AIP
d)
CTR and TMA
18.
What does abbrevation TMA means?
a)
Terminal Maneuvering Area
b)
Temporary Maneuvering Area
c)
Transponder Mandatory Area
19.
What does abbrevation AGL means?
a)
Above ground line
b)
Allow ground loop
c)
Above ground level
20.
SSR code 7500 is
a)
Unlawful interference
b)
Emergency
c)
Radio failure
d)
Hijohn
21.
SSR code 7000 is
a)
Radio failure
b)
Unlawful interference
c)
Uncontroled VFR flight
d)
Radio failure
22.
SSR code 7600 is
a)
Unlawful interference
b)
Radio failure
c)
Uncontroled VFR flight
d)
Emergency
23.
SSR code 7700 is
a)
Unlawful interference
b)
Emergency
c)
Uncontroled VFR flight
d)
Hijohn
24.
SSR codes 7500, 7600 and 7700 are
a)
Unlawful interference, Radio failure and Emergency
b)
Emergency, Unlawful interference and Radio failure
c)
Radio failure, Emergency and Unlawful interference
25.
What is VFR flight?
a)
Flight following visual flying rules in IMC
b)
Flight following visual flying rules in TMA
c)
Flight following visual flying rules in CTR
d)
Flight following visual flying rules in VMC
26.
In which meteorological conditions you can fly
IFR?
a)
VMC only
b)
IMC only
c)
VMC and IMC
d)
Never
27.
Type of airspaces defined in ICAO are?
a)
From A to D
b)
From B to G
c)
Type 1, 2, 3
d)
From A to G
28.
Meteorological minima for VFR flight in class G?
a)
5km but not less thab 1500m with special consideration. Helicopters 5km not less than 800m with special consideration.
b)
10km but not less thab 5000m with special consideration. Helicopters 5km not less than 800m with special consideration.
c)
10km but not less than 1500m with special consideration. Helicopters 5km not less than 800m with special consideration.
29.
You are in class C airspace. Do you need two way communication established?
a)
No
b)
Yes
c)
Yes, but only as VFR flight
d)
Yes, but only as IFR flight
30.
You want to conduct your flight in class C airspace. Are you subject to an ATC clearance?
a)
Yes, but only as VFR flight
b)
Yes, but only as IFR flight
c)
No
d)
Yes
31.
You want to conduct your flight in class D airspace. Are you subject to an ATC clearance?
a)
Yes, but only as VFR flight
b)
Yes, but only as IFR flight
c)
Yes
d)
No
32.
You are in class E airspace. Do you need two way communication established?
a)
No
b)
Yes
c)
Yes, but only as VFR flight
33.
Are you subject to an ATC clearance in class G airspace?
a)
Yes
b)
No
c)
Yes, but only as VFR flight
34.
You are in class G airspace, is there any speed restriction?
a)
Yes, 250 kt IAS below 10000 ft AMSL
b)
No
c)
Yes, 250 kt IAS below 10000 ft AMSL, but as VFR flight only
35.
VFR flight shall not be flown
a)
Over congested area, assembly of persons at a height less than 1000 ft (300 m) above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft
b)
Over congested area, assembly of persons at a height less than 3000 ft (1000 m) above the highest obstacle within a radius of 6000 ft m from the aircraft
c)
I class C airspace
36.
What does this aerodrome ground signal means?
a)
Landing prohibited
b)
Need for special precautions while approaching or landing
c)
Right-hand traffic
d)
Closed runways or taxiways
37.
During en route VFR flight, minimum height above terrain should be
a)
500 ft/ 150 m AGL
b)
1000 ft / 300 m
c)
500 ft / 150 m AAL
d)
1000 ft / 300 m AGL
38.
Meteorological minima for VFR flight in class E?
a)
5 km flight visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds
b)
8 km flight visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds
c)
5 km flight visibility, 1500 ft horizontal and 1000 m vertical distance from clouds
39.
Meteorological minima for VFR flight in class C below FL 100?
a)
8 km flight visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds
b)
5 km flight visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds
c)
5 km flight visibility, 1500 ft horizontal and 1000 m vertical distance from clouds
40.
What is IFR flight?
a)
Flight following instrument flying rules in IMC or VMC
b)
Flight following instrument flying rules in TMA
c)
Flight following instrument flying rules in CTR
d)
Flight following instrument flying rules in VMC
41.
In which meteorological conditions you can fly VFR?
a)
VMC only
b)
IMC only
c)
VMC and IMC
d)
never
42.
You are in class G airspace and you want to enter class D airspace. How long in advance you should establish two way comunication with ATC?
a)
3 min
b)
5 min
c)
3 miles
d)
5 miles
43.
What does this aerodrome ground signal means?
a)
Landing prohibited
b)
Need for special precautions while approaching or landing
c)
Right-hand traffic
d)
Closed runways or taxiways
44.
What does this aerodrome ground signal means?
a)
Landing prohibited
b)
Directions to be used by aircraft for landing and take off
c)
Right-hand traffic
d)
Closed runways or taxiways
45.
What does a steady green light from the tower to an airplane in air mean?
a)
Return for landing
b)
Stop immediately
c)
Land at aerodrome and proceed to apron
d)
Clear to land
46.
What does a steady red light from the tower to an aircraft taxiing mean?
a)
Clered to taxi
b)
Stop
c)
Cleared for Take off
47.
When two of the same type of aircraft are flying head on, each must move to their
a)
Left
b)
Right
c)
Continue the same course
48.
When two aircraft are flying head on, each must move to
a)
their right
b)
their left
c)
continue the same course
49.
If two aircraft are at the same height and on converging courses
a)
The aircraft with the other on its right hand side has to give the way
b)
The aircraft with the other on its left hand side has to give the way
c)
The aircraft with the other on its right hand side has to set SQUAK 7700
d)
The aircraft with the other on its right hand side continue straight level flight
50.
An aircraft which has the right of way shall maintain
a)
its course and speed
b)
two way communication with collision traffic
c)
visual contact with other traffic
51.
Airborne Collision Avoidance:
Flight in the Vicinity of an Aerodome
a)
All turns should be made to the left. Unless ground signals or ATC direct otherwise.
b)
All turns should be made to the right. Unless ground signals or ATC direct otherwise.
c)
All turns depend on wind direction and strenght.
52.
Airborne Collision Avoidance:
Order of Landing
a)
If the commander of an aircraft is aware that another aircraft is making an emergency landing, he shall give way to that aircraft.
b)
If the commander of an aircraft is aware that another aircraft is making an emergency landing, he still has got the right to land first.
c)
It is on commander of an aircraft decision, if he gives the way for landing to another aircraft, which is making an emergency landing.
53.
If two or more flying machines, gliders or airships are approaching any place for the purpose of landing, the aircraft at …....... shall have the right-of-way.
a)
the lower altitude
b)
the higher altitude
54.
Where is green light on an aircraft
a)
left
b)
right
c)
tail
55.
Where is red light on an aircraft
a)
left
b)
right
c)
tail
56.
Where is white light on an aircraft
a)
left
b)
right
c)
tail
57.
What does abbreviation TRA means?
a)
Total Restricted Area
b)
Temporary Restricted Area
c)
Temporary Separated Area
58.
What does abbreviation AMSL means?
a)
Above mean Sea Line
b)
Allow min sea level
c)
Above Mean Sea Level
59.
What does this aerodrome ground signal means?
a)
Landing prohibited
b)
Need for special precautions while approaching or landing
c)
Right-hand traffic
d)
Closed runways or taxiways
60.
What does this aerodrome ground signal means?
a)
Landing prohibited
b)
Need for special precautions while approaching or landing
c)
Glider flights in operation
d)
Closed runways or taxiways
61.

ICAO Annex for Safety Management Systems

a)

Annex 11

b)

Annex 19

c)

Annex 14

d)

Annex 2

62.
When two of the same type of aircraft are flying head on, each must move to their
a)
Left
b)
Right
c)
Continue the same course
63.
The faster flying aircraft must overtake on the ..... side, of the slower aircraft.
a)
Right
b)
Left
c)
Must reduce speed
64.
Airborne Collision Avoidance:
Flight in the Vicinity of an Aerodome
a)
The commander of the aircraft has the right to make pattern of traffic independantly from other traffic, he has to report his position on traffic pattern only.
b)
The commander of the aircraft shall not conform to the pattern of traffic formed by other aircraft intending to land or not to keep clear of the airspace in which the traffic pattern is formed.
c)
The commander of the aircraft shall conform to the pattern of traffic formed by other aircraft intending to land or keep clear of the airspace in which the traffic pattern is formed.
65.
Airborne Collision Avoidance:
Order of Landing
a)
An aircraft landing or on its final approach to land shall not have the right-of-way over other aircraft in flight or on the ground or water.
b)
An aircraft landing or on its final approach to land shall have the right-of-way over other aircraft in flight or on the ground or water.
c)
Aircraft in flight or on the ground or water shall have the right-of-way over an aircraft landing or on its final approach to land.
66.
What does this aerodrome ground signal means?
a)
Landing prohibited
b)
Direction for landing or take-off
c)
Right-hand traffic
d)
Closed runways or taxiways
67.
What does a steady red light from the tower to flying aircraft mean?
a)
Return for landing
b)
Stop
c)
Give way to other aircraft and continue circilng
d)
Clear to land
68.
QNH
a)
is the pressure at mean sea level
b)
is the pressure at aerodrom level
c)
is set to 1013.25 hPa
69.
When you set the QNH, altimeter will indicate
a)
ALTITUDE – the vertical distance above mean sea level
b)
ALTITUDE – the horizontal distance from TWR
c)
Your height above terrain during flight
70.
Standard pressure setting is
a)
1013.25 Mpa
b)
1013.25 Pa
c)
1013.25 hPA
d)
1013.25 kg
71.
Flight level is defined
a)
as a surface of constant atmospheric pressure which is separated from other similar levels by a specified interval, and expressed in hundreds of feet
b)
as a surface of constant atmospheric pressure which is separated from other similar levels by a specified interval, and expressed in hundreds of meters
c)
as a surface of different atmospheric pressure which is separated from other similar levels by a specified interval, and expressed in hundreds of feet
72.
Transition altitude is
a)
defined as the altitude below which the vertical position of aircraft is controlled by reference to altitude
b)
defined as the altitude above which the vertical position of aircraft is controlled by reference to altitude
c)
the lowest flight level available
73.
Transition level is
a)
the highest flight level available
b)
the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude
c)
defined as the height below which the vertical position of aircraft is controlled by reference to standard setting 1013.25 hPa
74.
Emergencies:
Distress
An emergency call prefixed by the words
a)
“MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY”
b)
“PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN”
c)
"SOS, SOS, SOS"
75.
Emergencies:
Urgency
An urgency call prefixed by the words
a)
"SOS, SOS, SOS"
b)
“MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY”
c)
“PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN”
76.
Which ICAO Annex contains Rules of The Air?
a)
Annex 1
b)
Annex 2
c)
Annex 3
d)
Annex 36

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